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This course explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition and its impact on health and wellness across the lifespan. Students will examine the roles of macronutrients and micronutrients, the relationship between diet and chronic disease, and the importance of evidence-based dietary guidelines. Emphasis is placed on the assessment of dietary intake, nutritional needs at different life stages, and strategies for promoting healthy eating behaviors. The course also addresses contemporary nutrition issues such as weight management, sports nutrition, and cultural influences on dietary choices, equipping students with the knowledge to make informed decisions for personal and community health.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3879 Page 2
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77297
Sample Questions
Q1) A relationship where one variable is directly altered by another is called
A) an intervention.
B) a cause-and-effect relationship.
C) a correlation.
D) an epidemiological relationship.
Answer: B
Q2) In order for a food to carry the USDA organic seal it must contain at least 95% organic ingredients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Researcher bias is avoidable by blinding researchers and subjects about who is receiving treatment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Both organic and inorganic compounds contain carbon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 3
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malnutrition describes conditions of both undernutrition and overnutrition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans established four groups of key recommendations including:
A) Reduce calories to lose weight.
B) Reduce consumption of certain foods and food components.
C) Increase consumption of certain foods and food components.
D) All of the above
E) B and C
Answer: E
Q3) When a consumer is comparing two similar food items, he or she can use the food label to decide
A) if one item contains more calories than the other.
B) if one item contains different ingredients than the other.
C) if one item contains more saturated fat than the other.
D) All of the above
E) A and C
Answer: D
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active and passive transport mechanisms differ because
A) active transport requires energy whereas passive transport does not.
B) active transport does not require energy whereas passive transport does.
C) active transport is used for nutrients while passive transport is used for all other substances.
D) passive transport is normally used for all substances; active transport is only used under extreme conditions.
Answer: A
Q2) In contrast to diarrhea, constipation
A) results from reduced extraction of water from feces in the colon.
B) results from quicker transit time through the colon.
C) results in watery feces.
D) results in hard, dry fecal matter, making elimination difficult.
Answer: D
Q3) The consistency of feces depends mainly on
A) water content.
B) presence of bacteria.
C) the amount of dead cells.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The artificial sweetener that is dangerous for people with the genetic disorder phenylketonuria is
A) acesulfame K.
B) saccharin.
C) aspartame.
D) sucralose.
Q2) Type 1 and type 2 diabetes
A) are both associated with symptoms of fatigue, frequent urination, and excessive thirst.
B) are both associated with obesity.
C) are both associated with hypoglycemia.
D) None of the above
Q3) Glycemic load is different from the glycemic index because
A) it considers the typical portion of food consumed.
B) it is not a rating system.
C) it is based on experiments that determine the glycemic response to typical portions of foods.
D) it has different cutoff values for "high" than the glycemic index.
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translation is the process
A) by which messenger RNA leaves the nucleus.
B) by which amino acids are joined using peptide bonds.
C) by which messenger RNA is constructed using DNA as a template.
D) of protein folding.
Q2) When _____ production is reduced because of protein deficiency, _____ can result from fluid imbalance.
A) albumin, edema
B) protein, infection
C) collagen, arthritis
D) collagen, edema
Q3) The three common components of all amino acids are: a central carbon atom bonded to a hydrogen atom, a carboxylic acid group, and
A) a common side-chain group.
B) a sulfur-containing amino group.
C) a nitrogen-containing amino group.
D) a positively charged R-group.
Q4) Amino acids can be used for ATP production.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Micelles are
A) small droplets of bile released into the duodenum from the gallbladder.
B) small droplets of dietary cholesterol that move rapidly through the intestinal tract.
C) small droplets of fat resulting from emulsification of large droplets that come from the stomach.
D) small droplets of triglycerides that have reformed from the fatty acids and diglycerides produced by lipase activity.
Q2) Fatty acids are the most abundant lipid molecules in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under certain conditions, such as starvation, fatty acids can be used to form A) ketones, an alternative energy source for some tissues.
B) amino acids so that protein synthesis can continue to occur.
C) glucose so that the brain can function normally.
Q4) The metabolic breakdown of fatty acids to produce ATP is called A) lipolysis.
B) lipogenesis.
C) -oxidation.
D) fatty acid burning.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77291
Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of thiamin deficiency is called A) beriberi.
B) scurvy.
C) pellagra.
D) anemia.
Q2) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is found abundantly in plant foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vitamin K is essential for the process of A) digestion.
B) absorption.
C) reproduction.
D) coagulation.
Q4) All carotenoids can be converted into retinoids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adequate folate intake during pregnancy can help to prevent A) neural tube defects.
B) preterm labor.
C) morning sickness.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of body weight made up of water is greater in adults than in infants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What percentage of total body weight is comprised of water?
A) 10-20%
B) 25-40%
C) 50-70%
D) 75-85%
Q3) In some people, increasing salt intake is associated with _____ because the high-salt diet induces _____ blood volume.
