Nutritional Biochemistry Final Test Solutions https://quizplus.com/study-set/1790 30 Chapters 295 Verified Questions
Nutritional Biochemistry Final Test Solutions Course Introduction Nutritional Biochemistry explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms underlying nutrient metabolism, absorption, and utilization in the human body. This course examines the chemical structure and function of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, vitamins, and minerals, and their roles in energy production, enzymatic activity, and regulation of metabolic pathways. Students will gain an understanding of the biochemical basis of nutrition-related health and disease, integrating concepts of physiology, genetics, and molecular biology to analyze how dietary components impact biological systems.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Medical Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Gerhard Meisenberg
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 30 Chapters 295 Verified Questions 295 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1790
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Biomolecules Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 4 Verified Questions 4 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35581
Sample Questions Q1) Unlike covalent bonds, all noncovalent interactions are: A)Formed in irreversible reactions. B)Constantly forming and breaking on the molecular time scale. C)Susceptible to cleavage by strong acids and bases. D)Classified as energy-rich, because they are cleaved easily. E)Independent of the solvent that surrounds the bond-forming groups. Answer: B Q2) β Linkages are important in structural polysaccharides because: A)They are easily hydrolyzed by glycosidase enzymes. B)They allow the chains to form compact coils. C)They cause the chains to exist in an extended form, thus allowing them to form fibers. D)They cause the chains to absorb more water. E)They can be formed by any hydroxy group in the monomer, whereas a linkages can be formed only by C-1. Answer: C To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Protein Structure Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35582
Sample Questions Q1) The secondary structure of proteins: A)Is maintained by hydrogen bonds. B)Is present only in proteins consisting of two or more subunits held together by noncovalent forces. C)Refers to any hydrogen-bonded interaction found in proteins. D)Implies the presence of a nonprotein moiety bound to the polypeptide. E)Is found only in fibrous proteins. Answer: A Q2) Which of the following statements is correct for protein structure? A)The a helix is stabilized primarily by ionic interactions between the side chains of amino acids. B)Disulfide bonds are common in cytoplasmic proteins but are not present in most proteins of the extracellular matrix. C)The stability of the quaternary structure in proteins is a result of covalent bonds between the subunits. D)The heat denaturation of proteins is in most cases reversible by slow cooling. E)Glycine and proline do not usually participate in a-helical structures. Answer: E To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 3: Oxygen Transporters: Hemoglobin and Myoglobin Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35583
Sample Questions Q1) An experienced hiker, H.A., spends her vacation in Tibet.She complains of often feeling dizzy at high altitudes.Which of the following changes in the cytosol of H.A.'s red blood cells will result in the delivery of more oxygen to her tissues at the relatively low pO₂ on Mount Everest? A)A decrease in methemoglobin reductase activity. B)A higher rate of γ-globin gene transcription in red blood cells. C)An increased blood pH. D)An increase in the 2,3-BPG concentration. E)An increase in the carbon dioxide partial pressure. Answer: D Q2) The effect of high 2,3-BPG in red blood cells is: A)To maintain the reducing environment and prevent methemoglobin formation. B)To facilitate tetramer formation from α and β subunit monomers. C)To increase the P50 of hemoglobin. D)To convert the oxygen saturation curve of hemoglobin from sigmoid to hyperbolic. E)To increase the rate of conversion of the T to the R form. Answer: C To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Enzymatic Reactions Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 20 Verified Questions 20 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35584
Sample Questions Q1) The "catalytic triad" in the active site of the serine protease thrombin contains the three amino acids: A)Aspartate, glutamate, histidine. B)Cysteine, arginine, serine. C)Glutamate, histidine, tryptophan. D)Serine, histidine, aspartate. E)Threonine, asparagine, tyrosine. Q2) The rate of a typical enzyme-catalyzed reaction: A)Is independent of pH over a broad range of pH values. B)Is approximately proportional to the substrate concentration as long as the substrate concentration is much lower than the Michaelis constant (Km). C)Rises by a factor of about 4 when the temperature is raised by 10° C. D)Is no longer affected by the enzyme concentration at saturating substrate concentrations. E)Is virtually independent of the temperature, as long as heat denaturation is avoided. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 5: Coenzymes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 4 Verified Questions 4 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35585
