Obstetric and Gynecologic Nursing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Obstetric and Gynecologic Nursing is a specialized course designed to equip nursing students with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide comprehensive care to women throughout their reproductive lifespan. The course covers the principles and practices of maternal and newborn care, including prenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum management, as well as the assessment and care of common and complex gynecological conditions. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, prevention strategies, patient education, and evidence-based interventions to ensure the well-being of mothers and infants. Students will also explore the psychosocial, cultural, and ethical aspects of womens health, preparing them to deliver sensitive and individualized care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an advantage to labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) rooms?
A) The family is in a familiar environment.
B) They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms.
C) The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest.
D) The woman's support system is encouraged to stay until discharge.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B) Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C) Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D) Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection?
A) The client will not exhibit further signs of infection.
B) Maintain the client's fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hr.
C) The client will have a temperature of 98.6° F within 2 days.
D) Monitor the client to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy.
Answer: D
Q2) Which most therapeutic response to the client's statement, "I'm afraid to have a cesarean birth" should be made by the nurse?
A) "Everything will be OK."
B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."
Answer: C
Q3) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?
A) Force fluids as necessary.
B) Observe interaction with the infant.
C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a homeless pregnant teenager about prenatal care. Which should the nurse emphasize in the teaching session?
A) The importance of naming the baby
B) Risk factors associated with pregnancy
C) Information about employment opportunities
D) Eating habits that will provide adequate nutrition
Answer: D
Q2) At the present time, surrogate parenting is governed by which of the following?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
Q3) Damage
A)The nurse's breach of duty caused harm.
B)The nurse has a responsibility to give care to the client.
C)An actual injury or harm to the client occurred because of the nurse's breach of duty.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) On speculum examination of the cervix, it is found to be round and smooth. These findings suggest that the client:
A) is a multipara.
B) has had vaginal deliveries.
C) is a nulliparous.
D) is a gravida 1, para 0.
Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Q1) The parents of a child with a karyotype of 47,XY, +21 ask the nurse what this means. Which is an accurate response by the nurse?
A) This karyotype is for a normal male.
B) This karyotype is for a normal female.
C) This karyotype is for a male with Down syndrome.
D) This karyotype is for a female with Turner's syndrome.
Q2) Testing for the cause of anomalies in a stillborn infant is being done. The mother angrily asks the nurse how long these tests are going to take. The nurse should understand that the mother is:
A) exhibiting normal grief behavior.
B) trying to place blame on someone.
C) being impatient and unreasonable.
D) feeling guilty and blaming herself.
Q3) A nurse is working with a client to obtain information needed for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Q1) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in its umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q3) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
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8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which advice to the client is one of the most effective methods for preventing venous stasis?
A) Sit with the legs crossed.
B) Rest often with the feet elevated.
C) Sleep with the foot of the bed elevated.
D) Wear elastic stockings in the afternoon.
Q2) A client, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her fundus is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is:
A) appropriate for gestational age.
B) a sign of impending complications.
C) lower than normal for gestational age.
D) higher than normal for gestational age.
Q3) A client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Death before or after birth
C) Neonatal hypoglycemia
D) Neonatal withdrawal syndrome
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Q1) An expectant client asks the nurse about the behavior of "mimicry." Which is an example of mimicry that the nurse should relate to the client?
A) Daydreaming about the newborn
B) Imagining oneself as a good mother
C) Babysitting for a neighbor's children
D) Wearing maternity clothes before they are needed
Q2) A Vietnamese client who speaks little English is admitted to the labor and birth unit in early labor. The nurse plans to use an interpreter during an initial assessment. Which should the nurse plan to implement with regard to using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Face the interpreter when speaking.
B) Listen carefully to what the client says.
C) Speak slowly and smile when appropriate.
D) Plan to use a male interpreter, even if a female interpreter is available.
E) Ask the interpreter to explain exactly what is said as much as possible, instead of paraphrasing.
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The traditional diet of Asian women includes little meat and few dairy products and may be low in calcium and iron. The nurse can help a client increase her intake of these foods by which action?
A) Suggest that she eat more tofu, bok choy, and broccoli.
B) Suggest that she eat more hot foods during pregnancy.
C) Emphasize the need for increased milk intake during pregnancy.
D) Tell her husband that she must increase her intake of fruits and vegetables for the baby's sake.
