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Nutrition Science explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition, examining the role of nutrients in supporting health, development, and disease prevention. This course covers macronutrients and micronutrients, digestion and absorption, dietary guidelines, and the biochemical processes underlying nutrition. Students will analyze the relationship between nutrition, metabolism, and health outcomes, gain an understanding of nutritional assessment techniques, and discuss current issues such as obesity, malnutrition, food security, and the impact of diet on chronic diseases. The course also considers cultural, social, and economic factors influencing food choices and dietary patterns.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Q1) Of the goals identified, which is the highest in priority?
Answer: Normal laboratory values are the highest priority. In his present condition, it is of utmost need to stabilize his body's fluid and electrolyte balance.
Q2) Describe the appearance of an 18-year-old female who is at the optimal level of nutritional balance.
Answer: Shiny hair, clear skin, clear eyes, erect posture, alert expressions, firm flesh on well-developed bone structure, healthy appetite, regular sleep and elimination habits, and positive emotional adjustments.
Q3) The body must be provided with nutrients that are necessary for life. These nutrients are available only in food, must be obtained by the body's nutritional intake, and are known as essential nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Identify the biochemical analyses that should be monitored.
Answer: Serum albumin, prealbumin, hematocrit, hemoglobin, electrolytes, glucose, BUN, cholesterol including triglycerides, uric acid, calcium, magnesium, enzymes, creatinine, iron, folate, and B12
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Q1) Fat free means a food contains less than 0.5 g of fat per serving.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Determine the calories burned with specific types of exercise activity. Plan an exercise regimen based on Haley's height and weight.
Answer: Haley needs to lose an additional 21 pounds to reach her goal weight of 175 pounds in 12 weeks. (With the decrease in calories, she will lose 24 pounds.) An exercise session may burn an average of 300 calories. For example, low-impact dance aerobics burn 315 calories in 30 minutes and would burn approximately 0.6 pound per week if exercise is daily. The number of calories burned may be higher or lower depending upon the intensity level and one's actual body weight.
Q3) Prior to planning care, you must gather facts about the nutritional status of this age group. What is the daily calcium recommendation for a 5-year-old?
Answer: 1,100 mg

USDA DRI tables, 2012
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Q1) _____________ is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of fats.
A)Pancreatic amylase
B)Pancreatic lipase
C)Salivary amylase
D)Trypsin
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a hormone that triggers the release of gastric juices?
A)gastrin
B)pepsin
C)trypsin
D)secretin
Answer: A
Q3) Metabolism is the body's ____.
A)use of energy to conserve nutrients
B)use of food to create energy
C)process whereby food is broken down into smaller parts
D)reduction of fats without the use of oxygen
Answer: B
Q4) Determine her current recommended body weight based on her height and sex.
Answer: 111-146 pounds

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Q1) Which monosaccharide is a product of milk digestion?
A)lactose
B)galactose
C)fructose
D)maltase
Q2) Ketoacidosis, a condition caused by the accumulation of ketones, or acids, in the blood and urine, upsets the acid-base balance of the body. This condition could cause a fatal coma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which disaccharide is produced by enzymatic action during the digestion of starch in the body?
A)lactose
B)sucrose
C)maltose
D)glycogen
Q4) Carbohydrates are required by the body to furnish adequate fiber needed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What role does glycogen play in carbohydrate metabolism?
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Q1) Omega-3 fatty acid is classified as a ____ fat.
A)monounsaturated
B)saturated
C)polyunsaturated
D)hydrogenated
Q2) An example of low-cholesterol food is ______.
A)poached eggs
B)buttermilk biscuits
C)whole-wheat toast with jelly
D)boiled shrimp
Q3) What impact does the lack of fiber in the diet have on cholesterol in the body?
Q4) Omega-6 fatty acids help lower the risk of heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Make a list of fat foods that would be the best sources to encourage Reinay to add fat to her diet.
Q6) What are trans-fatty acids? What effect do they have on cholesterol levels? In what foods are they found?
Q7) What indicators are clues to Reinay's weight-conscious habits?
Q8) Discuss the cultural and emotional influences that play a role in this scenario.
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Q1) What is tofu made from?
A)corn
B)legumes
C)chickpeas
D)soy milk
Q2) There are factors that determine the protein requirement an individual needs. List them.
Q3) Trace the metabolism and digestion, mechanical and chemical, of protein through the body. Describe the metabolism process and the utilization of the by-products and elimination of the waste. Discuss the deamination of amino acids that produces ammonia and the specific actions that occur throughout the body. What is the impact of hormones and enzymes on these processes? Include digestion that begins in the mouth and ends in body tissues.
Q4) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?
Q5) Proteins are essential for the development of antibodies and, consequently, for a healthy immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Correlate the above description of kwashiorkor with the intake of protein.
Q7) List the symptoms of kwashiorkor.
