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Nutrition for Health Professions provides an in-depth understanding of the fundamental principles of human nutrition and their application to health care practice. This course explores the role of nutrients in the body, the impact of diet on disease prevention and management, and the nutritional needs across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based dietary recommendations, the relationship between nutrition and chronic conditions, as well as practical strategies for patient counseling and promoting healthy eating habits in diverse populations. Students will gain critical skills to assess nutritional status and integrate nutritional considerations into professional healthcare decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Wardlaws Perspectives in Nutrition 9th Edition by Carol Byrd Bredbenner
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Q1) An example of anthropometric assessment is
A) analyzing compounds in the blood.
B) assessing the ability to walk.
C) measuring skinfold thickness.
D) taking a medical history.
Answer: C
Q2) When body systems are operating normally and nutrient stores are being maintained,an individual is said to be
A) in optimal nutritional status.
B) in a state of overnutrition.
C) experiencing undernutrition.
D) experiencing malnutrition.
Answer: A
Q3) Which nutrients are organic compounds?
A) water and carbohydrates
B) carbohydrates and protein
C) fats and minerals
D) water and minerals
Answer: B
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Q1) Food components that must be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel include
A) sugars, dietary fiber, and fluoride.
B) sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.
C) sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat.
D) sugars, calcium, and B-vitamins.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is true about the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)?
A) They apply to people in Canada and the U.S.
B) They differ by age group.
C) They include Recommended Dietary Allowances and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels.
D) They were created by the Food and Nutrition Board.
E) All of these responses are true.
Answer: E
Q3) What counts as a cup in the dairy group?
A) 1 cup of ice cream
B) 1 cup of yogurt
C) 1 cup of cottage cheese
D) 1 cup grated cheese
Answer: B
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Q1) The dangerous aflatoxin is most likely to be found in
A) moldy cheese and bread.
B) spoiled fruits and vegetables.
C) moldy peanuts and corn.
D) All of the responses are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The most common application of genetic engineering of foods is to
A) produce meat with a lower fat content.
B) confer resistance to pesticides applied to kill weeds and insects.
C) improve vitamin A content of foods.
D) reduce the need for irrigation of crops.
Answer: B
Q3) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)benefits
A) only low-income women, infants, and children.
B) poor households that meet eligibility guidelines.
C) food banks and pantries in communities across the country.
D) seniors in adult day-care settings.
Answer: B
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Q1) List the major substances absorbed in the stomach,small intestine,and large intestine.
Q2) The secretions of the gallbladder,liver,and pancreas enter the A) ileum, by way of a common duct.
B) duodenum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi.
C) stomach, by way of a common duct.
D) jejunum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi.
Q3) Celiac disease is best treated by A) medication prescribed by a physician.
B) a high-fiber diet.
C) a gluten-free diet.
D) an allergen-free diet.
Q4) An example of a probiotic is
A) bacteria in yogurt.
B) fiber in whole wheat bread.
C) calcium in milk.
D) digestible carbohydrates in bananas.
Q5) Outline the interactions between key hormones,enzymes,and nutrient digestion.
Q6) A person with a bad cold reports not being able to "taste" anything.Explain what has happened.
Page 6
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Q1) Which of the following is classified as a non-nutritive sweetener?
A) sorbitol
B) honey
C) aspartame
D) mannitol
Q2) Glucose,galactose,and fructose
A) are disaccharides.
B) are soluble fibers.
C) are monosaccharides.
D) are polysaccharides.
Q3) The focus on low-glycemic load foods can aid in the control of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Raffinose and stachyose are examples of polysaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does the term "functional fiber" mean?
Q6) Name 3 typical symptoms of type 1 diabetes.
Q7) List 3 examples of non-nutritive sweeteners.
Q8) Name 3 health benefits derived from increased dietary fiber intake.
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Q1) In what form is most body fat stored?
A) cholesterol.
B) phospholipids.
C) triglycerides.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) How do antioxidants reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?
Q3) What is the role of bile acids in the digestion of lipids?
Q4) Monounsaturated fatty acids
A) are liquid at room temperature.
B) have one double bond in the fatty acid chain.
C) lower cholesterol.
D) All of these responses are correct.
Q5) Americans eat more omega-3 fatty acids than omega-6 fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Plants contain cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Compare and contrast the typical American diet to the Mediterranean diet.
Q8) What is the role of bile acids in the digestion of lipids?
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Q1) When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein,the proteins are called
A) nonessential proteins.
B) complementary proteins.
C) conditional proteins.
D) corrected proteins.
Q2) For the average North American,protein needs can be easily met through our typical diets without the need for supplementation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vegetarian diets are most often low in calcium,vitamin D,vitamin B-12,iron,and zinc.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are high-protein diets potentially harmful?
Q5) High-protein diets are often associated with increased intake of saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Excessive alcohol intake can lead to deficiencies of niacin,thiamin,vitamin B-6,vitamin B-12,and folate
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because alcohol cannot be stored in the body,it has priority in metabolism over other energy sources.
A)True B)False
Q3) An 80-proof vodka or gin is 80% alcohol.
A)True B)False
Q4) Alcohol absorption occurs in the A) stomach.
B) small intestine.
C) esophagus.
D) stomach and small intestine.
Q5) Compared with men,women produce more alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme in the stomach.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In which compartment of the cell do Krebs cycle and fatty acid oxidation take place?
A) cell membrane.
B) mitochondria.
C) nucleus.
D) cytosol.
Q2) Catabolic metabolism refers to pathways that break down compounds to smaller,simpler units.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is reversible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Before protein becomes an energy source,the _________ must be removed from the molecule.