Q2) A client with a BMI of 32 has a positive pregnancy test. What is the maximum number of pounds that the nurse will advise the client to gain during the pregnancy?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 40
Q3) Zinc
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the major advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis?
A) It is not an invasive procedure.
B) It does not require a hospital setting.
C) It requires less time to obtain results.
D) It has less risk of spontaneous abortion.
Q2) Which clinical conditions are associated with increased levels of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Down syndrome
B) Molar pregnancy
C) Twin gestation
D) Incorrect gestational age assessment of a normal fetus-estimation is earlier in the pregnancy
E) Threatened abortion
Q3) When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
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12
Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect regarding prepared childbirth education?
A) No use of anesthetics or drugs is to be administered to clients so they can have a natural childbirth experience.
B) Clients can take refresher courses if they have delivered within the last 2 years.
C) Prepared childbirth classes may differ slightly based on the available resources of health care facilities.
D) Prepared childbirth classes are aimed at increasing awareness of the childbirth experience for parents and significant others to promote better control of pain and decrease anxiety.
Q2) Which client could safely be cared for by a certified nurse-midwife?
A) Gravida 3, para 2, with no complications
B) Gravida 1, para 0, with mild hypertension
C) Gravida 2, para 1, with insulin-dependent diabetes
D) Gravida 1, para 0, with borderline pelvic measurements
Q3) Bradley childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q2) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is:
A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
Q3) The assessment finding which indicates that the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor is:
A) 80% effacement.
B) dilation of 5 cm.
C) presence of bloody show.
D) regular contraction every 3 to 4 minutes.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Q1) The nurse is monitoring a client in the active stage of labor. Which conditions associated with fetal compromise should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Maternal hypotension
B) Fetal heart rate of 140 to 150 bpm
C) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
D) Maternal fever-38° C (100.4° F) or higher
E) Complete uterine relaxation of more than 30 seconds between contractions
Q2) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to:
A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a low-risk client in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Q1) The nurse observes the following data on an electronic fetal monitor attached to a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor: fetal heart rate baseline, 125 to 140 bpm, three accelerations over the course of 20 minutes, moderate variability. What is the priority action based on these findings?
A) Document the findings.
B) Contact the health care provider.
C) Increase the rate of the existing IV to 200 mL/hr as per the standing prescription.
D) Place oxygen via a rebreather mask at 10 L/min as per the standing prescription.
Q2) The nurse admits a laboring patient at term. On review of the prenatal record, the patient's pregnancy has been unremarkable and she is considered low risk. In planning the patient's care, at what interval will the nurse intermittently auscultate (IA) the fetal heart rate during the first stage of labor?
A) Every 10 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every 60 minutes
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Q1) You are preparing a client for epidural placement by a nurse anesthetist in the LDR. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administer a bolus of 500 to 1000 mL of D5 normal saline prior to catheter placement.
B) Have ephedrine available at bedside during catheter placement.
C) Monitor blood pressure of client frequently during catheter insertion and for the first 15 minutes of epidural administration.
D) Insert a Foley catheter prior to epidural catheter placement.
E) Monitor the client for hypertension in response to epidural insertion.
Q2) Which clinical effect can occur in the presence of increased maternal pain perception during labor?
A) Increase in uterine contractions in response to catecholamine secretion
B) Decrease in blood pressure in response to alpha receptors
C) Decreased perfusion to the placenta in response to catecholamine secretion
D) Increased uterine blood flow, causing increase in maternal blood pressure
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Q1) To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the client who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
A) Monitor her urinary output.
B) Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hr.
C) Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
D) Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.
Q2) After a forceps-assisted birth, the client is observed to have continuous bright red lochia but a firm fundus. Which other data would indicate the presence of a potential vaginal wall hematoma?
A) Lack of an episiotomy
B) Mild, intermittent perineal pain
C) Lack of pain in the perineal area
D) Edema and discoloration of the labia and perineum
Q3) Nursing care before a cesarean birth should include:
A) full perineal shave preparation.
B) administering a clear oral antacid.
C) injection of narcotic preoperative medications.
D) straight catheterization to empty the bladder.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Q1) The nurse is planning comfort measures to implement for a client after a vaginal birth. Which measures should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sitz baths four times a day
B) Use of only warm water with the sitz baths
C) Topical anesthetic spray after perineal care
D) Ice pack to the perineum for the first 24 hours
E) Sitting while relaxing the perineal and buttock areas
Q2) If rubella vaccine is indicated for a postpartum client, which instructions to the client should be included?
