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Nutrition in Health and Disease explores the crucial role of nutrients in maintaining health and preventing disease throughout the human lifespan. The course examines the physiological and biochemical functions of macronutrients and micronutrients, the principles of nutritional assessment, and the impact of metabolism on health. Students learn about dietary recommendations, the role of nutrition in managing and preventing chronic diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and obesity, as well as the nutritional considerations in specific populations including children, pregnant women, and the elderly. Case studies and current research inform discussions on developing personalized nutrition strategies and public health interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Essentials of Nutrition and Diet Therapy 11th Edition by Eleanor Schlenker
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Q1) A major focus of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines is:
A) generally healthy segments of the population.
B) the unhealthy American public.
C) vulnerable population segments.
D) ethnically diverse eating styles.
Answer: B
Q2) The nutrient group that provides the primary source of energy for the body is:
A) carbohydrates.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) vitamins.
Answer: A
Q3) The main body storage form of carbohydrates is:
A) glycogen.
B) starch.
C) fat.
D) glucose.
Answer: A
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Q1) In addition to active transport, a process involved in absorbing food in the small intestine is:
A) pinocytosis.
B) excretion.
C) phagocytosis.
D) electrochemical diffusion.
Answer: A
Q2) Hormones that increase the release of free fatty acids include:
A) insulin and glucagon.
B) cortisol and thyroxine.
C) somatostatin and gastrin.
D) lipoprotein lipase and secretin.
Answer: B
Q3) The actions involved in the process of digestion are:
A) thermal and chemical.
B) chemical and segmental.
C) muscular and chemical.
D) mechanical and thermal.
Answer: C
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Q1) The type of fiber that is not a carbohydrate is:
A) gums.
B) lignin.
C) pectin.
D) cellulose.
Answer: B
Q2) Ingredients necessary for photosynthesis to occur include carbon dioxide, water, and:
A) glucose.
B) nitrogen.
C) chlorophyll.
D) hydrogen.
Answer: C
Q3) Whole-wheat bread, popcorn, baked beans, bananas, and pears are good sources of:
A) cellulose.
B) gums.
C) collagen.
D) psyllium.
Answer: A
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Q1) The effect of trans fatty acids on blood cholesterol is similar to that of:
A) cis fatty acids.
B) saturated fatty acids.
C) monounsaturated fatty acids.
D) polyunsaturated fatty acids.
Q2) Digestion of fats is completed in the:
A) duodenum.
B) intestinal wall.
C) liver.
D) enterohepatic circulation.
Q3) The form of fatty acids in naturally occurring fats is generally:
A) trans.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) cis.
D) saturated.
Q4) The lipoprotein that helps slow the progression of atherosclerosis is:
A) very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
B) low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
C) chylomicron.
D) high-density lipoprotein (HDL).

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Q1) A plasma protein that helps maintain fluid balance is:
A) albumin.
B) fibrinogen.
C) hemoglobin.
D) collagen.
Q2) The group that makes each amino acid unique is the:
A) radical group.
B) amino group.
C) carboxyl group.
D) peptide bond.
Q3) An example of a meal or snack that contains complementary proteins is:
A) an egg and cheese omelet.
B) a peanut butter sandwich.
C) trail mix with nuts and raisins.
D) mixed bean salad with green beans, kidney beans, and white beans.
Q4) The amino acids methionine, tyrosine, and tryptophan play a role in:
A) forming neurotransmitters.
B) blocking excess protein breakdown.
C) increasing production of insulin and thyroxine.
D) decreasing energy expenditure.
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Q1) A food that provides a natural food source of vitamin D is: A) mackerel.
B) wheat germ.
C) steak.
D) margarine.
Q2) The amino acid that is a precursor to niacin is:
A) leucine.
B) phenylalanine.
C) tryptophan.
D) valine.
Q3) The disease associated with niacin deficiency is known as: A) scurvy.
B) beriberi.
C) cheilosis.
D) pellagra.
Q4) A vitamin that is essential to bone growth is vitamin: A) D.
B) B .
C) E.
D) C.
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Q1) A genetic disease that causes iron overload is: A) goiter.
B) hypochromic anemia.
C) hyperchromic anemia.
D) hemochromatosis.
Q2) The name of an ion that possesses a positive charge is a(n): A) anion.
B) cation.
C) acid.
D) base.
Q3) For public health purposes, the level of fluoridation in public water supplies should be:
A) 0.5 ppm.
B) 1.0 ppm.
C) 2.0 ppm.
D) 3.5 ppm.
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Q1) The main focus of weight management efforts should be:
A) development of healthy lifestyle habits.
B) decreasing energy intake.
C) increasing energy expenditure.
D) behavior modification therapy.
Q2) Parents can help decrease the likelihood that their children will develop eating disorders by:
A) limiting intake of snacks between meals.
B) ensuring that their school teaches good nutrition.
C) engaging in regular exercise with them.
D) avoiding prejudice against overweight people.
