Nutritional Biochemistry Review Questions
Course Introduction
Nutritional Biochemistry explores the molecular foundations of human nutrition, examining how macronutrients and micronutrients are digested, absorbed, metabolized, and utilized by the body. The course delves into the biochemical roles of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, and minerals, highlighting their essential functions in cellular processes and energy production. Students will analyze the impact of nutrient deficiencies and excesses on metabolic pathways, gene expression, and overall health. Emphasis is placed on integrating biochemical principles with practical applications in diet, health maintenance, and disease prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Q1) Which of the following elements is considered a second tier biochemical element meaning that it is less abundant than first tier elements but still required for life in all organisms?
A)H
B)N C)P
D)C
E)O
Answer: C
Q2) Prior to 1926, the source of biological catalysis was postulated to be possessed by "ferments" which today are called _______.
A)proteins
B)nucleic acids
C)enzymes
D)polysaccharides
E)membranes
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to determine the pK<sub>a</sub> of an unknown acid. In a solution at pH 7.0, you find that 24% of the acid is in its deprotonated form. What is the pK<sub>a</sub> of the acid?
A)7.9
B)7.5
C)6.5
D)5.6
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Lactic acid is a common product of actively working muscle. It is transported via the bloodstream to the liver. What percent of lactic acid is ionized in the bloodstream if the pH is 7.40 and the pK<sub>a</sub> is 3.86?
Answer: 99.97% (100% using correct SF) 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b5_a2ab_b57cb5e7ed82_TB2679_00
Q3) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs. With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0, what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b6_a2ab_b9ca760947d7_TB2679_00
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions would be a non-spontaneous process?
A)complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water
B)formation of phosphoenolpyruvate from pyruvate and P<sub>i</sub>
C)hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
D)the coupled reaction of phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP \(\rarr\) pyruvate + ATP
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following correctly relates the relative entropies?
A)sodium chloride crystals > sodium chloride dissolved in water
B)carbon dioxide in air > dry ice
C)carbon in a molecule of glucose > carbon in carbon dioxide gas
D)a solution of ATP > the same solution with ATP converted to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
E)ice made from pure water > ice made from salt water
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Draw the two forms of a phosphodiester bond that can occur under physiological pH. If the pK<sub>a</sub> for this conversion is 6.2, what form predominates in the lysosome where the pH is about 5?
Q2) In the Watson-Crick DNA model, how many base pairs are found in one turn of the helix?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
E)12
Q3) Base stacking, or the "stacking interaction," is most likely the result of which noncovalent interaction
A)charge-dipole interaction
B)dipole-dipole interaction
C)dipole-induced dipole interaction
D)van der Waals interaction
E)none of the above
Q4) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine, then show the most common tautomer of each.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of amino acids represents a conservation of the type of amino acid when considering the sequence of a protein from different species?
A)Asp and Asn
B)Lys and His
C)Leu and Val
D)Gly and Ile
E)Phe and Trp
Q2) Which of the following pairs of amino acids contains both an aliphatic and an aromatic amino acid?
A)Thr and Tyr
B)Val and Gln
C)Phe and Ile
D)Ser and Cys
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Q4) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1, 3, 7, and 11.
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) The presence of a hydrophobic amino acid at every third or fourth residue in \(\alpha\)-keratin results in which of the following?
A)a random placement of hydrophobic amino acids within the helix
B)a strip of hydrophobic surface area that, when combined with another monomer, results in the formation of a dimer through hydrophobic interactions
C)a strip of hydrophobic surface area that causes individual \(\alpha\)-keratin molecules to fold back on themselves through hydrophobic interactions
D)represents a deleterious mutation that causes the \(\alpha\)-keratin molecules to aggregate and form plaques
E)none of the above
Q2) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
Q3) Which of the following could contribute to quaternary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between arginine and glutamic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between threonine hydroxyl group and imidazole ring of histidine
D)hydrophobic interaction between phenylalanine and tryptophan
E)all of the above
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8
Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Q1) Which immunoglobulin is the only one to occur in a dimeric form?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q2) Recent studies have shown that the H-bond between the distal histidine and oxygen molecule in myoglobin has a strength of ~ 15 kJ/mol, but in hemoglobin, the strength of the bond is only ~8 kJ/mol. What does this suggest about the differences between myoglobin and hemoglobin?
