Nutrition in the Lifecycle Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course explores the nutritional requirements and challenges faced by individuals at each stage of life, from preconception and pregnancy through infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging. Emphasis is placed on physiological changes, nutrient needs, and dietary recommendations unique to each lifecycle phase. The course also examines the impact of nutrition on growth, development, health maintenance, and disease prevention, as well as sociocultural, psychological, and economic factors influencing dietary behaviors throughout the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 14th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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Chapter 1: Intake: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to cellulose and lignin as they go through the GI tract?
A)They are converted into glucose before absorption.
B)They are converted into glucose and absorbed by active transport.
C)They are excreted in the feces unchanged.
D)They are excreted in the feces as glucose.
Answer: C
Q2) How long does it take for small intestine contents to reach the ileocecal valve?
A)18 to 72 hours
B)3 to 8 hours
C)1 to 2 hours
D)2 to 3 hours
Answer: B
Q3) Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with A)enterokinase.
B)trypsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)peptidases.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Intake: Energy
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Q1) In research regarding the measurement of activity-related energy expenditure, what method is used to validate uniaxial and triaxial monitors of human movement?
A)Doubly labeled water
B)Indirect calorimetry
C)Heart rate monitor
D)Physical activity questionnaire
Answer: A
Q2) A respiratory quotient of 0.64 would most likely occur in which of these patients?
A)A pregnant woman
B)A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
C)A trauma patient in the ICU
D)Someone who had just eaten a high-fat meal
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Inflammation and the Pathophysiology of Chronic
Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic inflammation is associated with ______________.
A)a progressive shift in the type of cells present at the site of inflammation
B)production of cytokines
C)loss of the body's ability to recognize "self"
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Essential fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids are converted to what?
A)Insulin
B)Cytokines and adipokines
C)Prostaglandins
D)Interleukin-6
Answer: C
Q3) Dietary factors that help to maintain healthy fluid viscosity and therefore a healthy immune system include all EXCEPT
A)carbohydrate.
B)hydration.
C)vitamin E.
D)monounsaturated fat.
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency?
A)The patient's level of literacy
B)The time required to collect data
C)The lack of tools for conducting these
D)Reliance on the patient's memory
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening?
A)Should be able to be done quickly
B)Should include weight history
C)Should be done by dietitians
D)Should be setting specific
Q3) The purpose of nutritional screening is to
A)identify patients at nutritional risk.
B)determine a patient's nutritional problem.
C)categorize patients as high or moderate risk.
D)assess the patient's nutritional status.
Q4) The MNA short form has been validated for use in what population?
A)Critically ill elderly
B)Surgical populations
C)Subacute and ambulatory elderly
D)Children
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Chapter 5: Clinical: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) Which area of study focuses on the identification and understanding of the function of the end products of the genes within the human genome?
A)Nutrigenomics
B)Proteomics
C)Metabolomics
D)Genomics
Q2) The purpose of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) is to
A)define genetic testing and genetic information.
B)ban discrimination based on genetic information.
C)ensure the fair and positive use of genetic testing.
D)all of the above.
Q3) In regard to nutritional assessment, which of the following will nutrition professionals need to be able to read to identify a patient's potential susceptibility to diseases?
A)Phenotype
B)Genotype
C)Karyotype
D)Genomic imprint
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The recommended fluid intake based on caloric intake is
A)2 ml/kcal for adults and 3 ml/kcal for infants.
B)0.5 ml/kcal for adults and infants.
C)2 ml/kcal for adults and 1 ml/kcal for infants.
D)1 ml/kcal for adults and 1.5 ml/kcal for infants.
Q2) Sodium is increased the most by the intake of A)fresh vegetables.
B)frozen vegetables.
C)fresh meats.
D)luncheon meats.
Q3) Which organ(s) maintain acid-base balance by the regulation of hydrogen ions?
A)Lungs
B)Liver
C)Kidneys
D)Adrenal glands
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of metabolic acidosis?
A)Accumulation of bicarbonate
B)Decreased ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide
C)Accumulation of acids from abnormal metabolism
D)Excessive loss of carbon dioxide from the lungs
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Chapter 7: Clinical: Biochemical, Physical, and Functional Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is a positive acute-phase respondent?