A) No specific instructions
B) Drinking plenty of fluids to prevent fever
C) Recommendation to stop breastfeeding for 24 hours after the injection
D) Explanation of the risks of becoming pregnant within 28 days following injection
Q3) When assessing the A of the acronym REEDA, the nurse should assess the:
A) skin color.
B) degree of edema.
C) edges of the episiotomy.
D) episiotomy for discharge.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Q1) An example of binding in during the postpartum period is a:
A) new mother telling her friends all about her labor and birth experience.
B) father looking at his newborn and stating that he "looks like I did when I was a baby."
C) mother reporting increasing anxiety during the postpartum period because she feels like she is all alone.
D) mother wanting some time alone so that she can catch up on needed sleep.
Q2) A family is concerned about how their 2-year-old son is going to react to the new baby. What intervention would help facilitate sibling attachment?
A) Have the mother and father spend individual time with their son to allay potential anxiety over the new baby coming in and displacing his position in the family as the only child.
B) Make sure that their son is supervised at all times when the baby is brought home from the hospital and is in his presence.
C) Include the son in helping to take care of the baby and reinforce the label of "big brother" as a special role.
D) Observe the son's reaction to the baby and let him decide when he wants to be introduced to his new sibling.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) Immunoglobulin M ((IgM)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
Q2) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
Q3) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
Q4) An infant at 36 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a preterm infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based on this reading?
A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.
B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.
C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.
D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) A new client asks, "Why are you doing a gestational age assessment on my baby?"
The nurse's best response is:
A) "It was ordered by your physician."
B) "This must be done to meet insurance requirements."
C) "It helps us identify infants who are at risk for any problems."
D) "The gestational age determines how long the infant will be hospitalized."
Q2) Which action should the nurse take if a discrepancy is found between the measurements of a newborn and the normative criteria?
A) Remeasure the infant.
B) Consider this a normal deviation.
C) Perform an expanded assessment.
D) Inform the parents so that they can follow the infant's growth.
Q3) Cephalohematoma
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
Q4) Caput succedaneum
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) The nurse is explaining the procedure of newborn screening to parents before discharge. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "We understand the tests are performed at 24 to 48 hours."
B) "We're glad all the tests can be done on one blood sample."
C) "We wish the tests would screen for congenital hypothyroidism."
D) "We know that if the tests are done before 24 hours, the tests will need to be repeated at 1 to 2 weeks."
Q2) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean section and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) A mother is attempting to breastfeed her infant in the hospital setting. The infant is sleepy and displays some audible swallowing, the maternal nipples are flat, and the breasts are soft. The nurse has attempted to teach the mother positioning on one side, and now the mother wants to place the infant to the breast on the other side. Based on LATCH scores, the nurse would designate a score of:
A) 10 and document findings in the chart.
B) 6 and further teach and assist the mother in feeding activities.
C) 5 and tell the mother to discontinue feeding attempts at this time because the infant is too sleepy.
D) 8 and no further assistance is needed for feeding.
Q2) A new mother asks the nurse, "How will I know early signs of hunger in my baby?" The nurse's best response is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Crying
B) Rooting
C) Lip smacking
D) Decrease in activity
E) Sucking on the hands
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further education with regard to pacifier use?
A) "We will discard the pacifier if it becomes torn."
B) "We will replace the pacifier every 1 to 2 months."
C) "We will be sure to cleanse the pacifier frequently."
D) "We will keep track of the pacifier by tying it to a string around the baby's neck."
Q2) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.
B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.
C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.
D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.
E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.
Q3) Which statement made by a new mother should be a cause of concern to the nurse?
A) "I will start my baby on solid foods at 5 months."
B) "I usually keep the temperature in my house at 72° F."
C) "I plan to position my infant on his back when sleeping."
D) "I don't intend to spoil my baby by picking him up every time he cries."
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A pregnant client tells you during a clinic visit that she is concerned about her significant other's change in behavior during the course of the pregnancy. She relates feelings of being afraid but emphatically denies any physical or verbal threats. She confides in you that she has been using her mobile phone to find out more information about this subject. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A) Tell her that all relationships change during pregnancy and give herself and her significant other some time to adapt to this situation by spending quality time with one another.
