Nutrition in Health and Disease
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition and its critical role in maintaining health and preventing disease. Students will examine the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of major nutrients, and the impact of macro- and micronutrients on bodily functions. The course delves into the nutritional requirements at various stages of the life cycle and discusses evidence-based dietary strategies for managing and preventing chronic diseases such as obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and certain cancers. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and practical case studies, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how nutrition influences wellness and contributes to the management of various health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Chapter 1: The Relationship of Nutrition and Health
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Q1) Primary deficiencies are those an individual is born with, while secondary deficiencies are those caused by a disease condition associated with malabsorption and accelerated excretion or by the destruction of the nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Describe the appearance of an 18-year-old female who is at the optimal level of nutritional balance.
Answer: Shiny hair, clear skin, clear eyes, erect posture, alert expressions, firm flesh on well-developed bone structure, healthy appetite, regular sleep and elimination habits, and positive emotional adjustments.
Q3) Obesity can increase your risk of developing ____.
A)iron deficiency anemia
B)diabetes
C)kidney failure
D)osteoporosis
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Q1) Chinese cooking may cause a problem for people with high blood pressure because of the extensive use of soy sauce, which is high in ____.
A)sugar
B)salt
C)iron
D)fat
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following items must be included on a food label?
A)total carbohydrates and cholesterol per serving
B)vitamins E and D
C)all B vitamins
D)cost per serving
Answer: A
Q3) Based on MyPlate, a 1,800-calorie diet would require how many cups of fruits and vegetables each day?
A)two cups
B)three cups
C)four cups
D)five to six cups
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Q1) What term is used to describe the movement caused by rhythmic contractions of the muscular wall of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mechanical
B)chemical
C)peristalsis
D)hydrolysis
Answer: C
Q2) Calculate your basal metabolic rate. Calculate your usual caloric intake. Discuss the implications of your intake versus your metabolic rate.
Answer: The students should easily determine their total energy requirements. If the caloric intake exceeds their BMR, they will gain weight. If it is less, weight loss will occur.
Q3) Metabolism is the body's ____.
A)use of energy to conserve nutrients
B)use of food to create energy
C)process whereby food is broken down into smaller parts
D)reduction of fats without the use of oxygen
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Carbohydrates are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and supply the major source of energy for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is another term for glucose?
A)dextrin
B)dextrose
C)table sugar
D)saccharine
Q3) The body needs a constant supply of energy; consequently, it stores approximately one-half of a 24-hour need of carbohydrates in the liver and muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which monosaccharide is a product of milk digestion?
A)lactose
B)galactose
C)fructose
D)maltase
Q5) What is the minimum amount of carbohydrates needed each day?
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Chapter 5: Lipids Fats
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Q1) Monounsaturated fats lower the amount of low-density lipoprotein in the blood when they replace saturated fats in one's diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Food and Nutrition Board's Committee on Diet and Health recommends that people reduce their fat intake to _____ of total calories.
A)25%
B)35%
C)20%
D)30%
Q3) Develop a dietary plan to discuss with Mr. and Mrs. Balboack when his condition is stable. What types of foods does he need to add or remove from his diet? What tips can you offer to help him remove excess fats/lipids from his diet?
Q4) What factors could have contributed to his weight?
Q5) Describe the pathology that occurs within the cardiovascular system with the ingestion of coffee, nicotine, and fats.
Q6) What impact does the lack of fiber in the diet have on cholesterol in the body?
Q7) What indicators are clues to Reinay's weight-conscious habits?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Proteins
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Q1) Proteins are essential for the development of antibodies and, consequently, for a healthy immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are factors that determine the protein requirement an individual needs. List them.
Q3) Discuss the impact of a high-protein diet on the body.
Q4) What types of proteins are consumed routinely by vegans?
A)complete proteins
B)incomplete proteins
C)amino acids
D)high-quality proteins
Q5) Complementary proteins must be consumed in the same _____.
A)day
B)meal
C)week
D)month
Q6) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?
Q7) Calculate the number of grams of protein that would be needed by a healthy adult who weighs 220 pounds.
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Q1) Vitamin C is a fat-soluble vitamin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Megadoses of vitamins can be toxic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Deficiency of which vitamin can result in scurvy?
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin B12
D)vitamin A
Q4) Some vitamins are easily destroyed by light, air, heat, and water. Describe ways to preserve the vitamin during its preparation and cooking.
Q5) In which of the following situations is vitamin K NOT indicated?
A)to clients with faulty fat absorption
B)to a client after extensive antibiotic therapy
C)as an antidote for an overdose of a blood thinner
D)to prevent hemolytic anemia in premature infants
Q6) Describe the types of people who are prone to vitamin deficiencies.
Q7) Describe why mineral oil should not be used as a laxative.
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Chapter 8: Minerals
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Q1) Most minerals in food occur as salts. Describe preparation methods for foods that contain mineral salts.