A)Interleukin-1
B)Albumin
C)Transthyretin
D)C-reactive protein
Q2) In urinalysis tests, which of the following is expected to appear at some level in normal people?
A)Glucose
B)Ketones
C)Blood
D)Protein
Q3) Laboratory tests for nutrients
A)are not useful if you have only a single test result.
B)are always best done on whole blood.
C)may indicate deficiency before clinical or anthropometric data does.
D)are currently not well controlled.
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) The gastrointestinal side effect commonly seen when narcotic drugs such as codeine and morphine are administered is
A)a change in taste.
B)constipation.
C)gastrointestinal bleeding.
D)anorexia.
Q2) A patient is receiving warfarin (Coumadin).What MNT education should this patient receive?
A)Decrease intake of vitamin K foods.
B)Maintain consistent vitamin K intake.
C)Increase intake of vitamin D and calcium-rich foods.
D)Maintain consistent vitamin D intake.
Q3) An excipient is a(n)
A)acetylation process.
B)active ingredient in a drug.
C)pressor agent.
D)inactive ingredient.
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10
Chapter 9: Behavioral-Environmental: the Individual in the Community
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Q1) Which of the following is the focus of the traditional public health approach to health care?
A)Primary prevention
B)Secondary prevention
C)Tertiary prevention
D)Patient care
Q2) Which pathogen causes hemorrhagic colitis (painful, bloody diarrhea), which can result from eating undercooked ground beef and meats?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Yersinia enterocolitica
Q3) One of the strongest arguments for the use of organic food is
A)that the cost of organic food is decreasing.
B)organic food is not more susceptible to contamination.
C)to prevent sensitivity to pesticide contamination.
D)to prevent antibiotic resistance.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of electronic health records?
A)Easier accessibility for health care team members
B)Improved legibility of documentation
C)Easier to change and update forms used for documentation
D)Increased efficiency in documentation and providing care
Q2) "Inadequate energy intake" is an example of
A)"S" of a PES statement.
B)nutrition diagnosis.
C)nutrition symptom.
D)"E" of a PES statement.
Q3) Which documentation style has been proposed to reflect the nutrition care process?
A)PES
B)Focus charting
C)SOAPIER
D)ADIME
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12
Chapter 11: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Diet Guidelines,
Nutrient Standards, and Cultural Competence
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Q1) MyPyramid was developed by
A)USDA and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).
B)the National Cancer Institute.
C)the Food and Drug Administration.
D)the Ministry of Health.
Q2) Pork is prohibited in which of the following religions?
A)Jewish, Muslim, and Seventh Day Adventist
B)Catholic, Muslim, and Buddhist
C)Mormon, Jewish, and Muslim
D)Mormon, Hindu, and Seventh Day Adventist
Q3) There is an RDI for all of the following nutrients except A)fiber.
B)biotin.
C)iron.
D)selenium.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT part of the Daily Reference Intake (DRI)?
A)Adequate Intake (AI)
B)Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C)Healthy Eating Index (HEI)
D)Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
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Chapter 12: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Complementary and
Integrative Medicine and Dietary Supplementation
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Q1) During a nutrition assessment, the patient indicates that she uses a particular dietary supplement.At a minimum, what aspects of the supplement should be researched and reviewed before making a recommendation for continued use?
A)The supplement's efficacy, its application to the cited health problem, and its safety
B)The source or origin of the supplement, its safety, and alternative treatments for the health problem
C)The CDR's evaluation of the supplement, the administration instructions, and the potential side effects
D)The form of the supplement, its application to the cited health problem, and its mechanism of action
Q2) Which of the following trends regarding use of dietary supplements is TRUE?
A)Supplements are used more frequently by younger as opposed to older adults.
B)Supplements are used more frequently by minorities than whites.
C)Supplements are used more frequently by people who read food labels.
D)Supplements are used more frequently by people with BMIs above 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
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Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
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Q1) For the patient with delayed gastric emptying, nausea and vomiting, or other indications of risk of aspiration, the tube should be placed through the A)mouth into the stomach.