A)myoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than hemoglobin
B)hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than myoglobin
C)the iron in myoglobin is more easily oxidized than in hemoglobin
D)the iron in hemoglobin is more easily oxidized than in myoglobin
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of how actin and myosin work in cooperation to allow muscle contraction?
A)myosin head groups push against actin filaments to lengthen the sarcomere
B)myosin head groups walk along the actin filament to shorten the sarcomere
C)myosin head groups interact with actin only when the sarcomere is fully lengthened
D)all myosin head groups move along the actin filament simultaneously to shorten the sarcomere
E)none of the above
Q2) In muscle, thin filaments are made of _______ while thick filaments are made of
A)myosin; actin
B)actin; myosin
C)myofibril; myofiber
D)myofiber; myofibril
E)none of the above
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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans
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Q1) Gluconic acid is derived from ________ while glucuronic acid is derived from
A)glucose; gulose
B)gulose; glucose
C)glucose; glucose
D)glucose; galactose
E)galactose; glucose
Q2) Dihydroxyacetone is classified as a(n)_______.
A)aldotriose
B)ketotriose
C)aldotetrose
D)ketotetrose
E)none of the above
Q3) An N-linked glycan would be attached to ______ while an O-linked glycan would be attached to ________.
A)Asn; Ser
B)Lys; Tyr
C)Gln; Thr
D)Arg; Ser
E)Lys; Ser
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Chapter 10: Lipids, Membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) Draw the following fatty acid: 18:3c\(\Delta\)9,12,15 as it would appear at physiological pH. With reference to the omega carbon, what type of fatty acid is this?
Draw the result if this fatty acid underwent partial hydrogenation to produce 18:1t\(\Delta\)11
Q2) The transient association of lipid rafts is thought to play a significant role in which of the following?
A)cell signaling
B)bacterial entry into host cells
C)protein trafficking
D)membrane receptor dimerization
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a common mechanism for the covalent attachment of a lipid to a peripheral membrane protein?
A)addition of a geranylgeranyl group to the hydroxyl of serine, forming an ether
B)addition of a farnesyl group to the thiol of cysteine, forming a thioether
C)addition of a myristoyl group to the amine of lysine, forming an amide
D)reaction of the amine group of phosphatidylethanolamine with the carboxylate of glutamic acid, forming an amide
E)all of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) Which of the following scenarios would result in a relatively low energy of activation?
A)an enzyme binds to the substrate with greater affinity than the transition state
B)an enzyme binds to both substrate and transition state with equal affinity
C)an enzyme binds to the transition state with greater affinity than the substrate
D)an enzyme binds only to the transition state
E)none of the above
Q2) What must be true if K<sub>M</sub> is truly a measure of the affinity of enzyme and substrate?
A)k<sub>c</sub><sub>at</sub> must be larger than K<sub>M</sub>
B)k<sub>cat</sub> must be smaller than K<sub>M</sub>
C)k<sub>cat</sub> must be about equal to k<sub>1</sub>
D)k<sub>cat</sub> must be much smaller than k<sub>-1</sub>
E)k<sub>cat</sub> must be much larger than k<sub>-1</sub>
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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) Of the following, which would have the most reduced state of carbon, and therefore, would yield the largest amount of energy per gram?
A)glucose
B)glycogen
C)alanine
D)stearic acid
E)all of the above would have identical energy yields
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct compartmentation of a biochemical process with its cellular location?
A)fatty acid oxidation: endoplasmic reticulum
B)RNA synthesis: Golgi complex
C)citric acid cycle: mitochondria
D)gluconeogenesis: lysosome
E)none of the above
Q3) Pyruvic acid has the formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub>. Write the reaction for its complete combustion. What is its respiratory quotient? Does this mean that it is more oxidized or less oxidized than glucose?
