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Nutrition for Health Professions Exam Preparation Guide - 2299 Verified Questions

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Nutrition for Health Professions Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Nutrition for Health Professions provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles of nutrition and their application to health promotion and disease prevention. This course emphasizes the role of nutrients, dietary guidelines, and eating patterns in maintaining health across the lifespan, as well as the assessment of nutritional status. Students will explore the relationship between nutrition and chronic diseases, such as obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and cancer. Through case studies and evidence-based practice, future health professionals will develop the skills to translate nutritional science into effective patient education and counseling within diverse clinical settings.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney

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20 Chapters

2299 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: An Overview of Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the national trends of food consumption over the past 40 years.

Answer: We eat more meals away from home, particularly at fast-food restaurants. We eat larger portions. We drink more sweetened beverages and eat more energy-dense, nutrient-poor foods such as candy and chips. We snack frequently. As a result of these dietary habits, our energy intake has risen and, consequently, so has the incidence of overweight and obesity. Overweight and obesity, in turn, profoundly influence our health.

Q2) The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the

A)Adequate Intake.

B)Daily Recommended Value.

C)Tolerable Upper Intake Level.

D)Recommended Dietary Allowance.

E)Necessary and Sufficient Intake

Answer: D

Q3) Risk factors for chronic disease tend to ____________________ and tend to ____________________.

Answer: persist; cluster cluster; persist

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3

Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet

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Sample Questions

Q1) A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a

A)nutrient claim

B)health claim

C)weight reduction claim

D)structure-function claim

E)research-based claim

Answer: A

Q2) Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the ____.

A)bran

B)husk

C)germ

D)endosperm

E)heart

Answer: B

Q3) Diet-planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat, and protein are called ____________________.

Answer: exchange lists

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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement describes a feature of irritable bowel syndrome?

A)Abdominal discomfort is usually mild.

B)Effective treatment includes peppermint oil.

C)Constipation rather than diarrhea is the major adverse effect.

D)A combination of stress plus certain foods is needed to trigger an attack.

E)It is an autoimmune disease.

Answer: B

Q2) What is the most metabolically active organ?

A)Liver

B)Spleen

C)Stomach

D)Pancreas

E)Brain

Answer: A

Q3) The medical term for the disorder that occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter allows the stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus is

Answer: gastroesophageal reflux

Q4) One of the major causes of ulcers is infection with ____________________.

Answer: Helicobacter pylori or H. pylori

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Chapter 4: The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches, and Fibers

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true of lactose?

A)Its digestion begins in the mouth.

B)It is found in various amounts in most animal foods.

C)It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs.

D)It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups.

E)It is used in nearly all over-the-counter drugs.

Q2) Which food provides the most fiber?

A)1 small orange

B)1/2 cup cooked oatmeal

C)1 cup split peas

D)1 slice whole-wheat bread

E)1/2 cup cooked cauliflower

Q3) Describe the benefits and adverse effects of the common alternative sweeteners.

Q4) What glycemic index category would include yogurt and cheese?

A)very low

B)low

C)moderate

D)high

E)very high

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Q5) ____________________ is made of a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule.

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Chapter 5: The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and

Sterols

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which product provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?

A)Palm oil

B)Walnut oil

C)Soybean oil

D)Flaxseed oil

E)Corn oil

Q2) Surveys show that U.S. adults' average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is ____.

A)14%

B)24%

C)34%

D)44%

E)54%

Q3) In which form are most dietary lipids found?

A)Sterols

B)Glycerols

C)Triglycerides

D)Monoglycerides

E)Polyglycerides

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Q4) The ____________________ are the largest and least dense of the lipoproteins.

Chapter 6: Protein: Amino Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the amino acid pool?

A)The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake

B)A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis

C)The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion

D)A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake

E)The essential and nonessential amino acids from dietary intake that are available for protein synthesis

Q2) What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?

A)Digestion

B)Condensation

C)Denaturation

D)Hydrogenation

E)Hydrolysis

Q3) List and define 5 major roles of proteins in the body.

Q4) What are the hazards of consuming amino acid supplements?

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Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement describes a correct energy-yielding endpoint?

A)Carbohydrates yield glucose only when proteins are not available.

B)Proteins cannot yield fat stores.

C)Fatty acids yield amino acids.

D)Glycerol yields nonessential amino acids when nitrogen is present.

E)Fatty acids yield glucose.

Q2) The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is the ____.

A)nucleus

B)Golgi bodies

C)mitochondria

D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E)exoplasm

Q3) What is one explanation for the generally lower tolerance for alcohol in women in comparison to men?

