Nutrition in Disease Prevention Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the critical role of nutrition in the prevention and management of chronic and infectious diseases. Students will examine the physiological, biochemical, and behavioral mechanisms through which dietary choices influence health outcomes. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based nutritional guidelines and interventions for conditions such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, obesity, and certain cancers. The course also addresses the societal and environmental factors that impact dietary behaviors, helping students to develop strategies for effective nutritional counseling and public health promotion.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
2040 Verified Questions
2040 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamins provide ____ kcalories per gram.
A) 0
B) 4
C) 7
D) 9
E) 27
Answer: A
Q2) The USDA Food Intake Patterns encourage the greatest consumption of which of the following nutrients?
A) seafood
B) fruit
C) dairy products
D) beans
E) vegetables
Answer: E
Q3) Consuming nutrient-dense foods can help control your kcalorie intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria in the GI tract perform all of the following functions except:
A) producing biotin.
B) protecting people from infection.
C) producing vitamin K.
D) breaking down fiber.
E) producing bile.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following nutrients is/are absorbed into the lymphatic system?
A) fat-soluble vitamins
B) water
C) amino acids
D) glucose
E) minerals
Answer: A
Q3) Segmentation begins when a bolus enters the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leading source of added sugars in the American diet is:
A) baked goods such as cookies and cakes.
B) fruit packed in heavy syrup.
C) soft drinks and other sugar-sweetened beverages.
D) chocolate bars and other candy treats.
E) hidden sugars, such as ketchup or sauces
Answer: C
Q2) Fructose occurs naturally in:
A) bread.
B) milk.
C) meats.
D) fruits.
E) glucose
Answer: D
Q3) Most dietary fiber provides little or no energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by saturation of a fatty acid?
Q2) atherosclerosis
A)the term used to describe fats when they have deteriorated, usually by oxidation.
B)the process of a substance combining with oxygen.
C)compounds that protect others from oxidation by being oxidized themselves.
D)a chemical process by which hydrogens are added to monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fats to reduce the number of double bonds.
E)a type of artery disease characterized by accumulations of lipid-containing material on the inner walls of the arteries.
F)a general term for all diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
G)compounds that interfere with cholesterol absorption.
H)the body's fat, which consists of masses of fat-storing cells.
Q3) Discuss the concept of "good fats" and "bad fats."
Q4) Foods that are thought of as protein-rich foods may actually contain more fat energy than protein energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vegetarian must be careful about intakes of:
A) vitamin C and vitamin A; they may be too high.
B) iron and zinc; they may be too low.
C) iron and zinc; they may be too high.
D) vitamin C and vitamin A; they may be too low.
E) vitamin B12 and iron; they may be too high.
Q2) Which of the following non-meat mixtures provides the least high-quality protein?
A) black beans and rice.
B) pasta with broccoli, peppers, and sesame seeds.
C) peanut butter and whole-wheat bread sandwich.
D) stir-fried cabbage, squash, and green peppers.
E) pad thai with tofu and eggs
Q3) Changing the shape of a protein causes which of the following to change in the protein?
A) function
B) size
C) electrical charge
D) nutritional value
E) nitrogen balance
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.
Q2) In the first few days of fasting, body protein is used primarily to:
A) rebuild tissue.
B) replace worn out cells.
C) provide glucose.
D) stabilize fluid balance.
E) provide immunity to infection.
Q3) Skinfold measurements provide an inaccurate estimate of total body fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The body metabolically recognizes the difference between fasting and starving. A)True
B)False
Q5) Which type of fat poses the greatest risk to health?
A) visceral fat
B) dietary fat
C) subcutaneous fat
D) lower body fat
E) fat accumulated due to alcohol consumption
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) A modest, sustained weight loss (3-5 percent of body weight) can have which of the following effects?
A) Improved levels of low-density and high-density lipoproteins
B) Increased risk of diabetes
C) Improved control of diabetes
D) Discontinuation of all diabetic and cardiovascular medication
E) Fat cell loss
Q2) Ghrelin is a hormone produced in the stomach that acts much like leptin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly describe the following theories for the cause of obesity: (a) fat cell development. and (b) set-point theory
Q4) An appropriate food to consume before a meal to increase one's feeling of fullness is:
A) a cup of cream of chicken soup.
B) an unbuttered roll.
C) a cup of vegetable soup.
D) a breadstick dipped in olive oil.
E) chips and salsa.
Page 9
Q5) Describe some strategies for successful weight gain.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the following, the best food sources for the water-soluble vitamins are:
A) butter and vegetable oils.