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Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) During the energy investment phase of glycolysis, _____ reaction(s)use ATP as a substrate while during the energy generation phase, _____ reactions produce ATP as a product.
A)2; 2
B)2; 4
C)1; 2
D)1; 4
E)0; 2
Q2) Besides its role in glycogen synthesis, which of the following directly relies on UDP-glucose?
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)fructose metabolism
D)sucrose metabolism
E)galactose metabolism
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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the products of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the correct order of release?
A)acetyl-CoA, CO<sub>2</sub>, NADH
B)acetyl-CoA, CO<sub>2</sub>, FADH<sub>2</sub>
C)CO<sub>2</sub>, acetyl-CoA, NADH
D)CO<sub>2</sub>, acetyl-CoA, FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)CO<sub>2</sub>, acetyl-CoA, FADH<sub>2</sub>, NADH
Q2) The oxidation reactions that convert pyruvate to CO<sub>2</sub> are specifically catalyzed by ______ enzymes.
A)oxygenase
B)oxidase
C)decarboxylase
D)dehydrogenase
E)none of the above
Q3) __________ activates __________, thereby inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase.
A)NADH; pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup>; pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
D)ATP; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
E)pyruvate; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following steps in the catalytic cycle of the F<sub>1</sub> component is the most energetically unfavorable?
A)binding of ADP
B)binding of P<sub>i</sub>
C)formation of ATP from ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
D)release of ATP
E)all of the above are equally energetically unfavorable
Q2) Which of the following acts as an uncoupler of the mitochondrial proton gradient due to its action as an ionophore?
A)valinomycin
B)nigericin
C)trifluorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone
D)2,4-dinitrophenol
E)cyanide
Q3) In addition to iron, what metal is found in certain cytochromes?
A)manganese
B)copper
C)chromium
D)cobalt
E)zinc
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following shows the overall equation for the light reactions?
A)2 H<sub>2</sub>O + 1 NADP<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) 1 H<sup>+</sup> + O<sub>2</sub> + 1 NADPH, requires 4 photons
B)2 H<sub>2</sub>O + 1 NADP<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) 1 H<sup>+</sup> + O<sub>2</sub> + 1 NADPH, requires 8 photons
C)2 H<sub>2</sub>O + 2 NADP<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) 2 H<sup>+</sup> + O<sub>2</sub> + 2 NADPH, requires 4 photons
D)2 H<sub>2</sub>O + 2 NADP<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) 2 H<sup>+</sup> + O<sub>2</sub> + 2 NADPH, requires 8 photons
E)2 H<sub>2</sub>O + 2 NADP<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) 2 H<sup>+</sup> + O<sub>2</sub> + 2 NADPH, requires 16 photons
Q2) Under what conditions does the cyclic electron flow of photosystem I occur?
A)high NADPH, low ATP
B)low NADPH, high ATP
C)low NADPH, low ATP
D)high NADPH, high ATP
E)under conditions when light is not intense enough to excite PSII
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty Acids, Triacylglycerols, and Lipoproteins
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Q1) For each acetyl-CoA that is incorporated into a growing fatty acid, what energy inputs are required, assuming that the growing fatty acid already contains at least 4 carbons?
A)1 NADPH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP
B)2 NADPH, 1 ATP
C)2 NADPH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP
D)1 NADPH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 ATP
E)2 NADPH, 2 ATP
Q2) For the \(\beta\)-oxidation of a fatty acid with notation of 18:3c\(\Delta\)6,9,12, how many NADPH would be required and how many FADH<sub>2</sub> would be produced?
A)1 NADPH, 7 FADH<sub>2</sub>
B)1 NADPH, 8 FADH<sub>2</sub>
C)2 NADPH, 6 FADH<sub>2</sub>
D)2 NADPH, 7 FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)2 NADPH, 8 FADH<sub>2</sub>
Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO<sub>2</sub>, how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) Although AMPK and mTOR generally play opposing roles in metabolic control, which of the following pathways is activated by both of these molecules?
