Nutrition in Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application within the nursing profession. Students will examine the role of nutrition in health promotion, disease prevention, and patient recovery, emphasizing the unique dietary needs across the lifespan and in various clinical conditions. The curriculum covers the assessment of nutritional status, planning and implementing appropriate nutritional interventions, and addressing challenges such as malnutrition and food insecurity in diverse populations. Through case studies and practical assignments, nursing students will develop skills to provide evidence-based nutritional care and patient education, integrating nutrition into holistic healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by
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Page 2
Linda Kelly DeBruyne
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bob is reviewing information about a new supplement. Which of the following would be considered valid information and not a quackery warning sign?
A) "quick and easy fix guaranteed"
B) "cures all ailments"
C) a simple conclusion drawn from a complex study
D) an abstract published on the NLM's PubMed website
E) personal testimonials
Answer: D
Q2) The data collected in nutrition surveys is used by the government to:
A) establish public policy on nutrition education.
B) regulate nutrition labeling on food products.
C) decide what nutrition issues will be granted funds for research.
D) assess the effectiveness of government publications about nutrition.
E) guide decisions on new product development.
Answer: A
Q3) Bioactive food components, or phytochemicals, may increase the risk of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of bile is to:
A) stimulate vitamin-producing bacteria.
B) stimulate the activity of protein digestive enzymes.
C) neutralize the intestinal contents.
D) decrease the acidity of the contents of the stomach.
E) emulsify fats.
Answer: E
Q2) The idea of "food-combining diets," or avoiding certain combinations of food, is valid- the digestive system cannot handle more than one task at a time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following will cause a foodborne intoxication?
A) Listeria
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Norovirus
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Limiting their intake of high-GI foods can benefit those who are at risk for which disease?
A) infectious disease
B) arthritis
C) diabetes
D) migraine headaches
E) Crohn's disease
Answer: C
Q2) Describe how fiber-rich foods help with weight control.
Answer: Fiber-rich foods tend to be low in fat, added sugars, and kcalories by providing fewer kcalories per bite. Fibers also absorb water from digestive juices, which can create feelings of fullness, delay hunger, and reduce food intake, thereby aiding weight control.
Q3) The stored form of glucose in the body is called:
A) glycogen.
B) insulin.
C) fat.
D) maltose.
E) protein.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Five grams of fat provide _____ kcalories.
A) 5
B) 20
C) 45
D) 65
E) 100
Q2) A fatty acid with two or more double bonds is described as:
A) monounsaturated.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) emulsified.
D) homogenized.
E) essential.
Q3) The phosphate group on a phospholipid:
A) enables phospholipids to dissolve in water.
B) makes the phospholipid saturated.
C) prevents the digestion of lecithin supplements.
D) competes with fatty acids.
E) is an essential nutrient.
Q4) Imagine you want to explain to a patient the benefits of heart-healthy fats and how to make dietary modifications to include them. What would you say?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) buffers
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids.
B)the swelling of body tissue caused by leakage of fluid from the blood vessels and accumulation of the fluid in the interstitial spaces.
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution.
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution.
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids.
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions.
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids.
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids.
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to help keep a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant.
J)large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced in response to invasion of the body by unfamiliar molecules called antigens.
K)chemical messengers.
Q2) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals would have the lowest basal metabolic rate?
A) a pregnant woman
B) a tall, thin person
C) a malnourished person
D) a person with a fever
E) a bodybuilder
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of alcohol on body weight?
A) Alcohol yields no energy so it does not affect body weight.
B) Alcohol is low in kcalories and has very little effect on body weight.
C) Alcohol slows down the body's use of fat, causing more fat to be stored.
D) Alcohol speeds up the body's metabolism and discourages the storage of body fat.
E) Alcohol contains enzymes that convert protein to fat, encouraging the storage of body fat.
Q3) Basal metabolic needs are large compared to energy needs for activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the mechanism through which excessive abdominal fat is thought to increase the risk of chronic disease.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to lose 1-2 pounds per week while retaining lean tissue, you would need to reduce your food intake by how many kcalories per day?
A) 5
B) 250
C) 650
D) 100
E) 2000
Q2) Describe some strategies for successful weight gain.
Q3) Warning signs of an unsound weight-loss program include:
A) a diet that provides at least 1200 kcalories.
B) recommendations to consume ordinary foods.
C) requirements to purchase a particular brand of foods/supplements.
D) encouragement to pursue physical activity.
E) a diet that limits added sugars and alcohol.
Q4) The major drawback of most fad diets is:
A) they promote false information about weight loss.
B) they do not create lifestyle changes to support long-term weight control.
C) they create false hopes among those who try them.
D) they usually require the purchase of dietary supplements.
E) they often suggest kcalorie intakes that are unsustainably low.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify factors that can place people at risk for vitamin E deficiency and explain why.
Q2) The best way to reap the benefits of phytochemicals is by:
A) eating a variety of plant foods.
B) taking a variety of supplements.
C) increasing your consumption of animal foods.
