Nutrition for Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Nutrition for Nursing introduces the fundamental concepts of nutrition and their direct application to nursing practice. This course examines the role of nutrients in health promotion, disease prevention, and patient recovery across the lifespan. Students will explore the assessment of nutritional status, dietary modifications for various medical conditions, and strategies for patient education. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based recommendations, cultural competency in dietary practices, and the nurse's role in multidisciplinary care teams to optimize patient outcomes through nutrition.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition An Applied Approach 5th Edition by Janice J. Thompson
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1904 Verified Questions
1904 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Nutrition: Linking Food and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the second half of the twentieth century,nutrition researchers began to study the links between nutrition and the development of chronic diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Poor nutrition is strongly associated with three chronic diseases that fall within the group of top ten causes of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The term nutritionist has no precise definition or laws regulating it.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The energy derived from food is expressed in units called kilocalories. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Designing a Healthful Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a key recommendation of the USDA Food Patterns?
A) Make all your grains whole grains.
B) Eat 5 to 9 servings of vegetables a day.
C) Drink milk.
D) Go lean with protein.
Answer: D
Q2) Since 1990,food labels have been required on all fresh meat and poultry.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Including fiber in your diet is beneficial to your GI tract,but consuming excessive amounts of fiber can result in the loss of nutrients.This statement is an example of which of the characteristics of a healthful diet?
A) adequacy
B) nutrient density
C) variety
D) moderation
Answer: D
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is known as a "hunger hormone"?
A) progesterone
B) testosterone
C) CCK
D) ghrelin
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an example of the central nervous system's role in digestion?
A) Chewing a piece of mango initiates mechanical digestion.
B) The aroma of grilled foods triggers salivary cells to stimulate the salivary glands.
C) Swallowing a bolus of food triggers peristalsis.
D) Salivary amylase begins the digestion of the carbohydrates in a turkey sandwich.
Answer: B
Q3) Often called the cell's powerhouse,the ribosome produces the energy molecule ATP from basic food components.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates: Plant-Derived Energy Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diets high in added sugars are associated with tooth decay and gum disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals with the disease phenylketonuria (PKU)should NOT consume the alternative sweetener aspartame.Why?
A) People with PKU are highly prone to development of diabetes.
B) People with PKU are allergic to the sweetener.
C) People with PKU experience severe headaches when they consume aspartame.
D) People with PKU cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.
Q3) Foods in which nutrients are added that did not originally exist in that food are known as
A) enriched.
B) fortified.
C) genetically modified.
D) processed.
Q4) What is the major monosaccharide found in the body?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) glycogen
6
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Chapter 5: Fats: Essential Energy-Supplying Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vast majority of fat digestion and absorption occurs in the A) stomach.
B) liver.
C) small intestine.
D) large intestine.
Q2) The human body cannot make cholesterol; thus,it is an essential nutrient we must consume in our diet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Your risk for cardiovascular disease is increased if you consume a diet high in
A) linoleic acid.
B) EPA and DHA.
C) trans fatty acids.
D) essential fatty acids.
Q4) What is the daily recommended intake of saturated fat?
A) as little as possible
B) less than 5% of total energy intake
C) less than 10% of total energy intake
D) between 20 and 35% of total energy intake
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Crucial Components of All Body
Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most Americans consume sufficient or excess amounts of dietary protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the health benefits associated with becoming a vegetarian.
Q3) Which of the following proteins are critical to the body's defense against bacteria and viruses?
A) enzymes
B) antibodies
C) buffers
D) transport proteins
Q4) A vegan stew served with brown rice can provide more protein than a beef stew served with a dinner roll.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As compared to the consumption of the same number of Calories in plant proteins,the production of beef releases more
A) water.
B) acid rain.
C) methane.
D) smog.
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Chapter 7: Nutrients Involved in Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) After completing a 10K run,Bonita notices that her urine is brown and similar to the color of cola.What does this indicate about Bonita's hydration status?
A) She is well hydrated.
B) She may be inadequately hydrated and needs to replace fluids.
C) She is suffering from severe dehydration and needs treatment immediately.
D) The color of urine is not a reliable indicator of hydration status.
Q2) When solute concentrations are equal on both sides of the cell membrane,osmosis begins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sodium and chloride are the predominant electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the conditions and the related symptoms associated with consuming excessive amounts of sodium and potassium.Inadequate intakes of these major minerals can cause problems as well.Describe the conditions and related symptoms associated with too little sodium and potassium intake.
Q5) Describe four primary roles that water plays in the proper functioning of the body.
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Chapter 8: Nutrients Essential to Key Body Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) High concentrations of homocysteine in the blood are associated with the development of
A) type 2 diabetes.
B) cardiovascular disease.
C) neural tube defects.