A)glucose transport
B)glycolysis
C)gluconeogenesis
D)cholesterol synthesis
E)none of the above
Q2) For each of the following biochemical pathways, give the effect of each hormone as either activated (\(\uarr\)), inhibited (\(\downarrow\))or no effect (NE). insulin
glucagon
epinephrine
glycolysis (liver)gluconeogenesis
glycogen synthesis (muscle)lipolysis
glycogenolysis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, Steroids,
Isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is critical for choline and phosphatidylcholine synthesis?
A)serine
B)\(\beta\)-alanine
C)homocysteine
D)methionine
E)homoserine
Q2) Phospholipids are synthesized in the ___________, then transferred to the ____________ via transport vesicles.
A)smooth endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi complex
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum; lysosome
D)Golgi complex; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Golgi complex; cell membrane
Q3) How is the activity of HMG-CoA reductase reduced?
A)allosteric inhibition by cholesterol
B)ubiquitination in response to sterol accumulation resulting in proteolysis
C)serine phosphorylation by an insulin-activated protein kinase
D)tyrosine phosphorylation by AMPK
E)none of the above
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, Utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is exclusively ketogenic?
A)phenylalanine
B)tyrosine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)leucine
Q2) Which of the following correctly explains the covalent modification used to control glutamine synthetase?
A)uridylylation activates, deuridylylation inhibits B)uridylylation inhibits, deuridylylation activates
C)adenylation activates, deadenylation inhibits
D)adenylation inhibits, deadenylation activates E)phosphorylation inhibits, dephosphorylation activates
Q3) Which of the following is seen in the transaminase mechanism?
A)aldimine formed between pyridoxal and lysine residue
B)Schiff base
C)pyridoxamine phosphate that reacts only with an \(\alpha\)-ketoacid
D)a carbanion that is resonance stabilized as a quinonoid intermediate
E)all of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds II: Amino
Acids, Porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) The conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan in the serotonin synthesis pathway is analogous to the conversion of _________ to _________.
A)glycine; serine
B)phenylalanine; tyrosine
C)tyrosine to thyroxine
D)dopa to dopaquinone
E)all of the above
Q2) Glyphosate, the active molecule in the herbicide Roundup, is an inhibitor of the enzyme 5-enolpuruvylshikimate-3-phosphate synthase in the chorismate synthesis pathway. Which of the following amino acids would not be produced in a plant treated with Roundup?
A)glycine
B)serine
C)tyrosine
D)valine
E)proline
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) The end products of the pyrimidine catabolic pathway are ammonia, carbon dioxide and __________.
A)asparagine
B)aspartic acid
C)dihydrouracil
D)\(\beta\)-alanine
E)glutamate
Q2) While endonucleases cleave nucleic acids into smaller oligonucleotides, __________ are responsible for cleaving the oligonucleotides into nucleotides.
A)phosphodiesterases
B)nucleotidase
C)nucleoside kinases
D)phosphorylases
E)phosphoribosyl transferases
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) InsP<sub>3</sub> binds to _______ channels in the endoplasmic reticulum while DAG activates ___________.
A)Na<sup>+</sup>; protein kinase A
B)Na<sup>+</sup>; protein kinase C
C)Ca<sup>2+</sup>; protein kinase A
D)Ca<sup>2+</sup>; protein kinase C
E)none of the above
Q2) Amphetamine and mescaline are agonists of ____________, the neurotransmitter often considered a "pleasure agent."
A)serotonin
B)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid
C)N-methyl-D-aspartate
D)glutamate
E)dopamine
Q3) What neurotransmitter is involved with cholinergic synapses?
A)serotonin
B)dopamine
C)acetylcholine
D)glutamate
E)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid
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Chapter 24: Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of steps usually taken in a Southern analysis?