B) oranges and cereals.
C) sugar and cornstarch.
D) egg yolks and apples.
E) soy and potatoes.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of niacin?
A) It can be synthesized in the body from the amino acid tryptophan.
B) It can be used successfully to cure schizophrenia.
C) It is water soluble and therefore safe to administer in large doses.
D) It is an antioxidant.
E) A deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects.
Q3) Children with measles or measles-related infections may benefit from supplementation with:
A) vitamin C.
B) vitamin A.
C) iron.
D) folate.
E) vitamin E.
Q4) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron is important in the body because it is:
A) needed for blood clotting.
B) an integral part of bones and teeth.
C) an antioxidant.
D) an integral constituent of hemoglobin.
E) necessary for digestion of protein.
Q2) What is the minimum amount of urine the body must excrete each day to remove waste products?
A) 500 mL
B) 700 mL
C) 1000 mL
D) 2300 mL
E) 3000 mL
Q3) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q4) In order to increase the amount of iron absorbed from a meal, you would:
A) consume tea as a beverage with the meal.
B) eat a calcium-rich food with the meal.
C) consume orange juice as a beverage with a meal.
D) avoid eating foods rich in vitamin C with the meal.
E) drink plenty of coffee before each meal.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by a "critical period" during pregnancy? What is the importance of nutrition during a critical period?
Q2) A breastfeeding mother should _____.
A) feed her infant on a schedule to ensure he eats at least 8 times each day
B) allow the infant to suckle about 4 minutes on each breast
C) always offer the same breast to the infant first when feeding
D) allow the infant to suckle on the first breast offered as long as he likes
E) give the infant a small amount of water between feedings to maintain hydration
Q3) A physician has recommended that a pregnant mother take a daily multivitamin-mineral supplement to support nutrient intake during pregnancy. This type of supplement typically contains more of which elements designed for prenatal nutrition?
A) vitamins A and E
B) magnesium, zinc, and choline
C) sodium and potassium
D) folic acid, iron, and calcium
E) iron, vitamin C, and phosphorus
Q4) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Q5) Explain how energy needs change as pregnancy progresses.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acceptable total cholesterol level for a child or adolescent is _____.
A) < 120 mg/dL
B) <170 mg/dL
C) 170-199 mg/dL
D) 200-239 mg/dL
E) >240 mg/dL
Q2) Which food is a common source of vitamin D among children, which Bobby could incorporate into his own diet?
A) Cereal
B) Yogurt
C) Chicken
D) Bananas
E) Sherbet
Q3) Vegan diets for children must be planned carefully because otherwise they may not provide enough _____.
A) protein
B) fiber
C) kcalories
D) sodium
E) fat
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Older adults can safely participate in aerobic activity and resistance training until age 85, when the risk of injury from activity is greater than its benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Severe fat restriction among older adults may lead to _____.
A) nutrient deficiencies
B) weight gain
C) greater risk of cancer
D) dehydration
E) muscle injuries
Q3) Intake of what substance has been shown to reduce the risk of progression of macular degeneration among those who already have the disease?
A) Vitamin D
B) Calcium
C) Vitamin E
D) Zinc
E) Iron
Q4) Discuss ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
Page 14
Q5) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) nutrition care process
Q2) Weight gain due to fluid retention in a patient with liver cirrhosis can mask symptoms of _____.
A) liver failure
B) PEM
C) obesity
D) gallbladder disease
E) heart failure
Q3) For an adult's height to be accurately measured, the person should _____.
A) stand with the feet together
B) stand erect with shoes
C) stand with the feet slightly apart
D) stand 2" away from the wall
E) stand erect without shoes
Q4) One example of a single-gene disorder would be _____.
A) diabetes
B) hypertension
C) hemochromatosis
D) hyperlipidemia
E) obesity
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What food would most likely be eliminated in a low-fiber diet?
A) Dried beans and peas
B) White bread
C) Canned fruit
D) Milk
E) Tomatoes
Q2) Medications can cause nutrient malabsorption when they damage the intestinal mucosa or upset gastrointestinal function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diets for dysphagia are highly individualized because _____.
A) there is more than one definition of dysphagia
B) dysphagia can occur due to a number of different causes
C) patient's differ in their nutritional needs
D) they require counseling by a dietitian prior to implementation
E) swallowing difficulties vary in severity
Q4) Once nutrition problems have been diagnosed, the nurse identifies expected outcomes to correct the problems.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "12 French" feeding tube has a diameter of _____.