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Q1) What is the term used for foods that have been supplemented with vitamins?
A)nutrient-dense
B)processed
C)enriched or fortified
D)nutrient-added
Q2) Ms. Salmendos asks you, "Who are vitamins meant for, and why is it such a big business if people do not need supplements?"
Q3) Megadoses of vitamins can be toxic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the uses of vitamin K and its sources.
Q5) Ms. Salmendos asks, "If I do need a vitamin supplement, what type should I take?"
Q6) What is one possible consequence of hypervitaminosis of vitamin A?
A)xerostomia
B)kidney disease
C)diabetes
D)liver damage
Q7) Describe the use of vitamin E in premature infants and the elderly.
Q8) Describe the types of people who are prone to vitamin deficiencies.
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Q1) Discuss the consequences of sodium toxicity.
Q2) Where does 1% of calcium go when absorbed by the body?
A)skeleton
B)teeth
C)blood
D)liver
Q3) List the medical conditions that are impacted by the sodium and potassium level or by an electrolyte imbalance.
Q4) Major minerals are required in amounts greater than _____ per day.
A)100 mg
B)1,000 mg
C)150 mg
D)1,500 mg
Q5) _____ is a condition due to an inborn error of metabolism and causes excessive absorption of iron.
A)Wilson's disease
B)Marasmus
C)Dwarfism
D)Hemochromatosis
Q6) Discuss factors that impact the absorption of iron.
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Q1) The percentage of body weight that is water is higher in males than females because men have more muscle tissue than women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to meet the body's fluid needs, the intake of fluids should be at least 1 L more than the output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When there is an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood, what occurs?
A)heart rate increases
B)breathing rate increases
C)heart rate slows
D)breathing rate slows
Q4) List expected outcomes:
Q5) How many days can a human live without water?
A)30-45
B)3-5
C)15-30
D)10-14
Q6) List the functions of water in the body.
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Q1) Identify some common nutrition-related outcomes.
Q2) A pregnant adolescent should gain the same weight as a mature woman of the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List risk indicators for which to be alert.
Q4) List the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q5) The need for _____ increases during pregnancy because of the increased blood volume during pregnancy.
A)calcium
B)iron
C)zinc
D)selenium
Q6) _____ is the craving for nonfood substances such as starch or clay.
A)Pico
B)Anemia
C)Pica
D)Picanemia
Q7) "Are there other important contraindications to breastfeeding that I need to know?"
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Q1) Which disease is characterized by low weight for height; slow development of physical skills such as rolling over, sitting, and standing; and delayed social skills such as smiling or playing peek-a-boo?
A)phenylketonuria (PKU)
B)maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
C)galactosemia
D)failure to thrive
Q2) Ms. Newby has asked you, "What is a PKU test?"
Q3) Mother's milk provides the infant with permanent immunity to many infectious diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What foods listed below should not be offered to babies?
A)fruit juice
B)nuts
C)bananas
D)chocolate
Q5) Is Lucia's failure to thrive classified as organic or nonorganic? Why?
Q6) How is an infant's readiness for solid foods demonstrated?
Q7) State instructions for preparing formula for infant feeding.
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Q1) Discuss the parameters of the nutritional needs of Chandra, childhood type 2 diabetes, and the impact on her performance as an athlete.
Q2) Discuss the stresses that impact Chandra's dietary intake.
Q3) An athlete needs additional _____ for energy metabolism.
A)water
B)vitamin C
C)fats
D)caffeine
Q4) Which vitamin increases the utilization of iron in the body?
A)vitamins B
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin A
D)vitamin K
Q5) How often should a child have a snack?
A)never
B)every 1-2 hours
C)every 2-3 hours
D)every 3-4 hours
Q6) Describe how growth is assessed in children.
Q7) Nerissa's mother asks about the treatment for anorexia.
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Q1) Why are elderly at high risk for dehydration?
Q2) The onset of rheumatoid arthritis usually occurs between the ages of _____ _____.
A)30 and 50
B)60 and 70
C)20 and 30
D)50 and 60
Q3) How much calcium does Mary need to take in per day?
Q4) Researchers have found a ______-style diet may be linked to improvement of rheumatoid arthritis symptoms.
A)Mediterranean
B)Caribbean
C)Asian
D)European
Q5) List interventions to assist in meeting the goals or the expected outcomes.
Q6) Write a nursing diagnosis statement for Louise.
Q7) After menopause, the iron requirement for women is the same as for men.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What are the common causes or factors that contribute to being overweight?
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Q1) Discuss recommendations for healthy weight loss. Include calorie requirements and nutrient requirements.
Q2) Research has documented there are many benefits to losing what percentage of body weight?
A)1-2%
B)3-5%
C)5-10%
D)10-15%
Q3) Which measurement can be used with BMI to assess disease risk?
A)wrist circumference
B)hip circumference
C)waist circumference
D)height
Q4) The primary assessment goal is ______________.
