Nutritional Biochemistry Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Nutritional Biochemistry explores the molecular and biochemical processes underlying human nutrition and metabolism. This course examines the digestion, absorption, and metabolic fate of macronutrients and micronutrients in the body, emphasizing the roles of vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids in maintaining health. Students will investigate the regulation of energy balance, enzyme activity, and nutrient-gene interactions, as well as the biochemical basis of dietary-related diseases. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and practical examples, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how nutrition influences cellular function, health, and disease prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Edition by Roger L. Miesfeld
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Chapter 1: Principles of Biochemistry
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Q1) What is the function of the chloroplast in a plant cell?
A) detoxification of macromolecules
B) degradation of macromolecules
C) conversion of light energy to chemical energy
D) conversion of glucose to ATP
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?
A) mammals
B) plasma membrane
C) insects
D) forest
Answer: D
Q3) Name the three components of a nucleotide.
Answer: Nucleotide base,five-carbon ribose,and one or more phosphate groups
Q4) Amino acids are the building blocks for which biomolecule(s)?
A) proteins
B) DNA
C) carbohydrates
D) micelles
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Physical Biochemistry: Energy
Conversion,water,and Membranes
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Q1) The example of water freezing into ice shows
A) an increase in entropy of the system.
B) a decrease in entropy of the system.
C) no change in the entropy of the system.
D) a decrease in the entropy of the surroundings.
Answer: B
Q2) The difference between an oxidation reaction and a reduction reaction is that oxidation is the __________ and reduction is the __________.
A) loss of electrons; gain of electrons
B) gain of electrons; loss of electrons
C) loss of protons; gain of protons
D) gain of protons; loss of protons
Answer: A
Q3) What is the final molecule made from the oxidation of H<sub>2</sub>O by solar energy?
A) ozone
B) glucose
C) fructose
D) carbon dioxide
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Nucleic Acid Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In viral transduction,DNA is transferred when A) bacteriophages infect bacteria.
B) foreign DNA fragments are inserted into the plasmid using multiple cloning sites.
C) there is a horizontal gene transfer during the bacteria mating process.
D) a dead bacterium releases DNA into the environment and it is obtained by another bacterium.
Answer: A
Q2) Calculate the linking number for a B-DNA strand that contains 735 total base pairs.
A) 50
B) 61
C) 67
D) 70
Answer: D
Q3) Why does the T<sub>m</sub> increase as the G-C content increases?
Answer: G-C base pairs have more favorable base stacking interactions than A-T base pairs.Therefore,it takes more heat energy to disrupt the base stacking interactions of the G-C base pairs.
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Chapter 4: Protein Structure
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Q1) It is important for cells to degrade misfolded proteins.If misfolded proteins are not degraded,the misfolded proteins may
A) waste excessive ATP in attempts to refold them.
B) aggregate and interfere with normal cellular function.
C) eventually refold, but not until excessive and sometimes fatal levels of cellular energy are spent.
D) be excreted from the cell rather than recycled for building blocks.
Q2) Which amino acid side chain from the list below is the most polar?
A) Gln
B) Ala
C) Leu
D) Phe
Q3) Draw the reaction by which a protein disulfide bond forms.
Q4) How many different protein folds are recognized in the formal system of organization,referred to as SCOP: Structure Organization of Proteins?
A) 4
B) >10
C) >100
D) >1000
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Chapter 5: Methods in Protein Biochemistry
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Q1) Explain the difference between polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies.
Q2) Protein-specific antibodies can be used to detect proteins within cells conserving the cell architecture using
A) immunofluorescence.
B) Western blot.
C) immunoprecipitation.
D) ELISA.
Q3) Explain the difference between the primary and secondary antibody using a Western blot.
Q4) Which separation technique exploits the solubility differences of proteins?
A) centrifugation
B) salting out
C) dialysis
D) ion-exchange chromatography
Q5) In monoclonal antibody generation,the cells that produce the antibody in the animal are located in __________ cells.