Q2) Describe the conditions that occur when blood calcium is above normal and below normal levels.
Q3) Which mineral deficiency may result in rickets?
A)zinc
B)calcium
C)iron
D)magnesium
Q4) What conditions could cause a potassium deficiency, and what conditions could cause an excess potassium level?
Q5) The adequate intake of fluoride remains the same from infancy throughout the life cycle because the bones and teeth are fully developed by early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the consequences of sodium toxicity.
Q7) Discuss factors that impact the absorption of iron.
Q8) What is the best food source of sodium?
Q9) Describe the source of minerals.
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Chapter 9: Water
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Q1) What is the average daily adult requirement for water?
A)1,800 mL
B)5 mL for every calorie consumed
C)1 mL for every calorie consumed
D)at least 500 mL a day
Q2) _____ is the principal electrolyte in intracellular fluid.
A)Chloride
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Carbon dioxide
Q3) Which element is regulated by the buffer systems?
A)oxygen
B)hydrogen
C)carbon dioxide
D)chloride
Q4) The body must excrete 1,500 mL of water each day to rid the body of the waste products of metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Give the priority nursing diagnosis statement for Mrs. James.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) Nausea associated with pregnancy, or morning sickness, is a benign condition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pregnancy-induced hypertension is characterized by _____.
A)hyperemesis gravidarum
B)pica
C)proteinuria
D)eclampsia
Q3) Which of the following nutrients does NOT need to be increased during pregnancy?
A)protein
B)vitamin C
C)iron
D)vitamin A
Q4) Several women in the group are members of varied cultures. Identify potential dietary problems associated with the different cultures.
Q5) Anemia may be caused by _____ deficiency.
A)iron
B)folate
C)protein
D)zinc
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Infancy
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Q1) Burping helps prevent _____.
A)gas
B)regurgitation
C)air bubbles
D)gagging
Q2) What assessment data is most important?
Q3) Babies differ in the amount of food they eat from day to day. An infant will let you know when they are full.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How should infants' meal times be scheduled?
A)three times a day
B)every 2 hours
C)three meals, two snacks a day
D)feed on demand
Q5) Synthetic milk is commonly made from _____.
A)rice
B)soybeans
C)goat's milk
D)artificial proteins
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Chapter 12: Nutrition During Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) Which is a consequence of marijuana use?
A)loss of weight
B)cardiac irregularities
C)leading to the use of other drugs
D)depression
Q2) An obese child needs a snack after school.
A)True
B)False
Q3) State goals for the anorexic adolescent and her family.
Q4) Discuss the parameters of the nutritional needs of Chandra, childhood type 2 diabetes, and the impact on her performance as an athlete.
Q5) Generally speaking, fast foods are not high in _____.
A)fat
B)sodium
C)calories
D)fiber
Q6) Discuss the four primary symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
Q7) In addition to the physiological factors, describe other factors that may impact the child's food choices and nutritional status.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutrition During Adulthood
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Q1) Mary asks if there is anything she can do to prevent further bone mass loss.
Q2) The onset of rheumatoid arthritis usually occurs between the ages of _____ _____.
A)30 and 50
B)60 and 70
C)20 and 30
D)50 and 60
Q3) The most common cause of overweight is lack of exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mary tells you she does not like milk, so she will plan on purchasing some calcium supplements from the grocery store. How do you respond?
Q5) In general, people who are concerned about nutrition should make changes in food sources of several substances. List those.
Q6) Osteoporosis is becoming a common occurrence in the young to middle adulthood age groups. A healthy diet is very important in the care of this condition. A diet rich in what nutrients is thought to help prevent osteoporosis?
Q7) Mary asks you about food sources for calcium.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Weight Management Across the Life Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a health consequence of obesity?
A)coronary heart disease
B)insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes
C)hypertension
D)anorexia
Q2) List causes of malnutrition.
Q3) Although she is not at this time above the weight recommendations for her height, Sabrina has several of the risk factors for obesity. What nursing plan should be used to treat her?
Q4) Describe the risk factors associated with childhood obesity.
Q5) List nursing interventions in order of priority.
Q6) Which hormone is released from the stomach and signals the hypothalamus that it's time to eat?
A)leptin
B)ghrelin
C)insulin
D)lecithin
Q7) List some of the complications that may result from an inadequate nutritional status.
Q8) Discuss body mass index (BMI) in relation to health risks.
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Chapter 15: Diet and Pre-Diabetes and Diabetes
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Q1) Polyuria is defined as excess sugar in the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the benefits of exercise.
Q3) Infants of mothers who have had diabetes are prone to hypoglycemia immediately after birth. Describe the cause of this.
Q4) What factors can predispose one to type 2 diabetes?
Q5) Describe why hyperglycemia occurs.
Q6) Which method of diet therapy is most commonly used for diabetic clients?
