Nutrition in Health and Disease
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition and their critical roles in maintaining health and managing disease. Students will examine the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of macronutrients and micronutrients, as well as the physiological impacts of nutritional deficiencies and excesses. The course also discusses the relationship between diet and common chronic diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and obesity. Special attention is given to evidence-based dietary recommendations, the nutritional needs across the lifespan, and the role of nutrition in disease prevention and therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda
Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrient density refers to foods that _____.
A) are iron-rich
B) contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein
C) carry nutrient labeling information
D) deliver the most nutrients for the least amount of kcalories
E) are the most nutritionally balanced
Answer: D
Q2) According to labeling standards, the Nutrition Facts label must contain information about _____.
A) calcium and iron
B) calcium and magnesium
C) iron and selenium
D) iron and zinc
E) calcium and vitamin B
Answer: A
Q3) Minerals and water are organic molecules that yield energy in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the possible alternatives, why are carbohydrates the preferred energy source?
Answer: as long as carbohydrate is available, the human brain depends exclusively on it as an energy source. Most cells depend on glucose for their fuel to some extent, and the cells of the brain and the rest of the nervous system depend almost exclusively on glucose for their energy.
Q2) Which group contains the fewest carbohydrates?
A) grains and starchy vegetables
B) nuts and dried fruits
C) milk and cheese
D) fruits and vegetables
E) meat and nuts
Answer: C
Q3) The leading source of added sugar in the American diet is _____.
A) baked goods such as cookies and cakes
B) freshfruits
C) sugarysoft drinks
D) chocolate bars and other candy treats
E) ice cream and other frozen treats
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by saturation of a fatty acid?
Answer: a saturated fatty acid is one that is carrying the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms (having no points of unsaturation). Fatty acids may differ from one another in two ways-in chain length and in degree of saturation. The chain length refers to the number of carbons in a fatty acid. Saturation also refers to its chemical structure-specifically, to the number of hydrogen atoms the carbons in the fatty acid are holding. If every available carbon is filled to capacity with hydrogen atoms, the chain is called a saturated fatty acid. A saturated fatty acid is fully loaded with hydrogen atoms and has only single bonds between the carbons.
Q2) A triglyceride contains more than three fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Foods that are thought of as protein-rich, such as meat, may actually contain more fat energy than protein energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the possible risks associated with overconsumption of protein?
Q2) Complementary proteins ____.
A) enhance the taste of food
B) increase the quality of the protein
C) combine proteins from different foods to provide all essential amino acids
D) decrease the loss of nitrogen from the body
E) increase the loss of nitrogen from the body
Q3) What is the primary cause of the edema that accompanies kwashiorkor?
A) Proteins and hormones diminish and fluid leaks into interstitial spaces.
B) Lipoprotein synthesis is diminished, causing fat to accumulate.
C) Protein is lost from the heart muscle, resulting in a weak heartbeat.
D) Synthesis of enzymes is reduced.
E) Protein synthesis produces too much water.
Q4) Severe marasmus ____.
A) results in low resistance to disease
B) causes increased body temperature
C) occurs only in children
D) hampers physical development but leaves the brain unaffected
E) occurs only in adults
Q5) Differentiate between the symptoms of kwashiorkor and marasmus.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ is formed in the mouth.
A) bile
B) bolus
C) chyme
D) villus
E) sphincter
Q2) Describe the difference between low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoproteins (HDL). What is the relationship between blood levels of these lipoproteins and risk of heart disease?
Q3) Describe how the US government is working to help keep foods safe.
Q4) The microscopic hairs that cover the surface of each cell lining the small intestine are called ____.
A) intestinal folds
B) villi
C) microvilli
D) lymphatics
E) microcilia
Q5) Digestion is completed in the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and _____.
A) stored as fat
B) excreted in the feces
C) stored as amino acids
D) stored as glycogen and fat
E) excreted in the urine
Q2) Ketones can meet some of the nervous system's energy needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.
Q4) The basal metabolic rate slows with increasing age because _____.