A) heart
B) liver
C) spleen
D) red blood
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Chapter 6: Protein Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered part of the thin filament?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) troponin
D) tropomyosin
Q2) An oxygen binding curve of fractional saturation versus pO<sub>2</sub> displays a sigmoidal shape.This is the oxygen binding curve for A) myoglobin.
B) hemoglobin that has been dissociated into individual subunits.
C) hemoglobin in the presence of 2,3-BPG.
D) myoglobin in the presence of 2,3-BPG.
Q3) Which of the following is a positive effector for oxygen binding to hemoglobin?
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) O<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sup>+</sup>
D) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
Q4) Consider the movement of fructose into a cell by passive transport.If the extracellular concentration of fructose is 0.35 mM and the intracellular concentration of fructose is 0.42 mM,what is the free energy of transport in kJ/mol?
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Chapter 7: Enzyme Mechanisms
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Q1) The regulation of a biomolecule through the addition or removal of a molecular tag involves __________ reactions.
A) coenzyme-dependent redox
B) reversible covalent modification
C) metabolite transformation
D) isomerization
Q2) In a reversible covalent modification reaction involving the phosphorylation of a target protein,which of the following amino acids is LEAST likely to be modified with a phosphate group?
A) Ser
B) Phe
C) Tyr
D) Thr
Q3) What three amino acids are targeted for phosphorylation by kinases?
Q4) Both the substrate and the tetrahedral intermediate,when associated with chymotrypsin,
A) contain an oxyanion.
B) interact with the oxyanion hole.
C) undergo a nucleophilic attack.
D) hydrogen bond to Asp102.
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Chapter 8: Cell Signaling Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell-specific responses to signaling molecules are possible because
A) nuclear receptor expression is cell specific.
B) target palindromic DNA sequences are ubiquitous.
C) signaling molecules are hydrophobic and can pass through the plasma membrane.
D) only some cells express gated channels for the signaling molecules.
Q2) Oncogenic Ras protein chronically stimulates the MAP kinase pathway.Why is Ras not inactivated in this situation?
Q3) A class of proteins that assist other proteins to fold are known as __________ proteins.
A) folding assist
B) proteasome
C) chaperonin
D) overseer
Q4) Which of the following compounds is a pharmaceutical adrenergic receptor agonist?
A) dopamine
B) metoprolol
C) norepinephrine
D) clonidine
Q5) What is the TNF receptor-TRADD-FADD-procaspase 8 adaptor complex also known as?
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Chapter 9: Glycolysis: a Paradigm of Metabolic Regulation
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Q1) The first reaction in glycolysis that produces a high-energy compound is catalyzed by
A) aldolase.
B) triose phosphate isomerase.
C) enolase.
D) phosphofructokinase-1.
Q2) The glycolytic pathway is responsible for passing molecules to which other pathways?
A) citrate cycle and nitrogen fixation
B) photosynthesis and oxidative phosphorylation
C) citrate cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
D) urea cycle and fatty acid synthesis
Q3) In your own words explain why glycolysis is considered one of the core metabolic pathways in nature.
Q4) List the major metabolic pathways in plants and classify each as either an energy conversion pathway or a synthesis/degradation pathway.
Q5) Describe how molecules such as maltose can enter glycolysis.
Q6) Explain why in the production of beer,the yeast are first grown under aerobic conditions and then shifted to anaerobic conditions.
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Chapter 10: The Citrate Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) If acetyl-CoA is not metabolized by the citrate cycle,the molecule in the cell
A) undergoes fatty acid metabolism.
B) is transported across the cell membrane.
C) is used to synthesize amino acids.
D) is used during glycolysis.
Q2) Which vitamin is the precursor to the coenzyme that functions as a reductant in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the final step of the reaction?
A) thiamine
B) pantothenic acid
C) riboflavin
D) niacin
Q3) What two features of the citrate cycle make it unique compared with linear metabolic pathways?