A) hypotension, decreased
B) hyponatremia, increased
C) hypertension, increased
D) hypertension, decreased
Q4) Which of the following statements about hydroxyapatite is false?
A) It is a reservoir for calcium in the body.
B) It regulates bone remodeling.
C) It is broken down by osteoclasts.
D) It is synthesized by osteoblasts.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a physiological phenomenon initiating events that lead to a satiety signal in the brain is
A) gastric stretching, which facilitates hormone release in the small intestine, thereby signaling satiety.
B) gastric stretching, which causes blood glucose levels to rise and thereby signals satiety.
C) gastric stretching, which elicits ghrelin secretion and signals satiety.
D) gastric stretching, which signals satiety.
Q2) Activities such as fidgeting and sitting up straight do not contribute to one's total energy expenditure (TEE).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gastric stretching, circulating nutrient levels, and ghrelin all participate in A) inhibition of food intake.
B) stimulation of food intake.
C) long-term regulation of food intake.
D) short-term regulation of food intake.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nutrient required to support proper neural tube development is A) calcium.
B) iron.
C) folate.
D) vitamin D.
Q2) The reason(s) that recommendations for calcium intake do not change for the mother during pregnancy is (are)
A) that although the mother excretes more calcium than usual, she also absorbs more than usual.
B) that calcium absorption is increased and calcium excretion is reduced in a pregnant woman.
C) that calcification of bone in the fetus occurs mainly after birth.
D) that fetal requirements for calcium are actually quite small.
Q3) Low-birth-weight babies
A) are always born prematurely.
B) are defined as weighing less than 8 pounds at birth.
C) are at increased risk for early death (within the first year of life).
D) are at reduced risk for developing chronic diseases later in life.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum force exerted by muscles during physical activity is called A) cardiovascular fitness.
B) physical fitness.
C) muscular strength.
D) VO<sub>2</sub> max.
Q2) A set of characteristics that one has or can achieve relating to one's ability to perform physical activity is called
A) muscular strength.
B) physical fitness.
C) cardiovascular fitness.
D) None of the above
Q3) If a 40-year-old man wishes to perform moderate-intensity exercise, his heart rate should be maintained between _____ and _____ beats per minute.
A) 90, 126
B) 100, 140
C) 120, 168
D) 130, 182
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children of women with eating disorders are at an increased risk of developing eating disorders themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People who suffer with muscle dysmorphia are driven to reduce muscle mass.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A swollen or puffy face, broken blood vessels in the eyes, and a sore throat and hoarse voice are all signs of
A) bulimia nervosa.
B) anorexia nervosa.
C) binge-eating disorder.
D) night eating syndrome.
Q4) Treatment goals for people with bulimia nervosa include all of the following except:
A) achieving a healthy body weight by reducing bingeing and purging.
B) elimination of bingeing and purging.
C) developing a healthy relationship with food.
D) resolving psychological issues.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol dehydrogenase is the enzyme that catalyzes
A) the transport of ethanol into cells.
B) the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde.
C) the conversion of ethanol to acetic acid.
D) the conversion of acetaldehyde to ethanol.
Q2) While moderate alcohol consumption in adults is associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke, it is not recommended for young adults. This is because, in young adults, alcohol
A) is metabolized differently than in older adults.
B) use is associated with increased risk of injury and death.
C) is rapidly excreted.
D) is toxic to the heart.
Q3) Liver disorders associated with chronic alcohol consumption include fatty liver. This results from the accumulation of _____ in the liver.
A) dietary fats
B) fatty acids
C) triglycerides
D) cholesterol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms prefer to live and replicate within temperatures between _____ degrees and _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
A) 10, 110
B) 20, 120
C) 40, 140
D) 60, 160
Q2) Clostridium botulinum is one of the most common causes of foodborne illness in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you want to avoid consuming bisphenol A, you should
A) use plastic bottles.
B) use glass or metal bottles.
C) microwave all your plastic before drinking from it.
D) wash all plastic containers, bottles, and utensils in the dishwasher.
Q4) An example of a noninfectious agent that can cause a foodborne illness is a A) virus.
B) fungus.
C) nonbacterial toxin.
D) parasite.

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77283
Sample Questions
Q1) The phenomenon of the nutrition transition is closely linked to urbanization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Undernourished children tend to be in the lowest height-for-age percentiles compared with a well-nourished reference group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best explains why mothers in food-insecure households experience hunger before their children do?
A) The mothers are constantly seeking food and therefore are too tired to eat.
B) The children demand food from their mothers.
C) The mothers consume less food themselves in order to shield their children from hunger.
D) The mothers consume more food than their children, but are too weak to properly metabolize it.
Q4) One of the greatest determinants of food insecurity is poverty.
A)True
B)False
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