Sample Questions Q1) Coenzyme A has a very specific function in metabolic pathways.Its task is: A)Transfer of hydrogen. B)Transfer of electrons. C)Attachment of carboxyl groups. D)Activation of monosaccharides for the synthesis of complex carbohydrates. E)Activation of organic acids. Q2) The cleavage of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP) + pyrophosphate is said to supply more energy than the cleavage of ATP to ADP + phosphate.Why? A)ATP → ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP → AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphodiester bond. B)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of AMP by adenosine deaminase. C)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of pyrophosphate. D)ATP → ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP → AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond. E)ATP → ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond, and ATP → AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 25 Verified Questions 25 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35586
Sample Questions Q1) A promoter region of a gene is best described as: A)A purine-rich sequence downstream from the start site of transcription. B)A ribosome-binding site on the mRNA. C)A site where RNA polymerases bind to DNA to initiate transcription. D)A site where repressors bind to RNA polymerase to terminate transcription. E)The first transcribed segment of the gene. Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about repressor proteins? A)In most cases, they bind the DNA in a dimeric or oligomeric form. B)They do not have allosteric properties. C)They bind to a regulatory gene. D)They are produced by the operator site. E)They bind to a site near the promoter that does not overlap with the binding site for RNA polymerase. Q3) The lac operon is induced by the presence of lactose, but it is transcribed at a high rate only when: A)The cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) level in the cell is high. B)A ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence. C)A ribosome binds to the 5' cap of the mRNA. D)Tryptophan is present in high concentration. E)Glucose is present To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: The Human Genome Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 14 Verified Questions 14 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35587
Sample Questions Q1) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes share which of the following characteristics during transcription? A)A σ subunit that binds to the promoter. B)A template that is read in the 3'-to-5' direction. C)A primase to initiate RNA synthesis. D)Cotranscriptional attachment of a cap to the 5' end of the RNA. E)Proofreading through a 3'-exonuclease activity. Q2) A patient is shown to have a deletion of 500 base pairs within the 3.7-kilobase pair sequence between the promoter of the L-type pyruvate kinase (PK) gene and an erythroid cell-specific enhancer element for the PK gene.What is the most likely outcome of the mutation in erythroid cells? A)PK will be produced at a higher rate. B)Transcriptional initiation becomes impossible. C)There will be no change in the rate of enzyme synthesis. D)There will be faulty splicing of the transcript. E)The rate of transcription initiation by transcription factor IIH will be reduced. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 8: Protein Targeting Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 4 Verified Questions 4 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35588
Sample Questions Q1) The most promising gene therapy strategy for I-cell disease is to: A)Introduce an intact copy of the a-L-iduronidase gene. B)Replace a normal copy of the iduronate sulfatase gene with one containing a nuclear localization signal. C)Replace the N-acetyl-galactosamine transferase gene with one containing a lysosomal localization signal. D)Replace a faulty copy of the mannose-6-phosphate transferase gene with a functional copy. E)Replace all lysosomal enzyme genes. Q2) The first step in the post-translational processing of secreted proteins in eukaryotes is: A)Proteolytic removal of the first two or three amino acid residues from the amino terminus by the signal recognition particle. B)Attachment of a mannose-rich oligopeptide to asparagine side chains. C)Attachment of mannose-6-phosphate to the protein. D)Proteolytic cleavage by signal peptidase. E)Formation of disulfide bonds. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Genetic Diseases Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35589