Q5) What percentage of U.S. adults report that they engage in NO regular physical activity?
A)10%
B)20%
C)30%
D)40%
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Q1) What are the goals for the treatment of diabetes?
Q2) Describe why hyperglycemia occurs.
Q3) The method of diet therapy most commonly used for diabetic clients is that of counting carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process of ketone production and its consequences.
Q5) What are the expected lab results for someone with pre-diabetes?
Q6) Jana is very concerned about her ability to plan her meals and to adhere to the plan. How can you reassure her?
Q7) Approximately _____ of type 2 diabetes clients are overweight.
A)85%
B)65%
C)less than 50%
D)95%
Q8) Polyuria is defined as excess sugar in the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q10) List the nutrition goals for clients with type 2 diabetes. Page 17
Q9) Discuss the prevalence of diabetes in the United States.
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Q1) What is the name of the condition in which blood flow, and thus oxygen and nutrients, to the tissues is reduced?
A)ischemia
B)angina pectoris
C)hyperlipidemia
D)hypertension
Q2) Compare and contrast primary and secondary hypertension.
Q3) Hypokalemia refers to a low level of _____ in the blood.
A)sodium
B)potassium
C)chloride
D)none of the above
Q4) Discuss the goal and recommendations for the dietary management of James. State nursing interventions to obtain that goal.
Q5) James is extremely thirsty. Discuss the rationale for this.
Q6) Discuss potential causes and risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Q7) James's cholesterol level is 720. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are high and high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are low. Discuss the implications of this.
Q8) Discuss the implications of smoking for James.
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Q1) _____ is a condition in which protein wastes that should have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood.
A)Acute renal failure
B)Oliguria
C)Uremia
D)Nephritis
Q2) Sodium and carbohydrates may be restricted after kidney transplant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the diet during dialysis.
Q4) Describe the diet for clients who are on hemodialysis.
Q5) Discuss the role of calcium in formation of calcium oxalate stones.
Q6) Each kidney contains approximately 100,000 working parts called nephrons.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A client on hemodialysis requires how much protein per kilogram of body weight?
A)1.5 g of protein
B)2 g of protein
C)1.2 g of protein
D)1.8 g of protein
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Q1) Acute esophagitis is caused by _____.
A)ingesting an irritating agent
B)intubation
C)hiatal hernia
D)peptic ulcer
Q2) How is cimetidine useful in treating peptic ulcers?
A)inhibits gastric secretion
B)breaks down the cells that compose the ulcer
C)kills the bacteria
D)neutralizes any excess acid
Q3) Which of the following organs are considered primary organs of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mouth, small intestine, large intestine
B)mouth, liver, stomach
C)pancreas, gall bladder, kidney
D)heart, lungs, stomach
Q4) Many cases are treated with laparoscopic surgery. After this type of surgery, what type of diet will be ordered?
Q5) Describe the symptoms of ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease.
Q6) Describe the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis.
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Q1) The effects of cancer on the host are determined by the _____.
A)size of the tumor
B)amount of carcinogens in the usual diet
C)location of the tumor
D)treatment of the tumor
Q2) The hepatitis B and HPV vaccines can be considered anticancer vaccines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of diet is recommended for a cancer client with diarrhea?
A) liquid diet
B) soft diet
C) low-residue diet
D) high-fiber diet
Q4) What nutritional conditions result from use of radiation?
Q5) Which of the following foods is associated with the prevalence of cancer?
A)bacon
B)legumes
C)chicken
D)olives
Q6) What nutritional conditions result from use of chemotherapy?
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Q1) Contaminated food always looks, smells, or tastes different from non-contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Food-related illnesses caused by Clostridium perfringens can be prevented by ____.
A)thoroughly washing fruits and vegetables
B)pasteurization of milk
C)ensuring that meat and poultry are thoroughly cooked
D)keeping hot foods at or above 140°F
Q3) An altered reaction to a specific food that does not involve the immune system is called a(n) allergy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prepare a worksheet for her, stressing that knowledge of pathogenic names will be irrelevant if she adheres to the guidelines for prevention of foodborne illnesses.
Q5) Compare and contrast Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium perfringens. Include source, signs and symptoms, prevention, and prognosis.
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Q1) Nutrition is of primary importance for a burn client. List some vitamins and minerals that have an impact on the healing process.
Q2) When feeding clients who are unable to feed themselves, the nurse should sit on the bed so the client will not feel that the nurse is in a hurry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is Rosa at high risk for pressure ulcers?
Q4) Define xerostomia and discuss its causes. How can xerostomia be alleviated?
Q5) It is estimated that the majority of people over age 85 have at least _____ chronic disease(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q6) An ostomy surgically created into the stomach is a(n) _____.
A)gastrostomy
B)jejunostomy
C)hysterectomy
D)esophagostomy

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