A) the elderly are malnourished
B) fat mass in the body decreases
C) digestive efficiency declines
D) lean body mass diminishes
E) disease stressors are diminished
Page 8
Q5) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
Q6) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some research indicates that obese people have much more lipoprotein lipase activity in their fat cells than lean people do.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most obese people have leptin deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diet and health recommendations should be _____.
A) offered to the general public, who will later be surveyed to determine the efficacy of the program
B) based on years of scientific research
C) proposed first and proven later
D) offered by celebrities who have lost weight successfully
E) based on the elimination of a specific energy nutrient from the diet
Q4) A major complication of weight-loss surgery can include _____.
A) increased appetite
B) increased thirst
C) nutritional deficiencies
D) an inability to process calcium
E) the development of diabetes
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The replacement of red blood cells and digestive tract cells depends most heavily on
A) thiamin
B) riboflavin
C) niacin
D) folate
E) biotin
Q2) Vitamin E deficiencies are rarely observed in humans because _____.
A) the vitamin is so widespread in foods
B) it can be synthesized by the body
C) most people take vitamin E supplements
D) it is not essential
E) we do not require large amounts
Q3) Which vitamin can be used as a pharmacological agent for the treatment of high cholesterol?
A) thiamin
B) vitamin E
C) niacin
D) vitamin C
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bones continuously gain and lose minerals through an ongoing process called
A) reorganization
B) remodeling
C) reorienting
D) redesigning
E) reassignment
Q2) Children with a mild iodine deficiency typically perform poorly in school.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary regulator of extracellular fluid volume is _____.
A) chlorine
B) sodium
C) magnesium
D) potassium
E) zinc
Q4) Thirst and satiety are the two factors that govern water intake in healthy people.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss how exercise intensity affects your body's use of glycogen as a fuel.
Q2) Endurance athletes can lose _____ or more of fluid during each _____ of activity.
A) 1 gallon; half hour
B) 4 quarts; half hour
C) 1.5 gallons; hour
D) 4 gallons; half hour
E) 1.5 quarts; hour
Q3) A major benefit of fitness is _____.
A) lower risk of type 1 diabetes
B) preferential burning of carbohydrates instead of fats
C) the shifting of body composition toward more lean tissue
D) decreased bone density
E) improved self-discipline
Q4) VO max refers to maximal _____.
A) oxygen uptake
B) pulse rate
C) repetitions
D) resistance
E) flexibility
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in blood supply to the placenta can result in about _____ of increased weight during pregnancy.
A) four grams
B) one-half pounds
C) three pounds
D) four ounces
E) four pounds
Q2) Practices that should be avoided during pregnancy include _____.
A) smoking cigarettes and consuming alcohol
B) smoking cigarettes, consuming alcohol, and consuming caffeine
C) consuming alcohol only
D) smoking cigarettes, consuming alcohol, exercise, and consuming fat
E) smoking cigarettes only
Q3) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Q4) A low birthweight baby has a statistically greater chance of contracting diseases and dying early in life.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
Q5) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
Q6) Describe the functions of the placenta in supporting fetal growth.
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Page 15
Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends a supplement of _____ for all infants who are exclusively breastfed in the first six months of life.
A) iron
B) vitamin C
C) folic acid
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin A
Q2) The adolescent growth spurt _____.
A) begins earlier in girls than in boys
B) affects every organ except the brain
C) decreases total nutrient needs
D) causes a greater weight gain in girls
E) causes the nervous system to misfire during sleep
Q3) Children who skip breakfast tend to exhibit _____.
A) higher energy intakes
B) enhanced concentration
C) less apathy
D) lower test scores
E) higher energy intakes.
Q4) What is the role of the "gatekeeper," as applied to nutrition?
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fastest growing age group in the U.S. population is composed of people over _____ years of age
A) 50
B) 65
C) 75
D) 85
E) 90
Q2) Describe the possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
Q3) List ten ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
Q4) The _____ food assistance program provides low-income older adults with coupons that can exchanged for fresh fruits, vegetables, and herbs at community-supported roadside stands.
A) Meals for Singles
B) Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program
C) SNAP
D) OAA Nutrition Program
E) Box Lunches for Seniors
Q5) How might a diet plan that is kcalorie restrictive actually help slow the aging process?
Page 17
Q6) Describe why energy needs decline with advancing age.
