
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Nutrition Science explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition, emphasizing the relationship between dietary intake, nutrient metabolism, and overall health. Students will examine the roles of macronutrients and micronutrients, the physiological processes governing digestion and absorption, and the impact of nutrition on disease prevention and wellness. The course also addresses current topics such as dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, food labeling, and the influence of cultural, social, and economic factors on eating behaviors, preparing students to make informed decisions about diet and health.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
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Q1) A product featuring a qualified health claim on its label:
A) must have the highest degree of scientific support for that claim.
B) must provide an insert with a detailed explanation of the scientific support backing the claim.
C) cannot be sold.
D) must bear a statement explaining the degree of scientific evidence backing the claim.
E) must be sold at a higher price that a similar product without a qualified health claim.
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following contain mixtures of the energy nutrients except:
A) beef.
B) potato.
C) oil.
D) legumes.
E) spinach.
Answer: C
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Q1) The primary site of nutrient absorption is the:
A) stomach.
B) pancreas.
C) small intestine.
D) large intestine.
E) mouth.
Answer: C
Q2) The major digestive enzyme secreted by the stomach is:
A) amylase.
B) lipase.
C) bile.
D) disaccharidase.
E) pepsin
Answer: E
Q3) Segmentation begins when a bolus enters the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following describes the effect a food has on blood glucose levels?
A) glycemic index
B) insulin index
C) solubility factor
D) viscosity index
E) glycemic load
Answer: A
Q2) The richest sources of starch are:
A) fruits.
B) grains.
C) vegetables.
D) soybeans.
E) legumes.
Answer: B
Q3) Discuss the harmful effects of excessive fiber intake.
Answer: Too much fiber intake may cause some minerals to bind to it and be excreted before becoming available for the body to use. People who do not eat enough food and consume mostly high-fiber foods may find it difficult to take in enough food to meet energy requirements (malnourished people, elderly, young children, vegans).
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Q1) Imagine you want to explain to a patient the benefits of heart-healthy fats and how to make dietary modifications to include them. What would you say?
Q2) Food producers hydrogenate unsaturated fatty acids in order to:
A) make them softer.
B) give foods a longer shelf life.
C) make them healthier.
D) reduce the kcalories in a food.
E) prevent them from becoming trans-fats.
Q3) Make a list of high-fat foods that are beneficial to health and explain why each of these foods is on your list.
Q4) To replace saturated with unsaturated fats in your diet, which of the following would you spread on a bagel at breakfast?
A) peanut butter
B) margarine
C) butter
D) cream cheese
E) chocolate
Q5) Discuss the potential benefits and risks of taking fish oil supplements.
Q6) Discuss the concept of "good fats" and "bad fats."
Page 6
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Q1) pH
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids.
B)the swelling of body tissue caused by leakage of fluid from the blood vessels and accumulation of the fluid in the interstitial spaces.
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution.
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution.
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids.
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions.
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids.
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids.
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to help keep a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant.
J)large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced in response to invasion of the body by unfamiliar molecules called antigens.
K)chemical messengers.
Q2) What are the possible risks associated with over-consumption of protein?
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Q1) People can change their voluntary actions to spend more or less energy in a day, but they cannot change their basal metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Men generally have a higher BMR than women do because:
A) women have less lean body mass.
B) women tend to eat less.
C) men tend to eat more.
D) men have less lean body mass.
E) testosterone reduces BMR.
Q3) BMR is lowest during:
A) pregnancy.
B) physical activity.
C) sleep.
D) sedentary activity.
E) exercise.
Q4) Explain why less fat may be lost during fasting than is lost when at least some food is supplied.
Q5) Identify and briefly describe five factors that affect a person's basal metabolic rate.
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Q1) Describe some strategies for successful weight gain.
Q2) Jill, who currently weighs 180 pounds and is 4' 8" tall, has asked to be placed on a weight-loss diet. Jill should cut how many kcalories/day from her energy intake?
A) 300-500
B) 700-800
C) 1500-2000
D) 600-1200
E) 500-1000
Q3) Zachary is trying to gain weight. He complains that he has a hard time eating a lot of food at one meal. You advise him to:
A) eat energy-dense snacks between meals.
B) eat more slowly.
C) drink less water.
D) eat a salad before his meal.
E) eat faster.
Q4) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
Q5) Discuss the pros and cons of gastric bypass and gastric banding surgeries for weight loss.
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Q6) What are some identifying characteristics of fad diets and weight-loss scams?

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Q1) Overconsumption of the fat-soluble vitamins results in:
A) accumulation, which aids in the prevention of colds and infections.
B) no ill effects because they are excreted.
C) possible toxicity, due to an accumulation in the body.
D) weight gain due to increased fat intake.
E) deficiency of water-soluble vitamins.
Q2) Which vitamin is most vulnerable to interactions with alcohol and other drugs?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin E
C) folate
D) biotin
E) cobalamin
Q3) The chemical name for vitamin E is:
A) beta-carotene.
B) cholecalciferol.
C) ascorbic acid.
D) tocopherol.
E) prothrombin.