D) pellagra.
Q2) Explain the link between the increasing worldwide adoption of the practice of iodization of table salt and the decreasing worldwide prevalence of goiter and cretinism.
Q3) Insufficient folate during fetal development causes the type of mental impairment known as cretinism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carotenoids are better absorbed from cooked foods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how vitamin A affects growth,reproduction,and cell differentiation.
Q6) Cheri has been trying to conceive for the past three months.Explain why Cheri should be especially careful to consume adequate folate.
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Chapter 9: Nutrients Essential to Healthy Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are two fat-soluble vitamins that humans obtain from non-dietary sources?
A) A and C
B) A and E
C) D and K
D) niacin and thiamin
Q2) In the body,vitamin D is essential for
A) blood clotting.
B) calcification of bone.
C) muscle contraction.
D) stimulation of nerve impulses.
Q3) Found in meat,poultry,and fish,the meat factor
A) enhances absorption of non-heme iron.
B) enhances absorption of heme iron.
C) enhances absorption of vitamin C.
D) enhances absorption of folate by the mother during pregnancy.
Q4) As bone resorption begins to occur more frequently than bone formation,adults tend to lose height.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Achieving and Maintaining a Healthful Body Weight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basal metabolic rate accounts for the majority of our total energy output each day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Miguel weighs 250 pounds and is trying to lose weight.He decides to start an exercise program and starts walking (2 mph)for 30 minutes,five days a week.This activity burns 0.044 kcal/kg body weight/minute.How many additional kilocalories will Miguel burn each week with this exercise regime?
A) 290
B) 560
C) 750
D) 980
Q3) Scott wants to begin a weight-loss program.What specific and practical suggestions can you give him to reduce his energy intake?
Q4) BMI is a measurement used to determine a person's body composition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe four methods that are commonly used to determine body composition.What are the strengths and limitations of each?
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity: Keys to Good Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does the body experience the highest rates of glycogen storage?
A) 8 hours prior to exercise
B) during high-intensity exercise
C) 4 to 6 hours after exercise
D) 24 hours after exercise
Q2) Ephedrine is a synthetic opioid marketed to reduce pain during intensive workouts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Marco wants to improve his cardiorespiratory fitness.Which type of activity would be the MOST effective to achieve this goal?
A) weight lifting every other day
B) yoga four times a week
C) resistance training three times a week
D) swimming three times a week
Q4) Which of the following BEST describes exercise?
A) any movement produced by muscles that increases energy expenditure
B) maximal force or tension level that can be produced by a muscle group
C) leisure physical activity that is purposeful, planned, and structured
D) ability to move a joint fluidly through the complete range of motion
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a species of bacteria responsible for the greatest number of deaths from foodborne illness?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Toxoplasma gondii
C) E. coli
D) Salmonella
Q2) The U.S.has no labeling requirements for products containing genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The production of genetically modified crops and food animals is one of the most controversial issues in nutrition today.List and discuss three advantages and three disadvantages of GM foods.
Q4) Which of the following is used as an antioxidant in many foods?
A) vitamin C
B) cornstarch
C) caramel
D) nitrate
Page 14
Q5) Explain what you are buying when you buy certified organic foods.
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Challenge of Good Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goals of the recent "food movement" include
A) developing high-yield varieties of grains and new fertilizers and pesticides.
B) subsidizing grain crops and increasing centralization of food production.
C) protecting the environment and reducing food supply monopolies.
D) producing more genetically modified crops and providing financial incentives for corporate farmers.
Q2) Hunger is most prevalent in
A) sub-Saharan Africa.
B) China.
C) the Middle East.
D) Southeast Asia.
Q3) Cassandra works as a waitress at a diner.She typically brings home about $45/week in tips.In many states,her employer is allowed to pay her A) no hourly wage.
B) just $2.13 an hour.
C) 50% of the state minimum wage.
D) 20% less than the federal minimum wage.
Q4) Identify at least four benefits of purchasing locally grown foods.Are local foods always the best choice for the environment? Why or why not?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Through the Lifecycle: Pregnancy and the
First Year of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal-weight woman should gain approximately how many pounds during pregnancy?
A) 5 to 10
B) 15 to 20
C) 25 to 35
D) 40 to 50
Q2) Which of the following foods is LEAST likely to be contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes?
A) bologna
B) smoked salmon
C) a hard-boiled egg
D) raw sprouts
Q3) Caffeine consumed during pregnancy crosses the placenta and reaches the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Embryonic/fetal demand for iron is highest during the A) first eight weeks of gestation.
B) first trimester.
C) second trimester.
D) third trimester.
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Chapter 15: Nutrition Through the Lifecycle: Childhood to
Late Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluid needs of adolescents are higher than those of children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An adequate consumption of fats,especially AA and DHA,during the toddler years is especially important for the development of which system?