D) frequently consuming manufactured functional foods.
E) avoiding eggs.
Q3) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
Q4) Vitamin E:
A) functions as an effective anti-sterility agent in human beings.
B) protects vitamin A and polyunsaturated fatty acids from oxidation.
C) is needed by human beings as a dietary supplement because of the variety of functions it has in the body.
D) slows down the aging process.
E) activates blood clotting factors.
Q5) For each of the following vitamins, identify its chief functions in the body, the symptoms characteristic of a deficiency, and significant food sources.
Q6) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of an adult's body is water?
A) 30
B) 40
C) 60
D) 90
E) 100
Q2) The best food sources of magnesium include:
A) legumes, whole grains, and chocolate.
B) milk, rice, and apples.
C) oranges, beef, and cheese.
D) oils, bananas, and pork.
E) pizza, potatoes, and tomatoes.
Q3) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q4) There is a correlation between high salt intake in people and high rates of hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how the body regulates blood calcium levels.
Q6) Discuss the role of sodium in fluid balance and describe how it affects blood pressure.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physically fit woman who is pregnant continues to exercise throughout her pregnancy. Staying active during the course of a healthy pregnancy has been shown to establish which outcome?
A) Preventing neural tube defects
B) Facilitating bonding between the mother and her infant
C) Preventing excess hemorrhage during delivery
D) Improving attempts at breastfeeding
E) Reducing psychological distress
Q2) What do experts cite as one of the most common deterrents to breastfeeding?
A) fear and social anxiety
B) the medical community's failure to encourage breastfeeding
C) the difficulty in breastfeeding for working mothers
D) post-partum depression
E) the lack of education about how to breastfeed properly
Q3) What is meant by a "critical period" during pregnancy? What is the importance of nutrition during a critical period?
Q4) Describe the effects of smoking, alcohol consumption, and excessive caffeine consumption on the growth and development of the fetus.
Q5) Explain how energy needs change as pregnancy progresses.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main source of energy in an infant's diet is provided by what substance found in breast milk and formula?
A) lipids
B) lactose
C) protein
D) dextrose
E) sucrose
Q2) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Q3) The food most likely to lead to anaphylactic shock among children is _____.
A) peanuts
B) soy
C) corn
D) strawberries
E) maple syrup
Q4) Bobby's fatigue is due to iron's role in _____.
A) neurotransmitter synthesis
B) immune function
C) energy metabolism
D) brain tissue development
E) skeletal muscle formation
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
Q2) Zinc intake is commonly low in older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fat intakes should be moderate in the diets of most older adults because _____.
A) cutting fat helps alleviate constipation
B) cutting fat helps to slow the development of atherosclerosis
C) cutting fat helps reduce the risk of osteoporosis
D) cutting fat helps increase lean body mass
E) cutting fat helps to improve physical activity
Q4) Studies suggest that a diet providing ample carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E may help to prevent the early onset of cataracts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The protein needs of older adults appear to be about the same as those of younger people.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the possible roles of nutrition in the prevention of Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) nutrition support teams
Q2) When checking laboratory values for electrolyte levels, the normal range for serum sodium should be between _____.
A) 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L
B) 7 to 35 mEq/L
C) 98 to 106 mEq/L
D) 136 to 146 mEq/L
E) 158 to 178 mEq/L
Q3) Segments of a DNA strand that can be translated into proteins are called _____.
A) chromosomes
B) noncoding sequences
C) genomics
D) genes
E) nucleotides
Q4) Which laboratory test would most likely be used to evaluate liver function?
A) Creatine kinase
B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
C) Creatinine
D) BUN
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unintentional weight gain can result from the use of _____.
A) antidepressant medications
B) antihypertensive medications
C) sedative medications
D) antinausea medications
E) anticonvulsant medications
Q2) There are no known interactions between herbal supplements and medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the characteristics of modified diets is _____.
A) they are not included in a diet manual
B) they are always the same regardless of patient preferences
C) they are altered in consistency or nutrient content
D) they include all foods
E) they typically have fewer calories than regular diets
Q4) Most foods that are included in a fat-restricted diet provide less than 5 grams of fat per serving.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of diet progression.
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main source of energy in parenteral solutions is _____.
A) amino acids
B) glucose
C) lipid emulsions
D) fluids and electrolytes
E) vitamins
Q2) Infusing medications along with an enteral formula increases the osmolality of the tube feeding and may cause a patient to experience _____.
A) diarrhea
B) hyperglycemia
C) high blood pressure
D) constipation
E) hyperlipidemia
Q3) Once the need for intravenous nutrition has resolved, the client should be immediately taken off of the solution and put onto an oral diet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe characteristics of clients who are candidates for peripheral parenteral nutrition.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) The most common risk factor associated with development of COPD is _____.
A) alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency
B) environmental exposure to pollutants
C) lung cancer
D) cigarette smoking
E) cystic fibrosis
Q2) A nurse is treating a patient who is experiencing fluctuations in hormone levels as a result of stress. Based on her understanding of the metabolic effects associated with certain hormones, the nurse knows that aldosterone is responsible for _____.