B) Tell the client that you are concerned for her and the baby; provide her with a phone number for a safe house just in case she needs to act quickly and leave the home situation.
C) Explore in more detail the client's feelings but tell her that you are concerned about searching information on the Internet as a stimulus trigger for potential abuse.
D) Do not let the client leave the clinic office and call the domestic abuse hotline number to report the incident.
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
A) 1800
B) 450
C) 900
D) 90
Q2) Which maternal condition always necessitates birth by cesarean section?
A) Partial abruptio placentae
B) Total placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Eclampsia
Q3) As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the highrisk obstetric client who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer-Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that:
A) immediate birth is required.
B) the client should be transferred to the critical care unit for closer observation.
C) RhoGAM should be administered.
D) a tetanus shot should be administered.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) Antiinfective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant client with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the client is at risk of developing:
A) hypertension.
B) postpartum infection.
C) bacterial endocarditis.
D) upper respiratory infections.
Q2) A client who has type 2 diabetes is pregnant with her second child. She was not diagnosed with diabetes until after her first pregnancy. Past obstetric history is unremarkable-spontaneous vaginal birth of a male weighing 7 pounds, 15 ounces. The client is now concerned over what will happen during this subsequent pregnancy as a result of her disease process. What impact could the disease process have on her upcoming birth?
A) Client will not be able to receive an epidural for pain management.
B) Client will not be able to have a vaginal birth.
C) A planned birth will be instituted by her health care provider.
D) It is likely that she will deliver a fetus who is small for gestational age (SGA).
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
Q2) Which nursing action should be initiated first when there is evidence of prolapsed cord?
A) Notify the health care provider.
B) Apply a scalp electrode.
C) Prepare the mother for an emergency cesarean birth.
D) Reposition the mother with her hips higher than her head.
Q3) Which assessment finding indicates a complication in the client attempting a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) Complaint of pain between the scapulae
B) Change in fetal baseline from 128 to 132 bpm
C) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 70 seconds
D) Pain level of 6 on scale of 0 to 10 during acme of contraction
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) The client who is being treated for endometritis is placed in the Fowler position because it:
A) promotes comfort and rest.
B) facilitates drainage of lochia.
C) prevents spread of infection to the urinary tract.
D) decreases tension on the reproductive organs.
Q2) Which statement by a postpartum client indicates that further teaching is not needed regarding thrombus formation?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
Q3) To prevent infection of the reproductive tract, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A) change the peripad once per shift.
B) cleanse the perineum from front to back.
C) perform pericare at least twice during the shift.
D) increase fluid intake to 2500 to 3000 mL/day.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q2) An infant delivered preterm at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information, the infant is designated as:
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) Low birth weight at term.
Q3) A preterm infant is on a respirator, with intravenous lines and much equipment. When the parents come to visit for the first time, which is an important response by the nurse?
A) Encourage the parents to touch their infant.
B) Reassure the parents that the infant is progressing well.
C) Discuss the care they will give their infant when the infant goes home.
D) Suggest that the parents visit for only a short time to reduce their anxiety.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D5W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
Q2) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome is not responding to conventional treatment. Which method of treatment may be available at a level III facility for use with this infant?
A) Insertion of an endotracheal tube
B) Respiratory support with a ventilator
C) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D) Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
Q3) Which defect is present with tetralogy of Fallot?
A) Patent ductus arteriosus
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
D) Transposition of the great arteries
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) The client who has had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted should be instructed to:
A) use a vinegar douche weekly for 4 weeks.
B) have the IUD replaced every 2 to 4 years.
C) check the placement of the string once a week for 4 weeks.
D) use another method of contraception for 2 weeks after insertion.
Q2) A client has had a prior history of endometriosis and comes to the clinic asking about which method of birth control might be helpful to alleviate her symptoms. Which birth control method should the client use?
A) Withdrawal method
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Depo-Provera
D) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Q3) Which symptom in a client using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2143
Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
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34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which administration concern is included in the plan of care for the HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in liquid form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The individual should sit down for 15 minutes following the injection.
Q2) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
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35
Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) Which sexually transmitted disease can be cured?
A) Herpes
B) AIDS
C) Chlamydia
D) Venereal warts
Q2) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
Q3) A client with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences: A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
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