B)nose into the stomach.
C)mouth into the duodenum or jejunum.
D)nose into the duodenum or jejunum.
Q2) Possible advantages of using homemade tube feedings include A)they are better reimbursed by insurance.
B)they may help an immunocompromised patient.
C)they can be used with any French size feeding tube.
D)they can create a bond with the caretaker.
Q3) The calorie concentration provided by most general-purpose formulas is _____ kcal/ml.
A)0.5
B)1 to 1.2
C)1.5
D)2
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15
Chapter 14: Education and Counseling: Behavioral Change
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Q1) Which of the following is a client's belief in his ability to carry out change?
A)Self-efficacy
B)Self-management
C)Self-monitoring
D)Self-reflection
Q2) The most important thing to establish in the first counseling session is
A)the counseling relationship.
B)likes and dislikes in the counseling environment.
C)fees for service.
D)reimbursement potential by insurance providers.
Q3) When a counselor elicits self-motivational statements, this includes all of the following EXCEPT
A)optimism.
B)problem recognition.
C)reframing.
D)intention to change.
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Chapter 15: Nutrition for Reproductive Health and Lactation
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Q1) Which of these statements is NOT true about colostrum?
A)It is higher in fat than mature milk.
B)It is higher in immunoglobulins than mature milk.
C)It is higher in protein than mature milk.
D)It is lower in lactose than mature milk.
Q2) Milk production is most affected by
A)calories consumed by the mother.
B)mother's hydration status.
C)the frequency of suckling.
D)protein consumed by the mother.
Q3) What nutrient does the American Academy of Pediatricians (AAP) recommend to be supplemented at 2 months of age for breast-fed infants, although the DRI for the nutrient in lactating women is at the same level as that in nonpregnant women?
A)Vitamin A
B)Calcium
C)Zinc
D)Vitamin D
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Infancy
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Q1) How many kilocalories are provided by 6 fl oz of breastmilk or standard infant formula?
A)60 kcal
B)120 kcal
C)180 kcal
D)300 kcal
Q2) What is the appropriate serving size for foods offered to a small child?
A)1 tsp for each year of age
B)1 Tbsp for each year of age
C)1/2 cup of each food served
D)1 cup total food per meal
Q3) Which feeding practice will avoid the development of tooth decay in infants?
A)Give the infant a bottle with fruit juice at bedtime.
B)Give the infant a bottle with milk at bedtime.
C)Put the infant to bed without a bottle.
D)Give the infant a bottle at bedtime only when he or she appears fussy.
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18
Chapter 17: Nutrition in Childhood
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Q1) What is the most accurate means for determining the energy requirements (EER) of a child?
A)Based on growth rate
B)Based on age and height
C)Based on age
D)Based on calories per kilogram
Q2) The recommendation for fiber in preschool and school age children
A)is 5 g/day.
B)is 14 g/kcal.
C)is 14 g/day.
D)is not part of the DRIs.
Q3) Which of the following has been demonstrated by research to be TRUE regarding diet and autism spectrum disorder?
A)Research has not linked a dietary cause to autism.
B)Autism results from a food allergy.
C)Gluten in the diet leads to autism.
D)Fluoride in the water has been linked to autism.
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19
Chapter 18: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) To determine if weight is appropriate for height at a given age for a given gender, where should the data plotted on the NCHS growth chart appear?
A)Between the 5th and 85th percentiles
B)Between the 10th and 50th percentiles
C)Between the 75th and 95th percentiles
D)Between the 5th and 25th percentiles
Q2) How can an adolescent plan a vegetarian diet that is in line with the DRIs and Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
A)By focusing on a vegan diet
B)By ensuring adequate legumes, nuts, and whole grains
C)By including fish
D)By including eggs and dairy foods
Q3) Which nutrient is important in later adolescence to protect against birth defects in pregnancy?
A)Protein
B)Iron
C)Folic acid
D)Calcium
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20
Chapter 19: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) Who may benefit the most from the light to moderate intake of alcohol in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease?