A)carbohydrate counting
B)exchange lists
C)diet modification
D)meal planning
Q7) Differentiate gestational diabetes from type 1 diabetes.
Q8) Describe dietary management for gestational diabetes.
Q9) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q10) Pre-diabetes is the precursor to type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
17
Q11) Discuss glucose and insulin production for the fetus during pregnancy.
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Chapter 16: Diet and Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Discuss the impact of fiber on cholesterol levels.
Q2) Which of the following foods contains a high amount of cholesterol?
A)egg yolks
B)peanuts
C)soft margarine
D)olive oil
Q3) The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) plan has been shown to reduce high blood pressure. A core component of this plan is to increase consumption of fruits and vegetables. How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day are encouraged on this plan? List four potassium-rich fruits and vegetables.
Q4) James is discharged on day five, in good condition with a plan to decrease cholesterol in his diet. He returns for a checkup in 3 months to find out his cholesterol level is 625. The physician plans to order a cholesterol-lowering drug: simvastatin (Zocor) or atorvastatin (Lipitor). Research these drugs for potential food-drug interactions. Identify the interactions.
Q5) Compare and contrast primary and secondary hypertension.
Q6) How has Ed's current diet affected his condition?
Q7) Discuss the formation of plaque.
Q8) Discuss the implications of smoking for James.
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Chapter 17: Diet and Renal Disease
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Q1) Renal stones are classified according to their _____.
A)location
B)composition
C)size
D)shape
Q2) The specific amount of protein allowed in a dialysis patient's diet is calculated according to ___________.
A)BUN and creatinine
B)length of dialysis treatment
C)height and weight
D)glomerular filtration rate and weight
Q3) Which of the following are among the functions of the kidneys?
A)secrete certain hormones, dilute electrolytes
B)excrete hormones, recycle electrolytes
C)maintain volume of body fluids, dilute electrolytes
D)secrete certain hormones, excrete wastes
Q4) Why has the physician ordered Epogen®?
Q5) What are the incidence and prognosis of a kidney stone?
Q6) Describe the protein intake in clients with renal disease.
Q7) Discuss the etiology of renal diseases.
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Chapter 18: Diet and Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Celiac disease is a disorder characterized by malabsorption of virtually all nutrients and is caused by recurrent diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many cases are treated with laparoscopic surgery. After this type of surgery, what type of diet will be ordered?
Q3) Liver cells can regenerate. Why is this not true in Jessie's case?
Q4) What is a characteristic of a high-fiber diet?
A)20-30 g soluble fiber
B)30 g or more of soluble fiber
C)30 g or more of insoluble fiber
D)30 g or more of dietary fiber
Q5) Describe the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis.
Q6) Which food can cause the lower esophageal sphincter to relax?
A)milk
B)banana
C)chocolate
D)oatmeal
Q7) If Jessie develops ascites, what dietary changes will be made?
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Chapter 19: Diet and Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Lower doses of drugs are better for clients who cannot eat normally.
B)Clients on high-protein and high-calorie diets tolerate the side effects of drugs better than do other clients.
C)Weight gain is a major problem for a client with cancer.
D)A cancerous tumor causes the body to metabolize at a slower rate.
Q2) Appropriate amounts of protein-rich foods are essential for the maintenance of a healthy immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of diet is recommended for a cancer client who has chewing difficulty?
A) liquid diet
B) soft diet
C) low-residue diet
D) high-fiber diet
Q4) Discuss the nutrition-related effects of radiation treatment to the head and neck.
Q5) Anorexia is a major problem for cancer clients. List ways to encourage eating.
Q6) Describe the nutritional needs of the cancer client.
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Chapter 20: Foodborne Illness, Allergies, and Intolerances
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Q1) Compare and contrast Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium perfringens. Include source, signs and symptoms, prevention, and prognosis.
Q2) State the goal of the elimination diet and describe the process.
Q3) The toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum can be produced in sealed containers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All microorganisms in the environment are harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which bacteria can be found in milk?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q6) Which of the following could cause typhoid fever?
A)Salmonella
B)Listeria monocytogenes
C)Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 21: Nutritional Care of Clients With Special Needs
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Q1) Describe symptoms and pathology of the dumping syndrome.
Q2) Rosa has developed anemia. State causes and dietary recommendations.
Q3) Why is it recommended to clients to lose weight prior to surgery?
Q4) Bowel sounds indicate that perstalsis has returned.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the progression of a postoperative diet.
Q6) The elderly often have poor appetites, and that is a factor in the development of protein-energy malnutrition. What can the nurse do to make mealtimes more attractive?
Q7) Parenteral nutrition is the provision of nutrients via an ostomy into the stomach or jejunum.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Which vitamins, along with zinc, are essential for wound healing in surgery clients?
A)vitamins B and E
B)vitamin K and folic acid
C)vitamin D and thiamine
D)vitamins A and C
Page 24
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