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical history provides information about ____.
A) genetic susceptibility for diseases
B) living situation
C) body weight and dietary changes
D) financial concerns that may restrict access to food
E) social concerns
Q2) Edema refers to ____.
A) fluid retention
B) dehydration
C) PEM
D) wasting
E) hypertension
Q3) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
Q4) Diet manuals are least likely to contain information about ____.
A) foods that are allowed
B) foods that not allowed
C) the principles of nutrition education
D) rationale and indications for the use of diets
E) sample menus for each diet
Q5) Describe what is included in a diet manual.
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient placed on the anticoagulant drug warfarin will need _____.
A) supplements of vitamin K
B) a high-kcalorie diet
C) education regarding diet-drug interactions
D) education regarding increasing iron intake
E) education regarding monitoring fluid input and output
Q2) What advice should be given to Mr. Salazar regarding his use of herbal products?
A) He should stop taking them completely.
B) He should look up the side effects of each herbal product he takes so he can be aware of them.
C) He should never take more than one herbal product at a time.
D) Herbal products should never be taken at the same time he takes his prescription medications.
E) Each time he visits his physician, he should bring a list of all prescription medications and herbal products he regularly takes.
Q3) How should Mr. Hare be counseled regarding his vitamin K intake?
Q4) What are three general ways in which diet and drugs can interact?
Q5) Discuss the ways in which drugs can affect food intake.
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) Which type of enteral formula usually has the highest osmolality?
A) standard formulas
B) modular formulas
C) specialized formulas
D) elemental formulas
E) macronutrient formulas
Q2) Which medical conditions or treatments indicate the need for parenteral nutrition?
A) severe swallowing disorders
B) mechanical ventilation
C) extremely high nutrient needs
D) short bowel syndrome
E) gastric reflux
Q3) After 10 days, Ms. Johnson's physician decides to taper her nutrition support and advance her to an oral diet. Describe the process.
Q4) When a patient is being tube fed, he or she cannot eat food.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of nutrition support is appropriate for Ms. Johnson at this time? Why?
Q6) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of nasogastric feeding.
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) Xerostomia is a side effect of many medications and can make speaking and swallowing more difficult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The protein recommendation for bariatric surgery patients is _____ g per kg of body weight per day.
A) 0.8 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.5
C) 1.2 to 1.8
D) 1.5 to 2.0
E) 2.0 to 2.5
Q3) Dietary advice that may help treat GERD includes _____.
A) avoiding alcohol
B) avoiding gas-forming foods
C) eating large servings
D) sucking on a peppermint after a meal.
E) eating snacks just before bedtime.
Q4) Why does fat malabsorption occur in patients who have undergone gastrectomy?
Q6) Discuss the complications of gastritis. Page 21
Q5) What types of medications are used to treat GERD?
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Page 22
Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Lily is experiencing a sudden bout of diarrhea. Which food may worsen her symptoms?
A) adding salt to foods
B) whole-wheat breads and cereals
C) noodles and couscous
D) bananas and peeled apples
E) coffee
Q2) Compare the causes of osmotic and secretory diarrhea.
Q3) Diverticulitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that occurs in the small intestine and affects the entire intestinal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which treatment is not used to control the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome?
A) dietary adjustments
B) stress management
C) antidepressants
D) antibiotics
E) antivirals
Page 23
Q5) Why was Mr. Fruge unaware of his condition until now?
Q6) Describe potential problems associated with probiotic use.
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Page 24
Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) oil does not require bile for digestion and absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most enzyme preparations used to treat pancreatitis are enteric coated to _____.
A) allow enzymatic activation in the stomach
B) promote absorption in the ileum
C) resist stomach acidity
D) activate the immune system
E) ensure proper digestion in the duodenum
Q3) What does Kati need to understand about the role of oats in her diet?
A) She should purchase only uncontaminated oats and consume limited quantities.
B) She should not consume oats in any form.
C) She should limit her consumption of oats to 1 cup of dry rolled oats per day.
D) She will need to learn how to prepare oats correctly for consumption.
E) She will need to always mix oats with proteins.
Q4) Describe dietary concerns for someone who is lactose intolerant.