A)Men in their late 30s
B)Women in their 20s
C)Women in their late 40s
D)Men in their late 40s
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the defining characteristics of metabolic syndrome?
A)Abdominal obesity
B)Hypertension
C)Elevated blood lipids
D)Physical inactivity
Q3) When do perimenopause and menopause begin in women?
A)Early 30s
B)Late 40s
C)Elder years
D)Mid 30s
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Chapter 20: Nutrition in Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is dysgeusia?
A)Diminished sense of smell
B)Loss of sense of taste
C)Dry mouth from decreased salivation
D)Result of hypochlorhydria
Q2) A supercentenarian is
A)a woman who is currently 65 years of age who is expected to live to be 100 years old.
B)someone born today who can expect to live to be 100 years old or older.
C)someone who is 100 years old or older with no disease.
D)someone older than 110 years.
Q3) Nutrition screening using the BMI as an indicator
A)is the best indicator for those 85 years of age and older.
B)may not be accurate because of body composition changes in elderly adults.
C)is better than using mid-arm muscle circumference.
D)is not part of the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA).
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22
Chapter 21: Nutrition in Weight Management
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Q1) Obese women should lose weight before becoming pregnant because of the possible impact of what compound released when adipose tissue is mobilized?
A)Ghrelin
B)Insulin
C)Semi-volatile organic compounds
D)Pro- and antiinflammatory cytokines
Q2) The greatest percentage of body fat is set
A)at birth.
B)at 6 years of age.
C)at 6 months of age.
D)before birth by genetics.
Q3) What should be the treatment goal in regard to a child or adolescent who is identified as overweight?
A)Promote weight loss of 1 to 2 lb/week.
B)Promote weight loss to reduce BMI below the 85th percentile.
C)Promote weight maintenance and increased physical activity.
D)Promote weight loss of 10 to 12 lb/year.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) How do anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa commonly affect the patient's metabolic rate?
A)They increase the metabolic rate to higher than normal.
B)They decrease the metabolic rate to lower than normal.
C)They have no effect on metabolic rate, maintaining it at the normal level.
D)They promote an extreme increase in metabolic rate.
Q2) After a binge episode, how much of the energy intake can be eliminated through purging?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)None
Q3) During the acute stage of anorexia nervosa, what is the focus of psychologic management in treatment?
A)Understanding and changing dysfunctional attitudes related to eating
B)Addressing psychopathology that reinforces eating-disordered behaviors
C)Improving interpersonal and social functioning
D)Positive behavioral reinforcement of weight gain
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) Athletes need to increase their water intake to
A)enhance renal excretion of waste products from muscle activity.
B)improve intestinal absorption of nutrients after digestion.
C)maintain water balance in the body as a whole and within cells.
D)increase skin evaporation of water as a cooling mechanism.
Q2) During extended physical activity, such as endurance events, the major fuels used for cellular energy are
A)glucose and fatty acids.
B)glycogen and ketones.
C)amino acids and fatty acids.
D)glucose and ketones.
Q3) For athletes participating in events lasting more than 1 hour, what can a pre-event high-carbohydrate intake do?
A)It can cause hyperglycemia.
B)It can increase muscle glycogen stores.
C)It can cause hypotension.
D)It can improve strength during an event.
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25
Chapter 24: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) Which of the following are bone-forming cells?
A)Osteocytes
B)Osteoblasts
C)Osteoclasts
D)Osteocalcins
Q2) Which of the following is necessary for the maturation of osteocalcin?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin E
D)Vitamin A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with excessive calcium supplementation?
A)Constipation
B)Iron deficiency
C)Urinary tract stones
D)High blood pressure
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Chapter 25: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) Why are foods that require a lot of chewing effective in promoting good dental health?
A)They cleanse the tooth surface.
B)They promote saliva flow.
C)They lower the acidity level of the mouth.
D)They decrease the fermentation of carbohydrate.
Q2) Which of the following foods would be identified to a patient as being potentially cariogenic?
A)Raw carrots and apples
B)Cheddar cheese
C)Butter
D)Crackers and pretzels
Q3) The ingestion of which of the following is most likely to promote bacterial activity that promotes dental caries?