A) 2 mm
B) 4 mm
C) 6 mm
D) 8 mm
E) 12 mm
Q2) Rapid changes in infusion rates of a parenteral solution can cause _____.
A) fluctuations in blood glucose levels
B) diarrhea
C) obstructions
D) infection
E) a clogged IV tube
Q3) When a patient receives enteral nutrition through tube feedings, they cannot eat food.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Highly concentrated nutrient solutions are not suitable for peripheral parenteral nutrition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a patient who is suffering from acute illness and metabolic stress, how would clinicians best estimate protein and energy needs?
A) Adjust nutrient intakes according to patient responses
B) Underfeed the patient to minimize tissue loss
C) Maintain the patient at NPO status to promote bowel rest
D) Overfeed the patient to prevent hypoglycemia
E) Increase carbohydrate intake to promote weight gain and appropriate energy use
Q2) The high nutrient requirements of acutely stressed patients often require a patient to be fed via the enteral or parenteral route to meet his or her nutritional needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the reduction in blood flow from inflammation is severe enough to deprive the body's tissues of oxygen and nutrients, SIRS can result.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the metabolic effects of corticosteroid drugs.
Q5) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is known as a potential cause of esophageal dysphagia?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Scleroderma
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Muscular dystrophy
Q2) A patient with oropharyngeal dysphagia would most likely demonstrate which symptom?
A) A gurgling noise after swallowing
B) Bad breath
C) Gum ulcerations
D) Heartburn
E) Abdominal distention
Q3) A major factor associated in the development of both gastritis and peptic ulcer disease is _____.
A) infection with H. pylori
B) stress
C) overeating
D) cigarette smoking
E) decreased physical activity
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A side effect of consuming a high-fiber diet is _____.
A) flatulence
B) watery stools
C) bacterial overgrowth
D) constipation
E) hemorrhoids
Q2) Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of _____.
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) diverticular disease
C) infectious diarrhea
D) Crohn's disease
E) peptic ulcer disease
Q3) Daily exercise has been proven to cure constipation by stimulating peristalsis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A high-fiber diet increases stool weight and fecal water content.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important consideration in the diet of a patient with esophageal varices is to provide a _____.
A) soft diet
B) clear liquid diet
C) low-protein diet
D) high-fat diet
E) high kcalorie, high-protein diet
Q2) A patient with liver disease is having laboratory testing. The nurse understands that the normal range of albumin would be _____.
A) 0.3-1.2 g/dL
B) 3.4-4.8 g/dL
C) 11-15 g/dL
D) 10-30 g/dL
E) 15-45 g/dL
Q3) Protein and energy requirements are increased after transplantation due to the stress of surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ascites
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the blood and the urine can be checked for the presence of ketones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a symptom of diabetes mellitus?
A) High blood pressure
B) Blurred vision
C) Edema
D) Mouth sores
E) Hair loss
Q3) Prediabetes is diagnosed when a person has a fasting blood glucose level that falls between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What recommendation to help Mr. Joiner reduce his risk of developing diabetes is most likely to be effective?
A) "Lose about 20 percent of your current body weight."
B) "Increase your physical activity."
C) "Choose low-sodium foods at restaurants."
D) "Learn to cook."
E) "Try to decrease your waist measurement by 6 inches."
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac cachexia associated with heart failure most often develops due to increased levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines and an elevated metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many diet-related major risk factors for coronary heart disease does Mrs. Winslow have?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Deprivation of oxygen and nutrients to the heart can cause a myocardial infarction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ischemia refers to a deficiency of blood and oxygen delivery to the tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how disabilities can impair a person's ability to eat.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although renal patients are often encouraged to consume high-fat foods to improve their energy intakes, the foods they select should provide mostly unsaturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is _____
A) diabetes
B) infection
C) a genetic disorder
D) inflammation
E) peripheral vascular disease
Q3) One potential complication of hemodialysis is _____.
A) blood clots
B) insomnia
C) edema
D) hemochromatosis
E) hypertension
Q4) Describe special dietary considerations for a patient who has had a kidney transplant.
Q5) Describe the potential consequences that can develop with nephrotic syndrome.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is classified as an AIDS-defining illness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The symptoms that Ms. Arther is experiencing are consistent with _____.
A) radiation enteritis
B) tissue rejection
C) steatorrhea
D) lipodystrophy
E) negative nitrogen balance
Q3) Because of her symptoms, Ms. Arther is at risk for what complication?
A) A fistula
B) Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Dysphagia
E) Hemorrhage
Q4) Because of the availability of advance directives, over 80 percent of people in the United States have completed one.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Page 25
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