A) COOH
B) CH<sub>3</sub>
C) NH<sub>2</sub>
D) CO<sub>2</sub>
Q5) Explain the meaning of the phrase: "fat burns in the flame of carbohydrates."
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Q1) A weight-loss program is probably a fad diet if it
A) recommends expensive nutrient supplements.
B) uses testimonials from famous people to promote the diet.
C) promotes quick weight loss.
D) guarantees weight-loss success for everyone.
E) All of these choices are accurate.
Q2) Identical twins raised in different environments tend to have different weight gain patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eating disorders frequently co-occur with which of the following psychological disorders?
A) depression
B) substance abuse
C) anxiety disorders
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q4) Exercise leads to development of more lean tissue,which reduces basal metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Lactate is an important fuel for
A) liver tissue.
B) brain tissue.
C) heart muscle tissue.
D) nerve tissue.
Q2) Restoration of muscle glycogen occurs when _____ grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight are consumed 30 minutes after exercise and again 2 hours after exercise.
A) 0.5 - 0.75
B) 1.0 - 1.5
C) 3.0 - 4.0
D) None of these responses are correct.
Q3) Exercise should be fun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucose is stored in muscle tissue as
A) triglycerides.
B) glycogen.
C) protein.
D) phosphocreatine (PCr).
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Q1) Vitamin K adds carbon dioxide to glutamic acid to promote A) muscle contraction.
B) blood clotting.
C) glucose homeostasis.
D) red blood cell formation.
Q2) A derivative of vitamin A,13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane),is used to
A) prevent xerophthalmia.
B) treat serious cases of acne.
C) treat hypercarotenemia.
D) prevent skin cancer.
Q3) Some scientists believe that vitamin D recommendation should be much higher than currently set.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rhodopsin,the visual pigment in the retina of the eye,is regenerated when opsin combines with
A) retinoic acid.
B) 11-cis retinal.
C) 13-cis-retinol.
D) beta-carotene.
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Q1) Which group of individuals has the highest requirement for folate?
A) infants
B) adolescent males
C) pregnant women
D) the elderly
Q2) Megaloblastic anemia develops as a result of deficiencies of ________ and _____.
A) thiamin; riboflavin.
B) vitamin B-6; folate.
C) folate; vitamin B-12.
D) vitamin K; folate.
E) All of these choices are accurate.
Q3) The primary function of vitamin C in cellular metabolism is to
A) synthesize collagen.
B) add hydroxyl groups to the amino acid proline.
C) act as nonspecific reducing agent (electron donor).
D) maintain iron in its reduced form in the formation of collagen.
Q4) Describe why good folate status is especially important for young women.
Q5) Describe the symptoms of thiamin deficiency.
Q6) Discuss the roles of thiamin,riboflavin,niacin,and pantothenic acid in energy metabolism.
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Q1) The force that develops when two solutions,each with a different concentration of solutes,are separated by a semipermeable membrane is
A) systolic pressure.
B) diastolic pressure.
C) osmotic pressure.
D) atmospheric pressure.
Q2) Some North Americans are called "sodium sensitive." For these people,high sodium intake contributes to A) stomach cancer.
B) hypertension.
C) gastrointestinal upsets.
D) serious fluid imbalances.
Q3) The more dense a bone is,the more brittle it will be.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Too much dietary sodium,rather than too little dietary sodium,is a major nutritional problem today.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following factors increases iron absorption?
A) high intakes of zinc
B) high stores of iron
C) low gastric acidity
D) increased need for iron
Q2) The richest sources of iron in the diet are
A) fruits and vegetables.
B) nuts and seeds.
C) meats and seafood.
D) breads and pastries.
Q3) Which of the following has been associated with a decreased risk of cancer?
A) low intakes of calcium
B) high intakes of nitrates
C) adequate intake of vitamin D
D) low intakes of lycopene
Q4) What trace mineral toxicity causes tooth mottling?
Q5) List 3 functions of iron in the body.
Q6) The ultratrace mineral boron does not yet have an established UL.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Compared to pregnancy,the RDA for nutrients changes during lactation
A) only for energy.
B) only for protein and energy.
C) for many nutrients, but not proportionately.
D) None of these responses are correct; nutrient needs during lactation are the same as during pregnancy.
Q2) A developing offspring's cells have separated into a stack of 3 layers (mesoderm,endoderm,and ectoderm)when the zygote stage ends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Poor maternal nutrient intakes are linked with low birth weights.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The placenta's size and ability to support fetal growth depend on the mother's nutritional status.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to present day growth charts,an infant will double its birth weight at about ________ months of age and will triple its birth weight at about ________ months.
A) 4 to 6; 12
B) 2 to 3; 6
C) 10; 12 to 18
D) 12; 18
Q2) How can you tell a breastfed infant is receiving adequate nourishment?
A) The infant has 6 or more wet diapers daily.
B) Weight gain is normal.
C) The infant has 1 to 2 bowel movements daily that look like lumpy mustard.
D) All of these answers are correct.
Q3) Substance use can negatively affect teenagers' diets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the U.S.,infant formula standards are set to match the nutrient composition of human milk as closely as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why should leftover formula always be discarded?
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Q1) In complementary and alternative medicine,a manipulative practice is A) massage.
B) Reiki therapy.
C) chiropractic manipulation.
D) All of these examples are correct.
E) None of these examples are correct.
Q2) Which determines the rate of aging?
A) Genetics
B) Lifestyle
C) Environment
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q3) Many elderly people avoid social contact because they
A) are experiencing hearing loss.
B) have trouble seeing, so they avoid going out.
C) have problems with urinary incontinence.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q4) During adulthood,nutrients are used primarily
A) to maintain the body.
B) to support physical growth.
C) to maintain the body and support physical growth.
Page 20
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