A)Sucrose, glucose, and fructose
B)Xylitol, mannitol, and lactose
C)Aspartame, saccharin, and cyclamate
D)Xylitol, saccharin, and galactose
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Chapter 26: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Adverse
Reactions to Food: Allergies and Intolerances
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Q1) What might happen if allergenic foods are limited or avoided during infancy?
A)May reduce the prevalence of allergy during the first year of life
B)May lead to malnutrition
C)May result in eliminating all commercial infant formulas from the infant's diet
D)May prevent allergy after the first year of life
Q2) Food allergies that are most likely to resolve with age are those that first manifest during the first _____ of life.
A)year
B)3 years
C)10 years
D)15 years
Q3) Which of the following methods is effective for diagnosis when symptoms are subjective or when multiple food allergies are suspected?
A)Open food challenge
B)Single-blind food challenge
C)Double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge
D)Elimination diet
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a condition involving the cells lining the distal esophagus becoming abnormal and premalignant?
A)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B)Esophageal stricture
C)Hiatal hernia
D)Barrett esophagus
Q2) Treating esophagitis with cimetidine, a histamine H -receptor blocking agent, is effective because it
A)provides a viscous protective barrier.
B)decreases gastric acid production.
C)increases LES pressure.
D)promotes gastric emptying.
Q3) Which of the following surgeries would be used to treat a patient with GERD?
A)Billroth I
B)Billroth II
C)Fundoplication
D)Roux-en-Y procedure
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following patients with small bowel resection is the LEAST likely to need long-term parenteral nutrition?
A)40-year-old man with a jejunal resection
B)20-year-old woman who had radiation enteritis before resection
C)60-year-old woman with an almost total ileal resection
D)50-year-old woman with the ileocecal valve removed
Q2) The most common cause of antibiotic-induced diarrhea is
A)Lactobacillus spp.
B)Saccharomyces boulardii.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Clostridium difficile.
Q3) What should be in the solution used for fluid replacement for acute diarrhea in infants and small children?
A)Vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes
B)Glucose and electrolytes in water
C)Chemically defined formula
D)Lactose-free formula
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
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Q1) Increased serum aromatic amino acids and decreased serum branched-chain amino acids is associated with
A)sclerosing cholangitis.
B)acute pancreatitis.
C)hepatic encephalopathy.
D)cholecystitis.
Q2) Which of the following biochemical measures is a test of the liver's excretion?
A)Serum alkaline phosphatase
B)Direct serum bilirubin
C)Alanine aminotransferase
D)Prothrombin time
Q3) Which of the following recommendations should be included in the nutrition care plan for a patient in the acute postliver transplant phase?
A)Calorie restriction
B)Increased sodium
C)Decreased protein
D)Increased protein
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) Screening for gestational diabetes should occur
A)when assessment of pregnancy is first established.
B)at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation.
C)38 to 40 weeks after conception.
D)by the end of the first trimester.
Q2) __________ is NOT a symptom of type 1 DM.
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Loss of thirst sensation
C)Weight loss
D)Polydipsia
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a microvascular disease associated with hyperglycemic patients?
A)Retinopathy
B)Neuropathy
C)Nephropathy
D)Peripheral vascular disease
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid, Adrenal, and
Other Endocrine
Disorders
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Q1) Maintaining thyroid hormone function throughout the aging process appears to be an important hallmark of healthy aging.What characteristic is an indicator of thyroid health in centenarians?
A)Decreased free T4 and rT3 levels
B)An increased libido
C)Constant cortisol production
D)The absence of circulating thyroid autoantibodies
Q2) More than 90% of people with autoimmune thyroid disease have a genetic defect affecting their ability to metabolize what?
A)Vitamin D
B)Flavonoids
C)Selenium
D)Tyrosine
Q3) A rare primary adrenal insufficiency in which insufficient levels of steroid hormones are produced despite adequate levels of the hormone ACTH is known as A)adrenal fatigue.
B)Addison disease.
C)Cushing syndrome.
D)euthyroid sick syndrome.
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Restless legs syndrome is associated with deficiency of what nutrient?