A)electrophoresis \(\rarr\) restriction digest \(\rarr\) nitrocellulose transfer \(\rarr\) hybridization
B)electrophoresis \(\rarr\) hybridization \(\rarr\) restriction digest \(\rarr\) nitrocellulose transfer
C)hybridization \(\rarr\) restriction digest \(\rarr\) electrophoresis \(\rarr\) nitrocellulose transfer
D)restriction digest \(\rarr\)electrophoresis \(\rarr\) hybridization \(\rarr\) nitrocellulose transfer
E)restriction digest \(\rarr\)electrophoresis \(\rarr\) nitrocellulose transfer \(\rarr\)hybridization
Q2) What is the typical percentage of lysine + arginine in histone proteins?
A)<5%
B)5-10%
C)10-20%
D)20-35%
E)>35%
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Chapter 25: DNA Replication
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description for primase?
A)a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B)an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C)a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D)an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
E)none of the above
Q2) In the Klenow fragment of many DNA polymerases, the Mg<sup>2+</sup> ions that are required for activity are coordinated to which amino acid R-groups?
A)histidine and aspartate
B)two aspartates
C)aspartate and asparagine
D)aspartate and glutamate
E)glutamate and glutamine
Q3) In eukaryotic replication, which polymerase is analogous to E. coli primase?
A)pol \(\alpha\)
B)pol \(\beta\)
C)pol \(\gamma\)
D)pol \(\delta\)
E)pol \(\varepsilon\)
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Page 27
Chapter 26: DNA Restructuring: Repair, Recombination, Rearrangement, Amplification
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Q1) One mechanism to introduce greater diversity into antibody sequences is somatic hypermutation. What enzyme is responsible for somatic hypermutation in the DNA sequences that code for antibodies?
A)deoxyadenosine deaminase
B)deoxycytidine deaminase
C)deoxyadenosine transaminase
D)purine-pyrimidine transposase
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes forms the photochemical reaction center of DNA photolyase?
A)NADH
B)thiamine pyrophosphate
C)biotin
D)FADH<sup>-</sup>
E)5-methyltetrahydrofolate
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Q1) Which of the following events commonly occur in the processing of eukaryotic mRNA?
A)addition of a 5' cap
B)RNA editing
C)splicing to remove introns
D)alternative splicing to combine different exons into mature mRNA
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the first event in the post-translational processing of an E. coli tRNA?
A)ribonuclease P cleavage to create the proper 5' end of the molecule
B)methylation of guanine residues
C)conversion of some uridine residues to pseudouridine
D)endonuclease cleavage of about 170 bases from the 3' end of the molecule
E)removal of 9 nucleotides from the 3' end by ribonuclease D
Q3) What type of enzyme activity is associated with the termination factor \(\rho\)?
A)topoisomerase
B)endonuclease
C)exonuclease
D)helicase
E)ligase
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation?
A)the genetic code is different
B)prokaryotic ribosomes are free in the cytosol; eukaryotic chromosomes are always membrane bound
C)eukaryotic translation requires more protein factors
D)the ribosomes in prokaryotes are larger
E)none of the above
Q2) Translate the following mRNA into a peptide using the standard genetic code: 5'-AUGCGGAUCCAUGUACAACUGGACGCAGUACCGUAACGCGAU-3'
Q3) During apoptosis, proteolysis is catalyzed by ______________ enzymes.
A)ubiquitin
B)autophagic lysosomal protease
C)phagocytic protease
D)HSP protease
E)caspase
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phosphorylation of several RNA polymerase II serine residues has been identified as a key event in eukaryotic translation initiation. Which of the following is one of the enzymes responsible for this phosphorylation?
A)Mediator complex
B)Rap1
C)TFIIH
D)TATA box-binding protein
E)ACT
Q2) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?
A)operator and CRP site
B)operator and repressor
C)CRP site and repressor
D)operator, CRP site and repressor
E)none of the above
Q3) DNA methylation in eukaryotes plays a role in ____________.
A)methyl-directed mismatch repair
B)protection of restriction sites
C)chromatin remodeling
D)cancerous cell growth
E)gene silencing
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