Q4) Define the term coenzyme. Name and describe the role of the B vitamins that function as part of the structure of coenzymes.
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Q1) In the U.S., low iron intake is often associated with:
A) high sugar and fat intakes.
B) high protein intake.
C) low carbohydrate intake.
D) low intake of fruits and vegetables.
E) pregnancy.
Q2) The leading cause of accidental ingestion fatalities among children is an overdose of:
A) iron.
B) vitamin D.
C) zinc.
D) niacin.
E) vitamin C.
Q3) The best way to ensure an adequate intake of trace minerals is to:
A) eat foods containing the major minerals.
B) make sure your diet is sufficient in vitamins.
C) consume a variety of foods.
D) practice dietary adequacy.
E) consume supplements.
Q4) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
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Q1) The social worker at the prenatal clinic determines that Deborah is eligible for WIC (Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children). This program provides _____.
A) nutrition counseling
B) assistance with helping women breastfeed their babies
C) formula, bottles, and nipples for infant feedings
D) prenatal vitamins for pregnant mothers
E) breastfeeding supplies, such as breast pumps
Q2) Describe the effects of smoking, alcohol consumption, and excessive caffeine consumption on the growth and development of the fetus.
Q3) Nora, who is pregnant, awakens at 2:00 a.m. craving pickles. The craving probably indicates that ____.
A) she drank too much water last night
B) she isn't getting enough sleep at night
C) her body needs extra salt, which can be found in the pickles
D) she is experiencing hormone-induced changes in taste
Q4) List several maternal discomforts of pregnancy and describe strategies that may be implemented to counteract some of these symptoms.
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Q5) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
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Q1) A mother who wants to teach her child healthy eating habits and to make good choices about foods should be advised to follow which tip to honor her child's food choices?
A) Offer vegetables that are cooked and soft
B) Give the child a choice between brightly colored vegetables or peanut butter and jelly
C) Serve smooth foods, such as mashed potatoes, without lumps
D) Offer cooked foods at temperatures that are hot to the touch
E) Encourage the child to eat more spicy foods
Q2) Discuss the problems associated with providing nutritious lunches to students at school.
Q3) Describe characteristics of vegetables preferred by children, and list some practical suggestions for encouraging children to eat more vegetables.
Q4) Compared to their well-fed peers, children who do not eat breakfast may _____.
A) gain excess weight
B) struggle with depression
C) have shorter attention spans
D) have poor peer relationships
E) suffer from developmental delays

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Q1) Which group of older adults is most likely to be poorly nourished?
A) women living with their children in federally-funded housing
B) men with limited education
C) those who have recently experienced lifestyle changes
D) men who live alone
E) women who often care for their grandchildren
Q2) Characteristics of foods preferred by many older adults include _____.
A) easy-to-open packages
B) multiple-serving packages
C) comprehensive labeling
D) bright packages with many pictures
E) sweet or salty tasting items
Q3) Protein is especially important for older adults to _____.
A) increase muscle mass
B) rebuild aging bones
C) support a healthy immune system
D) prevent macular degeneration
E) improve hormone secretion
Q4) Discuss ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
Q5) Describe possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
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Q1) A coordinated program of treatment that merges the care plans of different health practitioners is a _____.
A) critical pathway
B) care map
C) clinical pathway
D) care plan
E) nutrition screening
Q2) Muscle weakness due to wasting would most likely be evaluated by which test?
A) recall of food intake
B) red blood cell levels
C) handgrip strength
D) skinfold thickness
E) serum sodium
Q3) What best describes a task of the registered dietitian?
A) making referrals for dietary counseling
B) administering total parenteral nutrition
C) conducting nutrition assessments
D) administering formula through feeding tubes
E) prescribing diet orders
Q4) chromosomes
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Q1) Because Mr. Salazar is taking lovastatin, he should be counseled to avoid _____.
A) apple juice
B) sauerkraut
C) green leafy vegetables
D) milk
E) grapefruit juice
Q2) What drug is not affected by intake of grapefruit juice?
A) Erythromycin
B) Diazepam
C) Lovastatin
D) Haloperidol
E) Cyclosporine
Q3) The hospitalized patient's diet prescription was for a clear liquid diet. The nurse knew this patient's diet was not correctly delivered when she saw which items on the patient's tray?
A) Cherry gelatin, ginger ale, and coffee
B) Cranberry juice, strawberry fruit ice, and soft drink
C) Bouillon, apple juice, tea, and sugar
D) Strained orange juice, Popsicle, and tomato juice
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E) Consommé, lemon-lime soda, and a frozen juice bar
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Q1) Low-profile gastrostomy tubes are often preferred by children and active adults for long-term home enteral nutrition programs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which condition would most likely require nutrition delivered through TPN?
A) A severe swallowing disorder
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) A neurological disorder
D) Paralytic ileus
E) Impaired esophageal motility
Q3) The dextrose monohydrate used in parenteral nutrition solutions provides _____ kcal/g.
A) 0.9
B) 1.8
C) 2.5
D) 3.4
E) 4.2
Q4) Describe characteristics of clients who are candidates for peripheral parenteral nutrition.