A) digestive
B) nervous
C) skeletal
D) cardiovascular
Q3) Identify the level of protein intake that some nutrition researchers are advocating for older adults and explain the important roles of adequate protein in this population group.
Q4) The RDA for protein for adolescents is
A) 0.8 g/kg of body weight, the same as for adults.
B) 0.85 g/kg of body weight, slightly higher than the RDA for adults.
C) 1.0 g/kg of body weight, significantly higher than the RDA for adults.
D) There is no RDA for protein.
Q5) Reduced-fat milk should not be given to children until the age of 2.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: New Frontiers in Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic to fight an infection also helps to boost the healthful bacteria in our microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cottage cheese to which the food manufacturer has added inulin is an example of a
A) processed probiotic food.
B) processed prebiotic food.
C) whole probiotic food.
D) whole functional food.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE of phytochemicals?
A) They are nutrients.
B) They are found in foods derived from both animals and plants.
C) They are most beneficial when consumed in supplements.
D) They are thought to benefit our health by stressing our cells.
Q4) Probiotics contribute to human health by improving the balance of healthful bacteria in the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Healthful Eating Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Mediterranean diet is defined as the diet of Italians and Greeks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following choices would be at home on the Harvard School of Public Health's Healthy Eating Plate?
A) a baked potato
B) French fries
C) nuts
D) a croissant
Q3) The Healthy Eating Plate is vegetarian but not vegan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements describes the Mediterranean-style diet?
A) Red meat is consumed only monthly.
B) Cheese is consumed only weekly.
C) Beans and other legumes are consumed every 2 to 3 days.
D) The major fat used for cooking and flavor is butter.
Q5) The alcohol you consume is not considered part of your overall eating pattern.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Disorders Related to Specific Foods
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Q1) In the United States,how many foods account for over 90 percent of all documented food allergies?
A) 3
B) 8
C) 20
D) 160
Q2) Wheat is the only grain that people with celiac disease have to carefully avoid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following typically occurs when people who are lactose intolerant consume dairy foods?
A) headache
B) joint pain
C) constipation
D) intestinal gas
Q4) Food allergies
A) are more common than food intolerances.
B) cause over 15,000 deaths in the United States each year.
C) always trigger systemic inflammation.
D) can be clinically diagnosed with a skin test or a blood test.
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Chapter 19: Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes is the 4th leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following strategies has been associated in recent research with a reduced risk for type 2 diabetes?
A) moderate caffeine consumption
B) consumption of insulin-containing dietary supplements
C) increased intake of processed carbohydrates
D) reduced intake of red meat
Q3) Insulin cannot be taken orally.Why not?
A) Insulin is a protein and would be broken down by the human digestive tract if taken orally.
B) Oral insulin has been shown to lead to the development of severe peptic ulcers.
C) Oral insulin does not control blood glucose levels in a consistent manner and is therefore very unreliable.
D) Oral insulin takes too long to work in the body and is therefore ineffective in lowering blood glucose levels.
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
A) age
B) gender
C) being overweight
D) family history
Q2) Josiah was just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes,which means that he is now also at increased risk for developing cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a reduction in dietary sodium intake to how many mg per day?
A) less than 1,500
B) less than 2,300
C) less than 3,300
D) less than 3,600
Q4) Obesity increases the risk for inflammation,and inflammation increases the risk for cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Vitamins and Minerals: Micronutrients With
Macro Powers
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Q1) Which of the following,found in high-fiber foods,inhibits the absorption of iron and zinc?
A) heme
B) oxalic acid
C) phenol
D) pyridoxine
Q2) What is the only water-soluble vitamin that can be stored in large amounts in the human body?
A) thiamin
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
Q3) The human body can synthesize small amounts of which two fat-soluble vitamins?
A) vitamin B and vitamin C
B) vitamin D and vitamin K
C) vitamin E and vitamin A
D) thiamin and niacin
Q4) Protein is more efficiently absorbed by the body than iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women absorb a greater percentage of a given alcohol intake as compared to men of the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The need to drink larger and larger amounts of alcohol to get the equivalent pleasurable sensations associated with alcohol intake is referred to as A) craving.
B) tolerance.
C) dependence.
D) bingeing.
Q3) Whereas the damage that occurs in fatty liver is reversible,the damage that occurs in alcoholic hepatitis is never reversible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alcohol poisoning is characterized by depression of the respiratory center of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) All cancers caused by tobacco use
A) are fatal.
B) involve the lungs or other organs or tissues of the respiratory system.
C) are preventable.
D) quickly metastasize.
Q2) Pancreatic cancer has received a great deal of attention in recent years because
A) it has the highest mortality rate of any cancer.