Q3) The total number of calories in a snack containing 10 g of carbohydrate, 2 g of protein, and 5 g of fat is:
A) 17.
B) 68.
C) 78.
D) 93.
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Q1) According to the Nutrition Labeling Education Act, labeling is voluntary for:
A) fresh fruits, vegetables, and seafood.
B) processed meat and poultry.
C) candy and soft drinks.
D) organic and natural food products.
Q2) Legislation governing food additives developed after 1958 states that:
A) additives established as "safe" by testing may be used.
B) additives must be tested for 10 years before widespread use.
C) any additive may be used until an adverse side effect occurs.
D) new additives must be approved by a panel of nutritionists.
Q3) A type of bacterium that has been linked with major outbreaks of bacterial food infection caused by eating undercooked ground beef is:
A) Salmonella.
B) Shigella.
C) E. coli.
D) Staphylococcus.
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Q1) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program provides electronic transfer cards that can be used to buy food by:
A) individuals with medically confirmed malnutrition.
B) individuals or families with at least three risk factors for malnutrition.
C) individuals and households with incomes at or below 130% of the federal poverty level.
D) low-income pregnant women and mothers with infants and children under age 5.
Q2) Groups at high risk for malnutrition include:
A) unemployed teenagers.
B) newly retired adults.
C) young children in low-income families.
D) breast-fed infants.
Q3) Grading of canned fruits and vegetables is based on:
A) shape and size of the pieces.
B) flavor and sweetness.
C) texture and quality.
D) the amount of added sugar or salt.
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Q1) During pregnancy, women usually need to increase their energy intake by about:
A) 5% to 10%.
B) 10% to 15%.
C) 15% to 20%.
D) 20% to 25%.
Q2) The most common cause of anemia during pregnancy is:
A) folic acid deficiency.
B) lack of intrinsic factor.
C) iron deficiency.
D) lack of vitamin B .
Q3) The component that makes the most variable contribution to weight gain during pregnancy is:
A) fat.
B) water.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
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Q1) A major reason that toddlers usually eat less than they did as infants is because they are:
A) using baby fat stores.
B) less active.
C) losing interest in food.
D) growing more slowly.
Q2) The effect of the hormone prolactin is to:
A) stimulate breast development.
B) balance supply and demand of breast milk.
C) stimulate breast milk production.
D) stimulate ejection of milk from the alveoli.
Q3) Children are likely to experience problems if they receive excess amounts of vitamins:
A) D and E.
B) C and D.
C) A and E.
D) A and D.
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Q1) A factor that may interfere with normal food intake of older adults is:
A) inadequate fluid intake.
B) inadequate income.
C) participation in an exercise program.
D) dependence on caffeinated beverages.
Q2) The goal of nutrition screening for older adults is to:
A) treat overt malnutrition.
B) identify those at risk for malnutrition.
C) evaluate nutritional status.
D) determine supplement needs.
Q3) The recommended daily protein intake for a healthy 65-year-old adult who weighs 70 kg is:
A) 49g.
B) 56g.
C) 63g.
D) 70g.
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Q1) With prolonged exercise, two nutrients that can become depleted are:
A) calcium and phosphorus.
B) glucose and glycogen.
C) protein and potassium.
D) vitamins A and D.
Q2) Intake of more protein than is recommended results in increased production of:
A) ATP.
B) heat.
C) urea.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q3) The ideal pregame meal should contain about:
A) 50 to 100 g carbohydrate.
B) 100 to 200 g carbohydrate.
C) 200 to 300 g carbohydrate.
D) 400 to 500 g carbohydrate.
Q4) Vitamins and minerals are important in energy production because they:
A) supply a necessary substrate.
B) speed up energy production.
C) provide endurance.
D) serve as cofactors in enzyme reactions.
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Q1) The stage of change in which people actually start making changes to help them lose weight is:
A) precontemplation.
B) contemplation.
C) action.
D) maintenance.
Q2) The widely used sweetener that appears to be associated with increased calorie intakes in recent years is:
A) aspartame.
B) table sugar.
C) high-fructose corn syrup.
D) maltodextrin.
Q3) A factor during fetal development that is associated with overweight during young adulthood is maternal:
A) alcohol intake.
B) caffeine intake.
C) smoking.
D) fever.
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Q1) Nutrition diagnoses help dietitians:
A) plan cycle menus for their patients.
B) identify patients at risk for malnutrition.
C) establish priorities for nutrition care.
D) identify patients who need in-depth assessment.
Q2) An example of a clinical observation associated with good nutritional status is:
A) firm muscle tone.
B) pale eye membranes.
C) limited attention span.
D) heart rate of 110 beats/min.
Q3) A special therapeutic diet may be modified in:
A) consistency and tolerance.
B) frequency and portion size.
C) seasonings, nutrient density, and/or fluids.
D) nutrients, energy, and/or texture.
Q4) Body mass index is correlated with:
A) age.
B) micronutrient status.
C) overall mortality.
D) patient satisfaction.
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Q1) Protein is important in the postoperative recovery period for tissue synthesis and:
A) good immune function.