Sample Questions Q1) Spending a day on the beach is bad for your skin because sunlight causes: A)Deamination of bases in the DNA. B)Formation of pyrimidine dimers. C)DNA double-stranded breaks. D)Alkylation reactions that modify the bases. E)Depurination. Q2) Hemoglobin S can be separated from normal hemoglobin A by electrophoresis on paper or cellulose acetate foil.This is possible because hemoglobin S: A)Is more hydrophilic than hemoglobin A. B)Is more hydrophobic than hemoglobin A. C)Has a different number of electrical charges than hemoglobin A. D)Has a more compact shape than hemoglobin A. E)Has a different molecular weight than hemoglobin A. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 10: Viruses Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 4 Verified Questions 4 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35590
Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following enzymes are never encoded by viral genes? A)RNA replicase. B)Reverse transcriptase. C)RNA polymerase I. D)Proteases. E)Integrase. Q2) Unlike bacteriophage T₄, l phage is capable of both lytic and lysogenic infection.The lysogenic state is maintained by: A)Chemical
modification
of
cytosine
bases
in
the
viral
DNA,
forming
hydroxymethyl-cytosine. B)Transcription of the cro gene. C)Transcription of the gene for the l repressor. D)Transcription of the xis and cro genes. E)Exposure of the bacterium to ultraviolet radiation or other DNA-damaging agents. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 15 Verified Questions 15 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35591
Sample Questions Q1) The binding of an oligonucleotide probe to a specific sequence of DNA is influenced by which of the following: A)Temperature, salt concentration, nucleotide sequence, and radioactivity only. B)Temperature, salt concentration, pH, and nucleotide sequence only. C)Temperature, salt concentration, and nucleotide sequence only. D)Temperature, nucleotide sequence, and pH only. E)Temperature and nucleotide sequence only. Q2) The most important "selectable markers" used in recombinant DNA technology with bacteria are: A)Self-transmissible plasmid, such as the F factor. B)Single-stranded cloning vectors that are used for DNA sequencing. C)Genes for integrase enzymes that are needed for the integration of recombinant DNA in the bacterial genome. D)Bacteriophages that carry a foreign DNA. E)Genes for antibiotic resistance that permit the selective survival of engineered bacteria. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 12: Biological Membranes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 6 Verified Questions 6 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35592
Sample Questions Q1) Of the following compounds, the one that is most likely to diffuse across a lipid bilayer by passive diffusion is: A)Ethanol. B)Serum albumin. C)Glucose. D)Glycine. E)Sodium ions. Q2) The mechanism that absorbs glucose from the intestinal lumen can be characterized as: A)Electroneutral. B)Facilitated diffusion. C)Secondary active transport. D)Antiport. E)Passive diffusion. Q3) How do most integral membrane proteins interact with the lipid bilayer? A)By covalent attachment to a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor. B)Through covalently bound fatty acids. C)By electrostatic interactions with the head groups of membrane lipids. D)By a little piece of hydrophobic a helix that traverses the lipid bilayer. E)By hydrogen bonds with the head groups of membrane lipids. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: The Cytoskeleton Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 6 Verified Questions 6 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35593
Sample Questions Q1) A boy showed extensive skin blistering shortly after birth, with large areas of epidermis detaching from the dermis.Treatment with high doses of morphine was started to alleviate the seemingly excruciating pain suffered by the infant.Histological analysis shows that the basement membrane appeared intact in fresh blisters, but the stratum germinativum was destroyed.This type of disease is most likely caused by defects in which protein? A)Desmin. B)Tubulin. C)Elastin. D)Keratin. E)Dystrophin. Q2) Cells can exchange inorganic ions and small metabolites with neighboring cells in the tissue.This process requires the protein: A)Vinculin. B)Dynein. C)Connexin. D)Cadherin. E)β-Catenin. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 14: The Extracellular Matrix Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 7 Verified Questions 7 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35594
Sample Questions Q1) A 6-year-old boy who has short stature, coarse facial features, delayed mental development, and urinary glycans is most likely to have which of the following conditions? A)Type 1 diabetes. B)Hunter syndrome (Type II mucopolysaccharidosis). C)von Gierke disease. D)Hemophilia A. E)Pancreatic cancer. Q2) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia is a form of dominantly inherited dwarfism in which cartilage structure is abnormal and endochondral bone formation is impaired.Otherwise, affected patients are in good health.The abnormal cartilage function in this condition is most likely caused by defects in: A)Type I collagen. B)Type II collagen. C)Type III collagen. D)Type IV collagen. E)Type VII collagen. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 15: Plasma Proteins Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 19 Verified Questions 19 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35595