Q5) Explain the cause of Julia's impaired nutrition status.
Q7) What complications might Julia develop as she gets older? Page 25
Q6) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) Describe ways to help a patient with cirrhosis consume enough nutrients.
Q2) Moderate use of alcohol has been shown to reduce deaths from coronary heart disease in middle-aged and older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cirrhosis patients frequently develop insulin resistance and consequently must follow a diet that _____.
A) maintains blood glucose control
B) is low in fiber
C) provides consistent vitamin K intake
D) is low in sodium
E) is low in protein
Q4) Collaterals are _____.
A) small blood vessels in the intestines
B) blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternate path for blood flow
C) induced by fatty liver disease
D) hemorrhages in the esophagus
E) an abnormal growth of blood vessels in response to disease
Q5) What is the cause of the pain associated with cholelithiasis?
Q6) Describe appropriate nutrition intervention before and after a liver transplant. Page 27
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) The HbA1C test is used to determine the _____.
A) average blood glucose over the preceding two weeks
B) glycemic control for the preceding two to three months
C) level of fructose in the blood
D) presence of ketones in the blood
E) average plasma pH
Q2) Which drug suppresses glucagon secretion and delays stomach emptying?
A) biguanides
B) sulfonylureas
C) dopamine agonists
D) acarbose
E) amylin analogs
Q3) A disadvantage of intensive therapy for type 1 diabetes is _____.
A) a greater risk of severe hypoglycemia
B) greater expense due to lack of insurance reimbursement
C) fewer incidences of severe hypoglycemia
D) more rapid progression of chronic complications
E) lack of glycemic control
Q4) Describe hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome of type 2 diabetes.
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Q5) Describe how glycated hemoglobin is used to evaluate long-term glycemic control.
Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) To reduce her risk of CHD, Mrs. Winslow's LDL should be _____ mg/dL.
A) <100
B) <130
C) >140
D) >120
E) <150
Q2) A patient has begun taking furosemide to manage heart failure. Which foods should she consume frequently?
A) legumes
B) peanut butter
C) bananas and other potassium-rich foods
D) milk and other milk products
E) proteins
Q3) An alternate choice for the butter that Mrs. Winslow uses that could help lower her cholesterol is _____.
A) stick margarine
B) margarine that contains plant sterols or stanols
C) soft margarine
D) margarine made from corn oil
E) margarine rich in saturated fats
Page 30
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) The potassium content of vegetables can be reduced by a process called _____.
A) steaming
B) sautéing
C) leaching
D) boiling
E) starching
Q2) hyperoxaluria
A)the solution used in dialysis to draw wastes and fluids from the blood
B)abrupt decline in kidney function over a period of hours or days
C)blood in the urine
D)elevated serum potassium levels
E)elevated serum phosphate levels
F)elevated urinary oxalate levels
G)increased urine production
H)low serum potassium levels
I)elevated serum calcium levels
J)elevated urinary calcium levels
Q3) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for calcium oxalate stones.
Q4) Describe how drug therapy is used to control some of the complications of chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) Which sign of respiratory failure appears as a bluish cast in the skin on the lips, cheeks and nail beds?
A) acidosis
B) hypercapnia
C) hypoxia
D) hypoxemia
E) cyanosis
Q2) Smoking is the primary risk factor in most cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Overfeeding an acutely stressed patient can lead to _____.
A) fever
B) mechanical ventilation
C) abscesses
D) inactivity
E) refeeding syndrome
Q4) The inflammatory process can alter immune cell function in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) A nurse is working with a cancer patient admitted to the hospital with complaints of loss of appetite and weight loss. An assessment of the client also reveals depletion of lean body mass and serum protein. The nurse accurately recognizes these as characteristics of _____.
A) graft-versus-host disease
B) human immunodeficiency virus
C) thrush
D) cancer cachexia
E) neutropenia
Q2) There appears to be a link between the consumption of _____ and a decreased risk of prostate cancer.
A) milk and dairy products
B) tomato products
C) citrus fruits
D) whole grains
E) vitamin C
Q3) How might fruits and vegetables reduce the risks of some cancers?
Q4) A copy of any advance directive should be part of a client's medical record.
A)True
B)False
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