B) nearly 50% of pancreatic cancer patients die within 5 years of diagnosis.
C) prevalence of pancreatic cancer has doubled over the last decade.
D) pancreatic cancer mortality rates have been increasing over the last decade.
Q3) Unexplained weight loss indicates that a person has cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order,the cancers with the highest mortality rates in the United States are lung cancer and colon cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Approximately half of all cancers are strongly hereditary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Osteoporosis
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Q1) Hormone replacement therapy can reduce the risk for hip and spinal fractures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does NOT increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?
A) smoking
B) moderate alcohol consumption
C) low dietary intake of calcium
D) sedentary lifestyle
Q3) Which of the following medications used in treating bone loss is a pharmacologic preparation of a hormone produced by the thyroid gland?
A) selective estrogen receptor modulators
B) calcitonin
C) teriparatide
D) bisphosphonates
Q4) All other factors being equal,an individual who is obese has a lower risk for osteoporosis than a person who is underweight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Obesity
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Q1) Which of the following factors exemplifies the role of the food environment in influencing the risk for obesity?
A) Many public schools in the United States have reduced or entirely eliminated classes in physical education.
B) Genetic drift means that many people have inherited genes that promote higher levels of body fat.
C) Government subsidies keep the price of corn chips below the cost of strawberries.
D) Children who are obese are at a much higher risk for bullying than children of normal weight.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for metabolic syndrome?
A) abdominal obesity
B) low triglyceride levels
C) higher-than-normal blood pressure
D) fasting blood glucose level higher than 100 mg/dL
Q3) Self-esteem is thought to influence obesity risk.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Disorders Related to Body Image, Eating, and Exercise
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Q1) What is the range of expected weight gain for stable hospital patients with anorexia nervosa?
A) up to 1 pound per week
B) 2 to 3 pounds per week
C) 3 to 4 pounds per week
D) at least 5 pounds per week
Q2) Which of the following BEST explains why adolescents are more vulnerable to the unrealistic media images of the "perfect body" than are adults?
A) The images target young people.
B) Adolescents cannot comprehend the objective of advertisements.
C) Adolescents are still developing a sense of their identity.
D) Adolescents cannot control their environment in the way adults can.
Q3) Establishing structured eating behaviors can help someone with an eating disorder to maintain a healthful body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) More women die from anorexia nervosa than die from bulimia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Safety and Effectiveness of Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Taking supplements will increase your energy level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are currently no federal guidelines or practices to ensure the purity,quality,safety,and composition of dietary supplements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be an effective strategy to follow when trying to evaluate the safety and quality of a particular supplement?
A) Look for the Pharmacopoeia (U.S.P.) Verified Mark on the label.
B) Buy nationally recognized brands.
C) Purchase products labeled "natural."
D) Contact the company to request additional information.
Q4) A healthcare provider would MOST likely prescribe which of the following supplements for a vegan?
A) vitamins K, D, and E, and iron
B) folic acid, copper, and chromium
C) riboflavin, vitamin B12, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and zinc
D) B vitamins, omega-3 fatty acids, and certain herbs
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Malnutrition
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Q1) Undernourished people are more prone to infections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors BEST characterize a transitioning region in which the nutrition paradox is common?
A) increased availability of and preference for foods high in added sugars
B) decreased reliance on carbohydrates combined with increased reliance on protein
C) increased physical activity combined with decreased availability of staple foods
D) decreased physical activity combined with increased intake of energy-dense food
Q3) Wasting is a condition characterized by
A) decreased Caloric intake.
B) short-stature-for-age.
C) extreme thinness.
D) nutrient overload.
Q4) Some research suggests that obesity is more common among low-income populations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: The Fetal Environment
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Q1) Research suggests that there are lifelong consequences to any type of nutrient imbalance during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research has found no association between fetal exposure to overnutrition and future disease risk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the earliest evidence for the fetal origins theory came from
A) France.
B) South Africa.
C) Japan.
D) the Netherlands.
Q4) Low vitamin D status in pregnant women increases the risk of low bone density in their children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Searching for the Fountain of Youth
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43077
Sample Questions
Q1) Research suggests that intermittent fasting and alternate-day fasting produce beneficial metabolic changes similar to those of Calorie restriction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC),which of the following health habits does NOT promote increased longevity?
A) never smoking
B) restricting sleep to no more than 7 hours a night
C) engaging in adequate amounts of regular physical activity
D) maintaining a healthful weight and body composition
Q3) Which of the following has been linked to human growth hormone (HGH)supplements?
A) joint and muscle pain
B) increased longevity
C) lower blood cholesterol levels
D) reduction in risk of type 2 diabetes
Q4) Most of the members of the Caloric Restriction Society and the CRONies are males.
A)True
B)False
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