Sample Questions Q1) Both heparin and warfarin can be used to treat patients who are at risk of thrombosis.Can these agents also be used to prevent blood clotting in the test tube? A)Warfarin can be used, but heparin cannot. B)Heparin can be used, but warfarin cannot. C)Both can be used. D)Neither can be used. Q2) The immunoglobulin (Ig) that is most directly involved in the symptoms of the common cold is: A)IgM. B)IgG. C)IgA. D)IgD. E)IgE. Q3) Heparin inhibits blood clotting by: A)Binding to fibrinogen and thereby preventing its cleavage by thrombin. B)Activating tissue-type plasminogen activator. C)Inhibiting urokinase. D)Inhibiting the binding of prothrombin to activated platelets. E)Activating antithrombin III. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Extracellular Messengers Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 11 Verified Questions 11 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35596
Sample Questions Q1) An 18-year-old girl is evaluated for primary amenorrhea.The external genitalia are unambiguously female, and secondary sexual characteristics appear normally developed.The karyotype is 46,XY.Estrogen and testosterone levels are in the normal male range.This condition is most likely caused by: A)Deficiency of aromatase in all tissues. B)Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase in the adrenal cortex. C)Deficiency of desmolase. D)A defective androgen receptor. E)A defect of adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland. Q2) The polyunsaturated fatty acid eicosapentaenoic acid, which is abundant in fish oils, is a precursor for the synthesis of: A)Arachidonic acid. B)Linoleic acid. C)Thromboxane A3. D)Platelet activating factor. E)Prostaglandin E2. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 17: Intracellular Messengers Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35597
Sample Questions Q1) There is much overlap of the intracellular signaling cascades of growth factors such as epidermal growth factor (EGF) and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) with those triggered by: A)Neurotransmitters. B)Hormones acting through cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP). C)Steroid hormones. D)Insulin. E)Hormones that are coupled to heterotrimeric G proteins. Q2) Glucagon can induce gene transcription in the liver.How? A)It is translocated to the nucleus, where it binds to response elements in the regulatory sequences of the genes. B)It triggers cAMP formation, and cAMP activates genes by binding to the catabolite activator protein. C)It releases calcium from the ER, which activates protein kinase C in the nucleus. D)It causes phosphorylation of nuclear transcription factors by protein kinase A. E)It induces the formation of the second messenger IP3, which activates transcription by binding to nuclear transcription factors. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 18: Cellular Growth Control and Cancer Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35598
Sample Questions Q1) Loss of heterozygosity in genomic locations close to the site of the mutation is observed
in
the
malignant
tumors
of
many
patients
with
inherited
cancer
susceptibility.The most likely cause for loss of heterozygosity in these patients is: A)A missense mutation in the intact copy of the affected tumor suppressor gene. B)A nonsense mutation in the intact copy of the affected tumor suppressor gene. C)A frameshift mutation in the intact copy of the tumor suppressor gene. D)Amplification of the affected oncogene. E)Mitotic crossing over of the affected chromosome. Q2) Cytochrome c is normally attached to the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it participates in electron transport.However, when released into the cytoplasm, it can influence the fate of the cell by: A)Activating mitogen-activated protein kinases, thereby pushing the cell through the G1 checkpoint. B)Binding to death receptors, thereby triggering apoptosis. C)Entering the nucleus, where it activates transcription by removing the retinoblastoma protein pRb from the transcription factor E2F. D)Binding tightly to the Ras protein, thereby causing exit from the cell cycle. E)Helping in the assembly of the apoptosome, which triggers apoptosis. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 19: Digestive Enzymes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 3 Verified Questions 3 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35599
Sample Questions Q1) The bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrates in the colon forms not only gas but also a good deal of: A)Lactose. B)Fatty acids. C)Small organic acids. D)Urea. E)Ketone bodies. Q2)
Trypsinogen,
chymotrypsinogen,
proelastase,
procarboxypeptidases,
and
prophospholipases are all produced as inactive zymogens.Each of these zymogens can be activated by the enzyme ________, and this normally occurs in ________. A)Enteropeptidase; the duodenal epithelium. B)Enteropeptidase; the intestinal lumen. C)Pepsin; the stomach. D)Chymotrypsin; the pancreas. E)Trypsin; the intestinal lumen. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Metabolic Pathways Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 2 Verified Questions 2 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35600