A)Women fast more often.

B)Women do not eat as much food with the alcohol.

C)Women consume more of their alcohol in sweetened drinks.

D)Women have lower amounts of stomach alcohol dehydrogenase.

E)Women are more likely to gulp their drinks.

Q4) Describe the effects of excess alcohol intake on folate utilization.

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Chapter 8: Energy Balance and Body Composition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why does use of the BMI overestimate the prevalence of obesity in the African-American population?

A)Blacks have a higher average height than whites.

B)Blacks have denser bones and higher body protein concentrations than whites.

C)Blacks tend to have different proportions of brown and white adipose tissue than whites.

D)The fat pads in blacks are situated primarily around the hips, whereas in whites the pads are primarily abdominal.

E)Blacks have both lower average height and higher average weight than whites.

Q2) What characterizes the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?

A)Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime.

B)Binge eating is frequently done at restaurant buffets.

C)Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting.

D)A binge eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes.

E)Young women are particularly likely to have "binge buddies" with whom they binge.

Q3) Discuss the characteristics of binge-eating disorder. What is known about its treatment?

Q4) Compare basal metabolic rate with resting metabolic rate.

Q5) What is the association between chronic inflammation and the metabolic syndrome?

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Chapter 9: Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight

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Sample Questions

Q1) The weight-loss drug ____________________ inhibits pancreatic lipase activity in the GI tract, thus blocking digestion and absorption of dietary fat and limiting energy intake.

Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of fat cell development?

A)The amount of fat in the body is substantially determined by the size of the fat cells. B)More and larger fat cells are found in obese people compared with healthy-weight persons.

C)Fat cell number increases most readily during early adulthood, when energy expenditure declines.

D)Fat cells may enlarge but not increase in number upon reaching the age of 50 in males and reaching menopause in women.

E)When energy out exceeds energy in, fat cell size and number both decrease.

Q3) ____________________ maintains homeostasis by regulating food intake and energy expenditure in response to adipose tissue.

Q4) List five guidelines each for identifying a fad diet.

Q5) In obese people, what are the physical and metabolic advantages from as little as a 5- to 10-lb loss of weight?

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Chapter 10: The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B ?

A)Meats

B)Fruits

C)Legumes

D)Grains

E)Dairy

Q2) Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian?

A)Milk

B)Eggs

C)Broccoli

D)Whole-grain bread

E)Bananas

Q3) List population groups that have a physiological need for vitamin/mineral supplements.

Q4) Older adults with B deficiencies may develop ____________________, a condition that damages the cells of the stomach.

Q5) A(n) ____________________ is a molecule with one or more unpaired electrons, which makes it unstable and highly reactive.

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Chapter 11: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, and K

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a feature of vitamin E?

A)The vitamin functions as a hormone-like substance.

B)Toxicity symptoms include bone abnormalities.

C)Deficiencies occur from inability to absorb dietary lipids.

D)Important food sources include enriched breads and pasta.

E)The RDA is based on the tocopherols and the tocotrienols.

Q2) What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance for vitamin D in individuals around 20 years of age?

A)5 mg

B)10 mg

C)15 mg

D)20 mg

E)50 mg

Q3) The major function of vitamin E is to inhibit the destruction of A)lysosomes.

B)free radicals.

C)mucopolysaccharides.

D)polyunsaturated fatty acids.

E)monounsaturated fatty acids.

Q4) How does vitamin D function to raise blood levels of calcium and phosphorus?

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Chapter 12: Water and 123 the Major Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?

A)Processed foods

B)Unprocessed foods

C)Natural salt content of foods

D)Salt added during cooking

E)Salt added at the table

Q2) What is the major extracellular cation?

A)Sodium

B)Sulfate

C)Protein

D)Potassium

E)Phosphorus

Q3) What is the major extracellular anion?

A)Sodium

B)Lactate

C)Sulfate

D)Chloride

E)Potassium

Q4) ____________________ forms part of the protein-making machinery and is necessary for energy metabolism.

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Chapter 13: The Trace Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss factors that influence the bioavailability of dietary iron.

Q2) Which of the following minerals is a cofactor in the formation of hemoglobin?

A)Iodine

B)Copper

C)Sodium

D)Calcium

E)Selenium

Q3) Which of the following would be the most appropriate food source of iodide for a person who lives inland?

A)Fresh-water fish

B)Iodized table salt

C)Locally grown produce

D)Plants of the cabbage family

E)Soybeans and peanuts

Q4) ____________________ helps to maintain blood iron within the normal range by limiting absorption from the small intestine and controlling release from the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

Q5) The iron-storage protein ____________________ captures iron from food and stores it in the cells of the small intestine.