Q4) The primary function of NAD<sup>+</sup> in the citrate cycle is that it
A) functions as an electron donor.
B) is oxidized to produce GTP.
C) acts as an electron acceptor.
D) phosphorylates ADP.
Q5) Explain how arsenic affects the pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction.
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Chapter 11: Oxidative Phosphorylation
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Q1) List the major enzymes and enzyme complexes in the oxidative phosphorylation pathway,which are required to couple FADH<sub>2</sub> oxidation with ATP synthesis.
Q2) Describe the process by which proton flow through the c subunits forces the rotation of the ATP synthase spindle in the mitochondrial membrane.Please include the roles of aspartic acid residues and the half-channels in your description.
Q3) The first enzyme in the electron transport system is referred to as complex I,otherwise known as
A) ATP synthase.
B) NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase.
C) succinate dehydrogenase.
D) cytochrome c oxidase.
Q4) Which one of the following is involved in the flow of electrons from NADH through the electron transport system to molecular oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)?
A) ATP synthase
B) complex II
C) complex III
D) ATP
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Chapter 12: Photosynthesis
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Q1) List the three possible fates of an electron in an excited state chlorophyll molecule.
Q2) Chlorophyll absorbs
A) heat energy and reaches an excited state.
B) photon energy and becomes excited or oxidized.
C) an electron during photon excitation.
D) all wavelengths of light.
Q3) The glyoxylate cycle enzymes
A) are active at night when sugar reserves are high and lipid synthesis is activated.
B) bypass the decarboxylation steps of the TCA cycle, resulting in the net synthesis of a sugar molecule from acetyl-CoA.
C) replace the mitochondrial TCA cycle enzymes.
D) require ATP and NADPH from the light reactions.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT required to activate rubisco?
A) carbamate formation of the active site lysine
B) activation by CO<sub>2</sub>
C) binding of the biotin cofactor
D) binding of Mg<sup>2+</sup>
Q5) What is the main difference between C<sub>4</sub> and CAM plants?
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Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is classified as a monosaccharide?
A) sucrose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) maltose
Q2) The growth rate of pigs and chickens is often decreased when they eat raffinose-series oligosaccharides that are present in soybean-based feeds.Propose a method where pigs and chickens can still eat the soybean-based feeds but also grow at the same rate.
Q3) Arrays made with chemically synthesized glycans are used to investigate glycan-binding properties
A) of different arrangements of sugar groups using HPLC.
B) by comparing the mass-to-charge ratio of the fragments with known glycan groups.
C) of different types of pathogenic bacteria using HPLC.
D) by comparing the affinity of lectins with structurally related glycan groups.
Q4) Compare and contrast the structure of chitin and cellulose.
Q5) Outline the methods used to stain both Enterococcus faecalis and Escherichia coli.
Q6) Compare the two basic types of arrays developed for glycobiology research.
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Chapter 14: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) What controls the activity of the opposing enzymes hexokinase and glucose-6-phosphatase from the glycolysis and gluconeogenesis pathways?
A) levels of ATP
B) cellular compartmentalization and separation of the two enzymes
C) fructose-2,6-bisphosphate concentration
D) phosphorylation of the enzymes
Q2) Which of the following molecules is found in the nonoxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?
A) ATP
B) NADPH
C) fructose-6-phosphate
D) CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) List the three enzymes in glycolysis that are bypassed in gluconeogenesis and match them with the enzymes in gluconeogenesis that replace them.
Q4) Which molecule allosterically activates pyruvate carboxylase?
A) AMP
B) NAD<sup>+</sup>
C) epinephrine
D) acetyl-CoA
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Chapter 15: Lipid Structure and Function
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Q1) Snake venom often secretes phospholipase A<sub>2</sub> enzymes,which cleave
A) glycerophospholipids.
B) ceramides.
C) sphingosines.
D) gangliosides.
