Nutrition in Health and Disease Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application to the promotion of health and the prevention and management of disease. Students will examine the role of macronutrients and micronutrients in the body, evaluate the impact of dietary choices on physiological function, and analyze the relationship between nutrition, chronic diseases, and metabolic disorders. The course will also address current dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment techniques, and strategies to address nutritional needs across the life span and in various health conditions. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based approaches to nutrition therapy and the integration of nutritional knowledge into clinical and public health practice.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Chapter 1: The Relationship of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify nursing interventions to meet the identified goals. Answer: Weigh daily, monitor I & O hourly, monitor B/P, T, P, R rate, breath sounds, and edema. Monitor lab values: glucose, vitamins, minerals, trace elements, electrolytes, albumin/prealbumin, folate, zinc, and BUN. Mouth care every 2 hours. Offer small, frequent feedings. Collaborate with dietician for a progressive diet, high in nutrients. Monitor calorie count for 3 days, closely monitoring protein intake. Assess client's knowledge of a balanced diet. Provide positive reinforcement for food intake.
Q2) Which mineral is needed to prevent osteoporosis from occurring?
A)iron
B)magnesium
C)zinc
D)calcium
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following does NOT put an individual at risk for malnutrition?
A)eating too much
B)eating too little
C)an absorption disorder
D)eating a variety of foods
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Low sodium" means ____.
A)fewer than 120 mg per serving
B)fewer than 140 mg per serving
C)fewer than 35 mg per serving
D)no more than 45 mg per serving
Answer: B
Q2) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is the lack of _____________. It is more prevalent among four specific population groups. List them and describe why those population groups are more at risk. Describe how their diets can be altered to prevent the deficiency.
Answer: Iron: Children under age 2 consume more milk instead of eating other food sources with iron. Adolescents lack a nutritional diet because they eat more junk food than regular meals. Pregnant women need increased iron because the developing fetus depletes their blood cells. Women with heavy menstrual flow are at risk for decreased iron levels. Diet plans may vary, but clients should be encouraged to eat foods high in iron such as lean meats, poultry, fish, enriched breads, legumes, leafy green vegetables, dried fruits, and nuts.
Q3) Use approximate measures to determine Haley's usual caloric intake for 1 day. Answer: 3,000-3,200 calories
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the purpose of fiber in the diet. List the best food sources.
Answer: Fiber promotes health of the large intestine by helping soften stools and promoting regular bowel movements. The best sources include corn, wheat, celery, and apple skins.
Q2) As people age, the lean body mass _______. A)increases
B)stays the same C)decreases
D)fluctuates
Answer: C
Q3) Which hormone causes the release of sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the acidity of chyme?
A)gastrin
B)pepsin
C)secretin
D)cholecystokinin
Answer: C
Q4) Determine her current recommended body weight based on her height and sex. Answer: 111-146 pounds
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the tough outer covering of a grain kernel called?
A)endosperm
B)exosperm
C)bran
D)germ
Q2) Before carbohydrates are absorbed they are changed to ____.
A)glycogen
B)insulin
C)glucose
D)maltose
Q3) This sugar is distinct from other sugars because it is not found in plants.
A)fructose
B)lactose
C)sucrose
D)glucose
Q4) Disaccharides are simple sugars that may be absorbed from the intestine directly into the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the recommended weight loss per week?
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Chapter 5: Lipids Fats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fats are soluble in water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In cells, fatty acids are broken down to ______.
A)carbon dioxide and water
B)carbon dioxide and oxygen
C)oxygen and nitrogen
D)carbon dioxide, oxygen, and water
Q3) Lipoproteins are classified according to their _____.
A)structure
B)mobility and density
C)chemical composition
D)location in the body
Q4) Fats are carried and transported in the body via _______.
A)lipoproteins
B)glycerol
C)gastric lipase
D)pancreatic lipase
Q5) Describe the pathology that occurs within the cardiovascular system with the ingestion of coffee, nicotine, and fats.
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Chapter 6: Proteins
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Q1) When completing a nursing care plan for Ariel, based on protein and metabolic needs, what are the desired outcomes/evaluation criteria for Ariel?
Q2) Which term indicates the protein status of a client with a severe burn?
A)nitrogen balance
B)negative nitrogen balance
C)positive nitrogen balance
D)complete protein
Q3) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins all contain the following elements: ____.
A)carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
B)carbon, hydrogen, and magnesium
C)carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur
D)nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen
Q4) What is tofu made from?
A)corn
B)legumes
C)chickpeas
D)soy milk
Q5) What is the state of the nitrogen balance with a burn victim?
Q6) List the symptoms of kwashiorkor.
Q7) Discuss the effect of diarrhea on the electrolyte balance.
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Q1) _____is the excess of one or more vitamins.
A)Hypervitaminosis
B)Toxicity
C)Hypovitaminosis
D)Avitaminosis
Q2) The major function of vitamin A is the promotion of calcium and phosphorus absorption in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A normal, healthy adult who eats a balanced diet needs a vitamin supplement that meets the daily minimum requirement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The deficiency of vitamin D in young children may cause night blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ms. Salmendos tells you that she feels that the drug companies have wrongly encouraged her to take vitamins. She wonders if the companies are truthful in their labeling.