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Chapter 14: Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body Adaptations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents current knowledge of the role of vitamin and mineral supplements in physical performance?

A)When taken right before an event, they have been shown to benefit performance.

B)Moderate amounts have been shown to improve the performance of most elite athletes.

C)They may be beneficial for athletes who struggle to meet their energy requirements.

D)Except perhaps for iron, they are needed in high amounts to meet the needs of athletes exposed to hot and humid weather conditions.

E)While helpful for elite athletes, there is little evidence to support their use in the average, recreational athlete.

Q2) Immediately after the onset of a demand, before muscle ATP pools dwindle, a muscle enzyme begins to break down ____________________.

Q3) ____________________ is a transient condition of low hemoglobin in the blood, associated with the early stages of sports training or other strenuous activity.

Q4) Compare the protein needs of endurance and strength athletes.

Q5) How might supplemental vitamin E adversely affect physically active people?

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Chapter 15: Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of

A)10 weeks, called quarters.

B)8 weeks, called quintiles.

C)4 months, called semesters.

D)3 months, called trimesters.

E)5 weeks, called periods.

Q2) In obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from

A)insufficient exercise.

B)poor glycemic control.

C)insufficient folate intake.

D)higher prevalence of cesarean section.

E)inadequate fetal circulation.

Q3) What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman?

A)10-18

B)19-24

C)25-35

D)36-44

E)45-55

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Chapter 16: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence

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Sample Questions

Q1) What food is responsible for the most life-threatening allergic reactions in people?

A)Eggs

B)Peanuts

C)Shellfish

D)Cow's milk

E)Soy

Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of lead exposure and health?

A)Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach.

B)Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty.

C)Lead-induced anemia is similar to the anemia of vitamin B deficiency.

D)The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet.

E)Lead exposure is extremely rare in the U.S..

Q3) If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following should be avoided?

A)Milk

B)Diglycerides

C)Peanut butter

D)Textured vegetable protein

E)Seitan

Q4) What is the relationship between nutrition and hyperactivity in children?

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Chapter 17: Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years

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Q1) What is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice?

A)A metallic taste in the mouth appears.

B)Blood concentrations of the drugs increase.

C)The bioavailability of the drugs falls substantially.

D)The bioflavonoids in the juice bind to the drugs and promote formation of uric acid crystals.

E)Absorption is greatly reduced.

Q2) Which of the following terms describes an immune system that is inefficient and overactive in the aged?

A)Inflammaging

B)Dysphagic cell mass

C)Sarcopenic undermining

D)Endentulous-induced wasting

E)Cachexia of aging

Q3) Any threat to a person's well-being or a demand placed on the body to adapt is referred to as ____________________.

Q4) Give several reasons for the decline in nutritional status consequent to aging.

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Q5) ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being.

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Chapter 18: Diet and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hypertension contributes to an estimated ____ strokes in the U.S. each year.

A)400,000

B)600,000

C)800,000

D)1,000,000

E)1,200,000

Q2) The higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to A)estrogen.

B)aflatoxin.

C)high-fat diets.

D)sedentary lifestyles.

E)progesterone.

Q3) The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as A)bactocytosis.

B)phagocytosis.

C)cytotoxicosis.

D)immunoglobinemia.

E)immunocytosis.

Q4) Give four examples of the reported adverse effects of herbal therapy.

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Chapter 19: Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) List several unpleasant characteristics associated with safe, potable water.

Q2) How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding?

Q3) What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans?

A)Nitric acid

B)Sodium propionate

C)Methylene chloride

D)Polybrominated biphenyl

E)Hydrochloric acid

Q4) What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes?

A)Contamination

B)Irradiation malfunction

C)Soil heavy metal content

D)Improper storage conditions

E)Cooking at very high temperatures in oil

Q5) Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent?

A)Sugar

B)Saccharin

C)Sodium nitrite

D)Sodium propionate

E)Alcohol

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Chapter 20: Hunger and the Global Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the characteristics associated with acute and chronic malnutrition in children?

Q2) Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor?

A)It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated.

B)It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus.

C)It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present.

D)Children typically have a grossly swollen belly.

E)Children have a "skin and bones" appearance.

Q3) List 3 ways the food industry could substantially reduce fossil fuel use and still remain sustainable.

Q4) SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase which of the following?

A)laundry detergent

B)seeds to produce food

C)cigarettes

D)vitamins

E)diapers

Q5) Individuals who have access to enough food to sustain a healthy and active life with one or two indications of food-access problems but with little or no change in food intake have ____________________.

Q6) Compare and contrast the features of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

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