Q2) Outline the six steps required for the absorption and transport of dietary triacylglycerols.
Q3) One advantage of using hydrogenation in the food industry is A) decreased processing time.
B) reduction in heart disease.
C) increased shelf life.
D) decreased melting point.
Q4) Inhibition of the COX-1 enzyme results in A) reduced pain and fever.
B) reduced mucin secretion.
C) increased risk of heart disease.
D) increased platelet aggregation.
Q5) Compare and contrast the structure of a wax to that of a fatty acid.
Q6) Describe the two ways triacylglycerols have been used to improve daily life.
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Q7) List and describe the major types of lipids found in a typical plasma membrane.
Chapter 16: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) What molecule is the odd chain fatty acid product propionyl-CoA converted into?
A) butyryl-CoA
B) succinyl-CoA
C) citrate
D) palmitate
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for assembly of palmitate from activated acetyl-CoA fragments?
A) acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
B) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C) fatty acyl-CoA synthetase
D) fatty acid synthase
Q3) Which of the following stimulate fatty acid synthesis when their concentrations are high?
A) citrate and insulin
B) glucagon and citrate
C) insulin and acyl-CoA
D) citrate, insulin, and palmitoyl-CoA
Q4) List the primary three physiological roles played by cholesterol or cholesterol derivatives.
Q5) What are the known components of atherosclerotic plaques?
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Chapter 17: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) Using nitrogenase to reduce N<sub>2</sub> should require 2 ATP to be invested,but it actually takes 16 ATP.Why?
A) It is harder to break the nitrogen triple bond than expected and requires more energy input.
B) Extra energy is required to produce H<sub>2.</sub>
C) To regenerate the MoFe protein requires the input of ATP.
D) To keep the nitrogenase complex associated requires an input of 4 ATP.
Q2) How are Roundup Ready soybeans resistant to the herbicide?
Q3) How does biological fixation convert nitrogen to ammonia?
A) by reducing nitrogen
B) by combining nitrogen with carbon
C) through the ATP-dependent process catalyzed by nitrogenase complex
D) through the NADH-dependent process catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase
Q4) Nitrogen in biological compounds ultimately comes from what source?
A) ammonia
B) nitrate
C) nitrogen gas
D) bacteria
Q5) How is the synthetic pathway for nonessential amino acids different than for essential amino acids?
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Chapter 18: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a coenzyme that is derived from ATP?
A) coenzyme Q
B) FAD
C) heme
D) Fe<sub>4</sub>-S<sub>4</sub> cluster
Q2) An in vitro experiment with all precursors available for the conversion of dUMP to dTMP would also need to include thymidylate synthase and two additional enzymes necessary for the regeneration of N<sup>5</sup>,N<sup>10</sup>-methylenetetrahydrofolate.What are the two enzymes?
Q3) The transformation of ribose-5-phosphate to AIR in the first stage of purine biosynthesis in E.coli consumes the equivalent of 5 ATP.The second stage consumes A) an additional 5 ATP.
B) more than 5 ATP.
C) less than 5 ATP and generates 1 ATP.
D) less than 5 ATP.
Q4) Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is a tetrameric enzyme that displays sigmoidal kinetics when no inhibitors are present.In the presence of either GTP or ATP the kinetics curve is sigmoidal.Why does this difference in kinetics occur?
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Chapter 19: Metabolic Integration
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Q1) The blood-brain barrier results from __________,which allow glucose and __________ to enter the brain.
A) astrocytes; ketone bodies
B) astrocytes; triacylglycerols
C) hepatocytes; ketone bodies
D) hepatocytes; triacylglycerols
Q2) Whipple surgery,sometimes carried out on patients battling pancreatic cancer,is one of the most demanding surgeries to perform.It involves removing parts of the pancreas and rerouting aspects of the digestive track.A complication of the surgery can be the development of diabetes.Why could this complication develop? Include the types of cells and hormones that are involved.