B) maintaining insulin levels.
C) metabolism of antibiotics.
D) sparing glycogen stores.
Q2) If more than 50% of the small intestine is removed, patients may develop:
A) dumping syndrome.
B) an ileostomy.
C) short-bowel syndrome.
D) anemia.
Q3) Nutrients lost in the initial period following a major burn injury are:
A) fluids and electrolytes.
B) electrolytes and protein.
C) protein and fluids.
D) fluids, electrolytes, and protein.
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Q1) A drug that should not be used in the latter part of pregnancy because it may cause birth defects is:
A) insulin.
B) tetracycline.
C) aspirin.
D) cimetidine.
Q2) Aspirin may have beneficial effects for patients with: A) peptic ulcer.
B) diabetes.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) arthritis.
Q3) Any drug that prevents absorption of vitamin D will indirectly cause a deficiency of: A) protein.
B) sodium.
C) calcium.
D) vitamin A.
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Q1) Intravenous iron should be given to patients receiving parenteral nutrition: A) daily.
B) weekly.
C) as a separate injection.
D) only if they have anemia.
Q2) A client would be a candidate for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if he or she had: A) a poor appetite after major surgery.
B) severe depression and unwillingness to eat.
C) radiation enteritis causing minimal food intake for over 2 weeks.
D) lost more than 10% of usual body weight in the past 9 months.
Q3) Clients who are on ventilators, are restrained, are comatose, or have a depressed gag reflex and are receiving tube feedings should have feeding tubes placed into the: A) jejunum.
B) stomach.
C) ileum.
D) duodenum.
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Q1) A basic principle guiding nutritional management of peptic ulcer disease is to eat:
A) a well-balanced diet as tolerated.
B) foods high in protein, low in fiber, and with no seasonings.
C) no more than three meals per day with liquids between meals.
D) soft foods, low in refined carbohydrates and fat.
Q2) Drugs used to control blood ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy are:
A) diuretics and chelating agents.
B) corticosteroids and cimetidine.
C) tetracycline and antacids.
D) lactulose and neomycin.
Q3) Cystic fibrosis is a disease that primarily affects the:
A) pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and small intestine.
B) brain, lungs, heart, and stomach.
C) pancreas, intestinal tract, sweat glands, and lungs.
D) colon, joints, sweat glands, and heart.
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Q1) The upper limit of normal blood pressure in adults is considered to be:
A) 110/70 mm Hg.
B) 120/80 mm Hg.
C) 130/85 mm Hg.
D) 140/90 mm Hg.
Q2) The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism tends to promote the retention of sodium and the excretion of:
A) calcium.
B) creatinine.
C) iron.
D) potassium.
Q3) Several types of blood lipoproteins are synthesized in the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) pancreas.
D) adrenal glands.
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Q1) A population group that has a genetic susceptibility to type 2 diabetes is:
A) Russians.
B) Eskimos.
C) Japanese.
D) Pima Indians.
Q2) Development of type 2 diabetes is closely linked to:
A) young age at onset.
B) being underweight.
C) physical inactivity.
D) high sugar intake.
Q3) A major focus of the dietary prescription for people who have type 2 diabetes is to:
A) eat more fruit and vegetables.
B) avoid foods that contain sugar.
C) avoid snacks between meals.
D) lose weight.
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Q1) Electrolyte imbalances that occur in chronic renal failure include:
A) high serum potassium.
B) low serum potassium.
C) high serum calcium.
D) low serum phosphorus.
Q2) Potassium intake is restricted if serum potassium level is higher than:
A) 3.5 mg/dL.
B) 4.0 mg/dL.
C) 5.0 mg/dL.
D) 5.5 mg/dL.
Q3) The term hematuria refers to:
A) a reduced amount of urine in relation to fluid intake.
B) the presence of blood in the urine.
C) the presence of excess serum proteins in the urine.
D) a complete lack of urinary excretion.
Q4) The presence of protein in the urine is called:
A) hematuria.
B) oliguria.
C) proteinuria.
D) glycosuria.
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Q1) A client with HIV/AIDS treated with ART who develops hyperlipidemia may benefit from following a:
A) DASH diet.
B) low-fat diet.
C) TLC diet.
D) sugar-free diet.
Q2) The population group at greatest risk of HIV infection is: A) nurses.
B) IV drug users.
C) people receiving blood transfusions.
D) people who practice irresponsible sexual behavior.
Q3) The HIV virus carries genetic material in the form of:
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) integrase.
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Q1) The greatest interference with normal food intake is caused by treatment of cancer in the:
A) lung.
B) lymph glands.
C) head and neck.
D) white blood cells.
Q2) Clients who receive chemotherapeutic drugs often develop anemia because of:
A) bone marrow depression.
B) inadequate iron intake.
C) destruction of folic acid stores.
D) inhibition of antibody formation.
Q3) Cancer generally begins with disruptions in:
A) DNA replication.
B) nutritional status.
C) RNA transcription.
D) cell metabolism.
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