Page 9
Q6) Describe the use of vitamin E in premature infants and the elderly.
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Chapter 8: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how mineral salts are related to the concept of electroneutrality.
Q2) _____ is a condition due to an inborn error of metabolism and causes excessive absorption of iron.
A)Wilson's disease
B)Marasmus
C)Dwarfism
D)Hemochromatosis
Q3) Describe the conditions that occur when blood calcium is above normal and below normal levels.
Q4) Describe the source of minerals.
Q5) Which major mineral is required for the transmission of nerve impulses?
A)phosphorus
B)sulfur
C)potassium
D)iron
Q6) Which food is most likely to enhance the absorption of iron?
A)legumes
B)orange juice
C)whole grains
D)corn
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body has buffer systems that regulate _____ content in body fluids.
A)sodium
B)hydrogen ion
C)potassium
D)chloride
Q2) The cerebrum regulates thirst.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List substances included in measurement of intake and output.
Q4) The average adult's body contains approximately 75% water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fluid found between cells is called intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The body's buffer system serves as a first line of defense against fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explain why.
Q7) Give the priority nursing diagnosis statement for Mrs. James.
Q8) List expected outcomes:
Q9) Describe the steps in planning nursing care. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Are there other important contraindications to breastfeeding that I need to know?"
Q2) Nausea associated with pregnancy, or morning sickness, is a benign condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the approximate number of calories in an ounce of human milk?
A)10 calories
B)20 calories
C)30 calories
D)40 calories
Q4) List the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q5) List risk indicators for which to be alert.
Q6) Discuss four priority nutritional concerns for the pregnant woman. Include nursing interventions to relieve the symptoms.
Q7) The ingestion of alcohol while pregnant can result in _____.
A)weight gain
B)hypertension
C)spontaneous abortions
D)fetal alcohol syndrome
Q8) "If I breastfeed, will I have to be on a special diet?"
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Infancy
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Q1) An infant with galactosemia who is fed lactose-free formula will have all its nutritional needs met. As the infant grows to become an adult, what type of nutrient supplements will be needed?
Q2) When introducing solid foods to an infant's diet, _____ is usually introduced first.
A)soft fruits
B)pureed vegetables
C)finely ground meat
D)cereal
Q3) Is Lucia's failure to thrive classified as organic or nonorganic? Why?
Q4) By 6 months of age, a baby's weight can _____.
A)remain unchanged
B)double
C)triple
D)quadruple
Q5) What assessment data is most important?
Q6) During the first year, the normal child needs half as many calories per kilogram as the adult requirement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nutrition During Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give nursing diagnosis statements for Nerissa and her family.
Q2) Nerissa's mother asks about the treatment for anorexia.
Q3) Smoking increases the risk of _____.
A)heart disease
B)cirrhosis
C)anorexia nervosa
D)none of the above
Q4) Which of the following is NOT accurate when families eat meals together?
A)Children do better in school.
B)Children are healthier.
C)Children have greater self-esteem.
D)Children will have greater risk taking behaviors.
Q5) What steps can you take to aid this family in planning a lifestyle for Chandra? Children with childhood type 2 diabetes and their parents will gain useful insight and increased nutritional knowledge with referral to additional health professionals. Acquaint them with those that will be of value.
Q6) Describe how growth is assessed in children.
Q7) Describe the rate of growth and the appetite of a child between the ages of 1 and 3 years.
Page 15
Q8) Discuss the four primary symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition During Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone loss begins slowly, around age 50-60, and leads to osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One aspect of assessment will involve evaluation of Ms. Leonas's current diet. Ms. Leonas believes her current diet is adequate. What can you tell her about her cholesterol level and her current diet? For what conditions is she at risk in relation to her cholesterol?
Q3) Estrogen loss that occurs after menopause contributes to osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At what age does bone loss usually begin?
A)between ages of 25 and 35
B)between ages of 35 and 40
C)after the age of 50
D)after the onset of menses
Q5) In general, people who are concerned about nutrition should make changes in food sources of several substances. List those.
Q6) Being overweight is a precursor for several health problems. List those.
Q7) List interventions to assist in meeting the goals or the expected outcomes.
Q8) Why are elderly at high risk for dehydration?
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Chapter 14: Weight Management Across the Life Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is released from the stomach and signals the hypothalamus that it's time to eat?
A)leptin
B)ghrelin
C)insulin
D)lecithin
Q2) Which measurement can be used with BMI to assess disease risk?
A)wrist circumference
B)hip circumference
C)waist circumference
D)height
Q3) List assessment data to be collected.
Q4) Compare the physiology of a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) with that of an adjustable gastric band (AGB).
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a health consequence of obesity?
A)coronary heart disease
B)insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes
C)hypertension
D)anorexia
Q6) Discuss the dangers of being underweight.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Diet and Pre-Diabetes and Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the goals for the treatment of diabetes?