Q3) Metabolic homeostasis relies on maintaining
A) maximum ATP synthase activity.
B) optimal metabolite concentrations.
C) maximum flux through the citric acid cycle.
D) minimal inhibition of gluconeogenesis.
Q4) A patient presents with insulin resistance,hypertension,and hyperlipidemia.What condition would you diagnose this patient as having?
Q5) Distinguish between the main energy sources of brain versus cardiac muscle.
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Chapter 20: Dna Replication, repair, and Recombination
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Q1) What are the mechanisms for excision nucleotide repairs in eukaryotes?
A) global genomic and mismatch
B) global genomic and base excision
C) transcription-coupled and partial genomic
D) transcription-coupled and global genomic
Q2) Most cancers are caused by which kind of DNA mutation?
A) base substitution
B) abasic site
C) somatic
D) nucleotide deletions
Q3) Describe the Ames test.
Q4) Bidirectional replication is defined as replication
A) with one replication fork.
B) with two replication forks.
C) that unwinds the DNA completely to replicate.
D) that replicates the DNA in a given direction.
Q5) Describe the differences among Pol I,Pol II,and Pol III in prokaryotic organisms.
Q6) Describe the mechanism for repair of DNA damage by photolyase.
Q7) What is the difference between a transposon move and a retrotransposon move?
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Chapter 21: Rna Synthesis, processing, and Gene Silencing
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Q1) Which enzyme is important in the processing of tRNA and mRNA from prokaryotes?
A) RNaseP
B) snRNA
C) reverse transcriptase
D) ribozyme
Q2) The enzyme responsible for making siRNA is
A) RISC.
B) snoRNA.
C) exosome.
D) dicer.
Q3) Many noncoding RNAs are involved in gene silencing.Gene silencing refers to A) the splicing of mRNA into alternative transcripts.
B) defense mechanisms against RNA viruses.
C) mechanisms inhibiting gene expression.
D) the modification of genes through RNA-mediated mutation.
Q4) When does rRNA,tRNA,and mRNA degradation typically occur?
Q5) Describe the composition and processing of the C-terminal domain (CTD)of eukaryotic RNA polymerase II,as well as its role in transcription.
Q6) List the four ways that long noncoding RNAs are thought to function.
Q7) What reaction is catalyzed by the spliceosome?
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Chapter 22: Protein Synthesis, posttranslational
Modification, and Transport
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Q1) Differentiate between the mechanisms of type I and type II aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.
Q2) In the ER,prenylation can occur.Prenylation is the attachment of an isoprenoid group to a __________ residue via a(n)__________.
A) lysine; amide
B) cysteine; thioester
C) threonine; ester
D) serine; ester
Q3) Ribosomal rRNA interacts with all EXCEPT __________ during the process of translation.
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) ribosomal proteins
D) PABP
Q4) Draw out the peptidyl transferase reaction that is catalyzed by the ribozyme activity of the 23S rRNA in the large ribosomal subunit.
Q5) Explain what is meant by the statement,"The genetic code is universal."
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Q6) Describe the steps of the mechanism of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.Clarify the role of ATP in the process.
Chapter 23: Gene Regulation
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Q1) Describe the two primary functions of transcriptional activator proteins.
Q2) Compare the two mechanisms used for control of the trp operon.
Q3) Operons can be defined as units of DNA containing _________ gene(s)under control of __________ promotor(s).
A) one; one
B) multiple; one
C) multiple; multiple
D) one; multiple
Q4) Introducing Oct4,Sox2,c-Myc,or Klf4 into a differentiated cell causes A) cell death.
B) a pluripotent state.
C) no change.
D) cell meiosis.
Q5) Draw the four combinations of nucleotides and label the major groove in each as either an H-bond donor,an H-bond acceptor,or hydrophobic.
Q6) What are the four transcription factors involved in the eve stripe 2 enhancer region?
Q7) How can the lac promoter and IPTG be used to produce large amounts of a specific protein?
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