A)Iron
B)Folic acid
C)Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D)Vitamin C
Q2) Which of the following food groupings has the greatest iron content?
A)Milk, raisins, and spinach
B)Broccoli, Rice Krispies, and black beans
C)Kidney beans, pistachio nuts, and eggs
D)Tuna fish, beef tenderloin steak, and chicken liver
Q3) Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to cause an anemia that appears microcytic and hypochromic?
A)Folic acid
B)Pyridoxine
C)Iron
D)Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following decreases in congestive heart failure?
A)Beta-natriuretic peptide
B)Ejection fraction
C)Cardiac remodeling
D)Interleukin-1
Q2) Which class of drugs reduces LDL levels by inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol?
A)Bile acid sequestrants
B)Nicotinic acid
C)HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
D)Fibric acid derivatives
Q3) The MNT for patients with hypertriglyceridemia should include
A)high amounts of carbohydrate.
B)soy protein.
C)monounsaturated fat and omega-3 fat.
D)1500-mg sodium restriction.
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Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Which results from a sweat test indicate that a patient may have CF?
A)Elevated levels of sodium and chloride
B)Decreased levels of sodium and chloride
C)Elevated levels of sodium and potassium
D)Decreased levels of potassium and chloride
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of pulse oximetry?
A)It is a pulmonary function test.
B)It gives information on lung volume.
C)It uses light waves to measure oxygen saturation of arterial blood.
D)It measures the ability of the respiratory system to exchange O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) What vitamin supplementation may be necessary for patients with tuberculosis?
A)Vitamins C and E
B)Folate and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C)Vitamins B6 and D
D)Pyridoxine and folate
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT among the top three considered to cause nephrotic syndrome?
A)Kidney cancer
B)Diabetes
C)Lupus
D)Amyloidosis
Q2) The primary cause of anemia that presents in chronic renal failure is
A)lack of heme and nonheme iron intake.
B)loss of iron through the diseased kidney.
C)deficiency of the hormone erythropoietin.
D)loss of blood through dialysis.
Q3) When acute kidney injury (AKI) is caused by hypertrophy of the prostate, the ARF is classified as _____ AKI.
A)secondary
B)prerenal
C)intrinsic
D)postrenal
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Chapter 36: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
Prevention, Treatment, and Survivorship
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Q1) An autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplant is one involving
A)stem cells donated by a sibling or parent.
B)stem cells donated by a twin.
C)stem cells previously taken from the patient.
D)stem cells from an unrelated donor or cadaver.
Q2) Common side effects of radiation-induced enteritis combined with small bowel resection include
A)sore throat, mucositis, and severe dental and gum destruction.
B)nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C)maldigestion, malabsorption, dehydration, and malnutrition.
D)edema, ascites, and weight gain.
Q3) According to the evidence from current research, what role does drinking regular amounts of coffee or tea have on cancer development?
A)There is a strong causal relationship between coffee intake and cancer.
B)There is a suggested causal relationship between coffee intake and cancer.
C)Coffee may have an anticancer effect.
D)There is a strong causal relationship for tea but not for coffee.
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Chapter 37: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hiv and Aids
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Q1) The most widely studied combination regimen for treatment naïve patients includes A)two NRTIs plus either one NNRTI or a PI.
B)an INSTI with two NRTIs.
C)a PI and a fusion inhibitor.
D)two NNRTIs with a NRTI and PI (with or without ritonavir boosting).
Q2) Opportunistic infections seen in patients with AIDS may increase the presence of malnutrition because of
A)further compromise of the immune system.
B)a reduction in available iron for the WBCs.
C)a reduction in RBCs, causing inadequate oxygenation of the tissues.
D)a decreased oncotic pressure in the intravascular space.
Q3) Hepatitis C virus coinfection with HIV is highly correlated with A)men who have sex with men.
B)injection drug use.
C)poverty.
D)low literacy rates.
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Chapter 38: Medical Nutrition Therapy in Critical Care
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Q1) In contrast to stress, which of the following is a characteristic of starvation?