Q2) What factors can predispose one to type 2 diabetes?
Q3) Describe the changes that occur in the second or third trimester that result in gestational diabetes.
Q4) What data are used to validate the condition?
Q5) Which method of diet therapy is most commonly used for diabetic clients?
A)carbohydrate counting
B)exchange lists
C)diet modification
D)meal planning
Q6) Describe the management of gestational diabetes if meal planning alone does not bring glucose levels to target.
Q7) Formulate nursing diagnosis statements for Mary.
Q8) What hormone helps release energy by converting glycogen to glucose?
A)estrogen
B)glucagon
C)insulin
D)glycogen
18
Q9) A symptom of diabetes mellitus is polydipsia, or excessive thirst. Why does this occur?
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Chapter 16: Diet and Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Ed is not happy with the sodium restrictions in his diet. How can you teach Ed the importance of adhering to this diet and instruct him in ways to make foods tasteful, without added salt?
Q2) Compile a list of foods or condiments that are high in sodium.
Q3) In severe cases of edema, it is possible for a client to adhere to a diet that is totally salt-free.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cholesterol is found only in animal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All of the following statements about atherosclerosis are true EXCEPT ________. A)arteries become thickened
B)begins in adulthood
C)caused by an inflammatory process
D)plaques develop within the artery walls
Q6) Search the Internet to find the guidelines compiled by the American Heart Association for cholesterol intake. List them.
Q7) Compare and contrast primary and secondary hypertension.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Diet and Renal Disease
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Q1) Which of the following are among the functions of the kidneys?
A)secrete certain hormones, dilute electrolytes
B)excrete hormones, recycle electrolytes
C)maintain volume of body fluids, dilute electrolytes
D)secrete certain hormones, excrete wastes
Q2) Describe the protein intake in clients with renal disease.
Q3) Name two end products of protein metabolism.
A)urea and uric acid
B)vitamin D and vitamin K
C)lecithin and uremia
D)creatinine and aldosterone
Q4) The use of salt substitutes is not recommended for clients with renal disease. Why?
Q5) A client on hemodialysis requires how much protein per kilogram of body weight?
A)1.5 g of protein
B)2 g of protein
C)1.2 g of protein
D)1.8 g of protein
Q6) Discuss the role of calcium in formation of calcium oxalate stones.
Q7) Describe hemodialysis.
Page 21
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Chapter 18: Diet and Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) How have food manufacturers marketed the gluten-free diet? For what conditions should the gluten-free diet really be used?
Q2) Describe the treatment for peptic ulcers.
Q3) What type of diet will Jessie be on?
Q4) What type of diet and lifestyle changes should be encouraged for a client with peptic ulcers?
Q5) For someone who has Celiac disease, what are some of the gluten-containing grains that would need to be avoided and what are the gluten-free grains and starches that would be safe?
Q6) Describe the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis.
Q7) Describe the incidence of cholecystitis.
Q8) What pathology results in edema and ascites in the late stages of cirrhosis?
Q9) _____ is a condition in which a part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
A)Esophagitis
B)Hiatal hernia
C)Dyspepsia
D)Peptic ulcer
Page 22
Q10) Describe the pathology of cholecystitis.
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Chapter 19: Diet and Cancer
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Q1) Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nutrient and calorie needs of the cancer client are lower than they were before the onset of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anorexia is a major problem for cancer clients. List ways to encourage eating.
Q4) When cancer cells spread to new tissue sites in the body, they are said to _____.
A)neoplasia
B)metastasize
C)resection
D)neoplasm
Q5) What is the most common type of skin cancer?
A) melanoma
B) squamous cell
C) basal cell
D) neoplasm
Q6) What nutritional conditions result from use of chemotherapy?
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Foodborne Illness, Allergies, and Intolerances
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Q1) Which bacteria have spores that are extremely heat resistant and must be boiled for 6 hours before they will be destroyed?
A)Clostridium perfringens
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) One substance that causes food poisoning is mold. Describe the allergic reactions to molds, the symptoms, and preventive measures.
Q3) Most foodborne illnesses occur because of the ignorance or carelessness of people who handle the food. List some preventive measures and guidelines toward the same.
Q4) State the goal of the elimination diet and describe the process.
Q5) Food allergies among children increased by 10% between 1997 and 2011.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All allergic reactions to food are always immediate.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the reason for the resistance of pathogens with spores.
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Nutritional Care of Clients With Special Needs
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Q1) One of the major complications of tube feedings is aspiration. Define aspiration and nursing measures to prevent the occurrence.
Q2) Clients who are able to digest and absorb nutrients are given a commercial formula containing intact proteins, carbohydrates, and fats that require digestion. What is the term for this formula?
A)modular formula
B)hydrolyzed formula
C)polymeric formula
D)elemental formula
Q3) If the client begins to choke while being fed, what is the first action to take?
A)help the client sit up straighter
B)offer water to wash down the food
C)go look for help
D)suction the client
Q4) In relation to mealtime, what important information should be added to the client's chart?
Q5) Nausea and vomiting have begun. What nursing interventions can be done to relieve or prevent further attacks?
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