A) increasing the patient's metabolic rate
B) producing glucose from amino acids
C) reabsorbing sodium in the kidneys
D) releasing fatty acids from adipose tissue
E) reabsorbing water in the kidneys
Q3) Patients under 55 years old are several times more likely to develop MODS than are older patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) To avoid dehydration, the patient who has undergone bariatric surgery should
A) sip water and other non-caloric beverages throughout the day
B) drink plenty of fluids with meals
C) increase intake of foods with high water content
D) drink sports drinks
E) continue with a clear liquid diet instead of advancing to regular foods
Q2) Peptic ulcers are a major cause of _____, which occurs in up to 15 percent of ulcer cases.
A) pain
B) dysphagia
C) gastrointestinal bleeding
D) reflux esophagitis
E) dry mouth
Q3) The most effective medications for suppressing gastric acid secretion are _____.
A) H2 blockers
B) proton-pump inhibitors
C) antacids
D) NSAIDs
E) antibiotics
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) A side effect of consuming a high-fiber diet is _____.
A) flatulence
B) watery stools
C) bacterial overgrowth
D) constipation
E) hemorrhoids
Q2) What does Kelly need to understand about the role of oats in her diet?
A) She should purchase only uncontaminated oats and consume limited quantities.
B) She should not consume oats in any form.
C) She should limit her consumption of oats to 1 cup of dry rolled oats per day.
D) She will need to learn how to prepare oats correctly for consumption.
E) She is free to consume oats since they do not contain gluten.
Q3) Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of _____.
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) diverticular disease
C) infectious diarrhea
D) Crohn's disease
E) peptic ulcer disease
Q4) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with ascites generally must restrict their intake of _____.
A) fat
B) carbohydrates
C) sodium
D) iron
E) potassium
Q2) If a patient with ascites does not respond to sodium restriction and diuretic therapy, excess fluid may be removed from the abdomen by _____.
A) a portosystemic shunt
B) immunosuppressant therapy
C) collateral vessels
D) insulin replacement
E) paracentesis
Q3) Describe the possible causes of hepatic encephalopathy.
Q4) What signs or symptoms best describe ascites?
A) Yellowing of the sclera of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes
B) Fluid accumulation in the abdomen
C) Inflammation of the liver
D) Elevated blood ammonia levels
E) Increased amounts of fat in the stool
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus describes a group of metabolic disorders characterized by _____.
A) elevated blood glucose
B) low hemoglobin
C) accelerated intestinal transit
D) lactose intolerance
E) poor iron absorption
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes calls her physician's office complaining of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The nurse should advise the patient to _____.
A) cease her insulin injections until she can tolerate food
B) continue her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate
C) avoid consuming carbohydrates, but continue her insulin injections
D) cease her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate
E) increase her carbohydrate intake but decrease her insulin injections
Q3) Describe the nutrition therapy for an overweight woman with gestational diabetes.
Q4) Identify the acute complications of diabetes and explain why they occur.
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22
Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Q1) Short-lived ischemic strokes (TIAs) are a warning sign that a more severe stroke may follow, and they need to be evaluated and treated quickly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nurse is instructing a client on a diet for the treatment of his hypertension. The nurse recognizes that the client understands his diet when he says _____.
A) "I can freely use salt substitutes and low-sodium products"
B) "I can eat any foods I want in moderate amounts"
C) "I need to increase my intake of fresh fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and milk products"
D) "I don't need to be concerned about the amount of alcohol I drink"
E) "I can eat what I want as long as I exercise"
Q3) What outcome from a stroke would most likely affect a patient's nutrition status?
A) Headache
B) Breathing difficulties
C) Dysphagia
D) Urinary retention
E) Confusion
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Q1) One potential complication of hemodialysis is _____.
A) blood clots
B) insomnia
C) edema
D) hemochromatosis
E) hypertension
Q2) Describe the potential consequences that can develop with nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The primary goal(s) of medical nutrition therapy for Mr. Wilson at this time should be to _____.
A) lower his blood cholesterol levels
B) prevent PEM and weight loss
C) treat him for iron-deficiency anemia
D) prevent osteoporosis
E) eliminate excess potassium from his diet
Q4) Recovery from kidney injury may begin with a period of diuresis and a patient's fluid status should be monitored closely.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe special dietary considerations for a patient who has had a kidney transplant.
24
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Q1) Leukemia is a type of cancer affecting the _____, where the abnormal cells do not form a tumor; they accumulate in the blood and other tissues.
A) plasma
B) lymph nodes
C) white blood cells
D) platelets
E) red blood cells
Q2) Bobby is a 25-year-old client with HIV infection who is experiencing weight loss and a loss of lean body mass. He currently weighs 160 pounds. The nurse suggests that his diet includes at least _____ grams of protein per day.
A) 37
B) 58
C) 87
D) 112
E) 165
Q3) Cancer cachexia affects almost all cancer patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
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