A)Increased resting energy expenditure
B)Decreased energy expenditure
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased nitrogen excretion
Q2) The preferred method for estimating energy needs in a hypermetabolic patient is
A)25 to 30 kcal/kg.
B)indirect calorimetry.
C)the DRIs.
D)nitrogen balance.
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the ebb phase of injury?
A)Hypovolemic shock
B)Release of catecholamines
C)Increased metabolic rate
D)Hyperglycemia
Q4) Which of the following statements is NOT true about cortisol?
A)It is released from the adrenal cortex.
B)It accelerates skeletal muscle catabolism.
C)It promotes acute-phase protein synthesis.
D)It promotes hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 39: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is characterized by hardening of the skin and visceral organs?
A)Gout
B)Scleroderma
C)Fibromyalgia
D)Sjögren syndrome
Q2) What is the role of prostacyclin or PGI ?
A)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE<sub>1</sub>
B)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE<sub>2</sub>
C)Promotes platelet aggregation
D)Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of Sjögren syndrome?
A)Excessive sweating and salivation
B)Temporomandibular joint symptoms
C)Diminished production of tears and saliva
D)Diminished production of hydrochloric acid
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Chapter 40: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) What is the guideline for accepted weight adjusted for quadriplegia?
A)Ideal body weight (IBW) as determined by the Hamwi formula
B)10 to 15 lb less than IBW as determined by the Hamwi formula
C)10 to 15 lb less than ideal body mass index (BMI)
D)15 to 20 lb less than ideal BMI
Q2) Pyrazole curcumin is being actively researched for treatment for A)stroke.
B)traumatic brain injury.
C)ALS.
D)seizures.
Q3) Which of the following is the inability to perform purposeful, complex movements, although no sensory or motor impairment is evident?
A)Apraxia
B)Aphasia
C)Anosmia
D)Agnosia
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Chapter 41: Mnt in Psychiatric and Cognitive Disorders
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Q1) Wernicke encephalopathy can be treated with what nutrient(s)?
A)EPA and DHA
B)Vitamin C
C)Thiamin
D)Zinc
Q2) Which of the following are sources of alpha linoleic acid?
A)Cod
B)Spinach
C)Walnuts
D)Oysters
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency has been associated with A)bipolar disorder.
B)delusional disorder.
C)active mood disorder.
D)generalized anxiety.
Q4) Chronic fatigue syndrome and fibromyalgia are associated with dysfunction of the A)pituitary gland.
B)cerebral cortex.
C)hypothalamus.
D)glucose metabolism.
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Chapter 42: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) Which of the following must be supplemented to preterm infants fed parenterally or fed human milk to prevent the development of osteopenia?
A)Protein
B)Calcium and phosphorus
C)Vitamins A and D
D)All fat-soluble vitamins
Q2) How much fluid should be provided to an LBW infant during the first day of life?
A)40 to 85 ml/kg
B)50 to 100 ml/kg
C)80 to 105 ml/kg
D)1000 ml total
Q3) Gastric residuals should be checked when feeding an LBW infant by bolus gavage feeding
A)1 hour after each feeding.
B)before each feeding.
C)once each day at the same time.
D)when abdominal distension is suspected.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) The current preferred method for screening for inborn errors of metabolism is A)microarray technology.
B)tandem mass spectrometry.
C)Guthrie bacterial inhibition assay.
D)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
Q2) Which of the following is used in the nutritional management of patients with glycogen storage disease?
A)Oral intake of cornstarch
B)Small, frequent high-protein meals
C)Severe restriction of all carbohydrates
D)Three well-balanced meals a day
Q3) Which fatty acid oxidation disorder is the most common?
A)Short-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
B)Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
C)Long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
D)Long-chain 3-hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
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Chapter 44: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) The most common developmental disability is A)autism.
B)cerebral palsy.
C)Down syndrome.
D)intellectual disability.
Q2) To make standard 20-calorie/oz formula, how much powdered formula needs to be mixed with every 2 oz of water?
A)1 tsp
B)1 Tbsp
C)1 scoop
D)2 scoops
Q3) Which developmental disorder is characterized by the child having an insatiable appetite?
A)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)Spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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