Sample Questions Q1)
Which
type
of
regulation
is
most
likely
for
the
regulated
enzymes
energy-generating oxidative pathways? A)Stimulation by adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B)Stimulation by adenosine diphosphate (ADP). C)Stimulation by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). D)Feedback inhibition by carbon dioxide. E)Inhibition by the substrate of the pathway. Q2) Which is the most likely regulated step in metabolic pathways? A)The first reaction in the pathway, regardless of whether it is reversible or irreversible. B)The first irreversible reaction of the pathway. C)The first endergonic reaction in the pathway. D)The last reaction of the pathway. E)The reaction whose enzyme is present in the highest activity in the cell. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 21: Glycolysis, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle, and Oxidative Phosphorylation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 9 Verified Questions 9 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35601
Sample Questions Q1) The liver converts a molecule of citric acid, obtained from lemon juice, into succinyl-coenzyme
A
(CoA).Succinyl-CoA
is
subsequently
used
for
heme
biosynthesis.Approximately, how many ATP (and GTP) molecules can be derived from the conversion of one molecule of citrate to succinyl-CoA? A)3. B)6. C)7. D)9. E)12. Q2) A research group reported that transgenic mice overexpressing the human catalase gene in mitochondria have a 5-month increase in median lifespan.What is the substrate and the coenzyme for the human catalase enzyme, respectively? A)Superoxide anion; ATP. B)Hydrogen peroxide; heme. C)Organic peroxy radicals; thiamine pyrophosphate. D)Hydroxyl radicals; flavin mononucleotide (FMN). E)Coenzyme Q; NADH. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 9 Verified Questions 9 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35602
Sample Questions Q1) The activation of glucagon receptors turns the liver into a net producer of glucose.Glucagon stimulates a signal transduction pathway in liver involving: A)SMAD protein phosphorylation. B)Protein kinase A activation. C)Calcium pumping into the endoplasmic reticulum. D)Receptor tyrosine protein kinase activation. E)Activation of G protein guanosine triphosphatase (GTPase) activity. Q2) A 3-month-old infant is found to have fasting hypoglycemia.In order to test for possible enzyme deficiencies, you conduct a liver biopsy and test for several metabolic enzymes.Fasting hypoglycemia can be caused by deficiencies of all the following enzymes except: A)Glucose-6-phosphatase. B)Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. C)Glycogen phosphorylase. D)Phosphorylase kinase. E)Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Fatty Acids and Triglycerides Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35603
Sample Questions Q1) In adipocytes, protein kinase A activates lipolysis by phosphorylating two proteins.These proteins are: A)Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT) and leptin. B)Gs proteins and protein kinase C. C)Signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) proteins and phospholipase A2. D)Hormone-sensitive adipose tissue lipase and perilipin. E)Protein kinase C and triglyceride transfer protein. Q2) The stimulation of fatty acid biosynthesis in the liver is achieved by: A)Dephosphorylation of inactive acetyl-coenzyme A (CoA) carboxylase. B)Phosphorylation of inactive fatty acid synthase. C)Phosphorylation of inactive acetyl-CoA carboxylase. D)Dephosphorylation of inactive fatty acid synthase. E)High levels of the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 24: The Metabolism of Membrane Lipids Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 4 Verified Questions 4 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35604
Sample Questions Q1) A 5-year-old girl presents with hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal bleeding, defects in long bone development, and neurological dysfunction.A liver biopsy reveals an accumulation of glucocerebroside.These symptoms indicate the child is suffering from: A)Fabry disease. B)Niemann-Pick disease. C)Krabbe disease. D)Gaucher disease. E)Hurler syndrome. Q2) The alleles in the ABO blood group system code for: A)Integral membrane proteins. B)Glycosyl transferases. C)Peripheral membrane proteins. D)Cytoskeletal proteins. E)Phosphoglyceride-synthesizing enzymes. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 25: Lipid Transport Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 9 Verified Questions 9 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35605
Sample Questions Q1) You culture fibroblasts from a patient in the laboratory.In order to up-regulate the LDL receptors in these cells, you should: A)Add cholesterol esters to the medium. B)Add excess LDL to the medium. C)Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. D)Inhibit the activity of acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT). E)Add cholestyramine. Q2) Cholestyramine can be used for the treatment of hypercholesterolemia, either alone or in combination with a statin.Which enzyme is most immediately affected by cholestyramine treatment? A)Cholesterol ester transfer protein. B)Acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT). C)7-hydroxylase. D)HMG-CoA reductase. E)Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT). To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 26: Amino Acid Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35606