Q5) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Q1) In critically ill patients, _____ is used to measure the resting metabolic rate (RMR).
A) skinfold measurement
B) BMI
C) the stress factor equation
D) indirect calorimetry
E) a clinical body weight growth chart
Q2) Recovery from an injury or illness can be hastened by hypermetabolism and positive nitrogen balance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In critically ill patients, a high intake of _____ may suppress immune function and increase the risk of developing infections.
A) fat
B) dextrose
C) protein
D) zinc
E) vitamin A
Q4) Explain the metabolic effects of corticosteroid drugs.
Q5) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
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Q1) A patient with oropharyngeal dysphagia would most likely demonstrate which symptom?
A) A gurgling noise after swallowing
B) Bad breath
C) Gum ulcerations
D) Heartburn
E) Abdominal distention
Q2) Caries develops when the bacteria that reside in dental plaque metabolize dietary carbohydrates and produce acids that attack tooth enamel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nurse is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient has a history of Sjögren's syndrome. The nurse recognizes that the patient may have nutritional problems due to _____.
A) low blood sugar
B) low blood sugar.
C) impaired digestion
D) malabsorption,
E) acid reflux
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Q1) A patient with bacterial overgrowth in the gastrointestinal tract would most likely be treated with which type of medication?
A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) Antimicrobials
C) Antidiarrheals
D) H2 receptor antagonists
E) Antacids
Q2) Many lactose-intolerant individuals can tolerate up to 2 cups of milk a day when intake is divided throughout the day and taken with food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A colostomy involves removal of the entire colon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The client with a colostomy or ileostomy should have a diet that is restricted in fluids. A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Q1) In patients with fat malabsorption, fat intake may be restricted to less than _____ percent of total kcalories or as necessary to control steatorrhea.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
E) 45
Q2) insulin resistance
Q3) Explain how chronic alcohol use can affect brain function.
Q4) The beneficial effects of moderate alcohol intake are mainly seen in _____.
A) women who have type 2 diabetes
B) people with risk factors for liver disease
C) older people with risk factors for heart disease
D) men who work in the petrochemical industry
E) people who are overweight
Q5) transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
Q6) Explain the potential needs for enteral or parenteral nutrition among patients with advanced cirrhosis.
Q7) hepatomegaly
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Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes calls her physician's office complaining of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The nurse should advise the patient to _____.
A) cease her insulin injections until she can tolerate food
B) continue her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate
C) avoid consuming carbohydrates, but continue her insulin injections
D) cease her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate
E) increase her carbohydrate intake but decrease her insulin injections
Q2) Acetone breath is a characteristic symptom of hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Claudication is a symptom of diabetes that often develops because of polyuria. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
Q5) Identify the acute complications of diabetes and explain why they occur.
Q6) What is the "honeymoon period" associated with diabetes treatment?
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Q1) Describe how disabilities can impair a person's ability to eat.
Q2) Describe the appropriate dietary intervention for a heart attack victim once he or she has been stabilized.
Q3) Low levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDL) are _____.
A) affiliated with hypertension and hemorrhagic stroke
B) associated with underweight
C) not a good predictor of CHD risk
D) more prevalent in females
E) highly predictive of CHD risk
Q4) If Carmen closely follows the DASH Eating Plan, she can expect to see how much of a reduction in her systolic blood pressure?
A) 1-3 mmHg
B) 5-6 mmHg
C) 7-10 mmHg
D) 10-12 mmHg
E) 12-15 mmHg
Q5) The number of deaths from CVD is greater among men than women.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how atherosclerosis develops. Page 23
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Q1) Mr. Wilson's laboratory reports indicate hyperkalemia. His intake of _____ should be restricted.
A) protein
B) sodium
C) phosphorus
D) potassium
E) vitamin D
Q2) In oliguric patients, recovery from kidney injury sometimes begins with a period of _____, in which large amounts of fluid (up to 3 liters daily) are excreted.
A) hemodialysis
B) proteinuria
C) anuria
D) diuresis
E) peritoneal dialysis
Q3) Explain energy needs when providing nutrition care of clients with chronic kidney disease.
Q4) Describe special dietary considerations for a patient who has had a kidney transplant.
Q5) Describe the potential consequences that can develop with nephrotic syndrome.
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Q1) Mrs. Watson is a 55-year-old female with a family history of breast cancer. To reduce Mrs. Watson's risk of breast cancer, the nurse advises her to _____.
A) avoid alcohol and maintain a healthy weight
B) take a calcium supplement daily
C) eat less red meat
D) drink a glass of red wine with dinner
E) increase her intake of vegetables and dairy
Q2) The primary focus of nutrition care for Ms. Arther is _____.
A) educating her on ways to prevent the recurrence of cancer
B) understanding how to administer tube feedings
C) ensuring that she uses herbal supplements
D) preventing iron-deficiency anemia
E) ensuring appropriate intakes of calories and protein
Q3) Inflammation of the mouth that is caused by exposure to radiation is called radiation enteritis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
Q5) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about foodborne illnesses?
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