Sample Questions Q1) A negative nitrogen balance is most likely to be present in: A)A heavyweight boxer training for the world championship. B)A fast-growing teenager who eats 3500 calories of junk food every day. C)A political prisoner who went on a hunger strike. D)A woman who is 8 months pregnant. E)A patient who is recovering from successful cancer surgery and chemotherapy. Q2) High homocysteine levels are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis.A deficiency of which of the following enzymes would result in high blood levels of homocysteine (and also methionine)? A)Tyrosine hydroxylase. B)Cystathionine synthase. C)Threonine dehydratase. D)Glutathione reductase. E)L-Amino acid oxidase. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 27: Heme Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 3 Verified Questions 3 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35607
Sample Questions Q1) A newborn is found to have persistent jaundice that does not resolve spontaneously even
4
weeks
after
birth.Repeated
blood
tests
show
an
unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia, with bilirubin levels of 8 to 15 mg/dL on different occasions.Finally, treatment with phenobarbital succeeds in bringing the bilirubin level to less than 4 mg/dL.This disorder is most likely: A)Dubin-Johnson syndrome. B)Gilbert syndrome. C)Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II. D)Rotor syndrome. E)Megaloblastic anemia. Q2) One test that can detect many types of porphyria is the determination of urinary: A)Dihydroorotic acid. B)Urobilinogen. C)Stercobilin. D)Biliverdin. E)Porphobilinogen. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 28: The Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 8 Verified Questions 8 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35608
Sample Questions Q1) The effect of the chemotherapeutic drug methotrexate is best described as: A)Disruption of the mitotic spindle. B)Impaired synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides from ribonucleotides. C)Inhibition of orotic acid synthesis in the biosynthetic pathway of pyrimidine nucleotides. D)Depletion of tetrahydrofolate. E)Induction of mutations by DNA methylation. Q2) A 1-year-old boy has a history of recurrent bacterial and fungal infections.Further testing shows increased concentrations of deoxyadenosine triphosphate (dATP) in white blood cells.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A)Adenosine deaminase deficiency. B)Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. C)Orotic aciduria. D)Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency. E)Xanthine oxidase deficiency. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 29: Vitamins and Minerals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 16 Verified Questions 16 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35609
Sample Questions Q1) A woman in her early 30s is found to be a hemochromatosis homozygote, but her serum ferritin level and transferrin saturation are only slightly increased.Which of the following is most likely to further increase her serum iron? A)A strict vegetarian diet. B)Menstruation limited to once a year. C)Avoidance of alcohol. D)Increased physical exercise. E)A diet that is low in vitamin C. Q2)
Free
radicals
are
molecular
terrorists
that
attack
molecular
targets
indiscriminately.Their formation in the body cannot be prevented, because they are unavoidable byproducts of oxidative metabolism, but physicians can try to intercept them before they hit a sensitive target-for example, by an extra good supply of: A)Niacin. B)Thiamin. C)Pyridoxine. D)Vitamin D. E)Vitamin E. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 30: Integration of Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 15 Verified Questions 15 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35610
Sample Questions Q1) A 200-meter run is powered by the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) mainly from: A)b-Oxidation. B)Creatine phosphate. C)Anaerobic metabolism of glycogen. D)Lactate obtained from the Cori cycle. E)Glucose oxidation. Q2) Mrs.Keller weighs 50 kg and is 1.5 m tall.This means she is considered: A)Obese. B)Overweight. C)Normal. D)Underweight. Q3) A 52-year-old man with chronic alcoholism has a plasma lipid profile with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).The mechanism that best explains the increase of VLDL in the blood of patients with chronic alcoholism is: A)Impaired β-oxidation of fatty acids in the liver. B)Reduced synthesis of apolipoprotein B-100. C)Inactivation of capillary lipoprotein lipase. D)Increased synthesis of glycerol-3-phosphate in adipose tissue. E)Increased levels of apolipoprotein E receptors in the liver. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32