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This course provides a comprehensive overview of foundational nutrition principles tailored for health professionals. Students will explore the role of nutrients in human health, dietary requirements across the lifespan, the relationship between nutrition and chronic disease, and evidence-based approaches to dietary assessment and counseling. Emphasis will be placed on interpreting nutrition research, understanding dietary guidelines, and developing practical skills for communicating nutrition information to diverse populations. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to integrate nutrition knowledge into clinical practice and promote health and wellness in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Williams' Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy 14th Edition by Staci Nix McIntosh
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23 Chapters
710 Verified Questions
710 Flashcards
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Q1) Which factors place a person at the greatest risk for malnutrition?
A) poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, poor hygiene, and depleted nutrition reserves
B) poor hygiene, insufficient exercise, and excess carbohydrate intake
C) depleted carbohydrate intake, poor hygiene, and excess calorie intake
D) poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, depleted nutrition reserves, and a form of metabolic stress
Answer: D
Q2) The sum of all body processes inside living cells that sustain life and health is A) science.
B) digestion.
C) metabolism.
D) nutrition.
Answer: C
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Q1) A basket of fruit contains ripe grapes,apples,and oranges as well as pears and peaches that are not quite ripe.The fruits with the highest amount of simple sugar are the
A) pears and apples.
B) peaches and oranges.
C) grapes and apples.
D) peaches and pears.
Answer: C
Q2) Once monosaccharides are absorbed into the intestinal bloodstream,they are transported to the A) cells.
B) liver.
C) heart.
D) brain.
Answer: B
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Q1) In a diet that contains 50 g fat and a total of 1500 kcal,the proportion of total kilocalories from fat is
A) 3%.
B) 13%.
C) 30%.
D) 33%.
Answer: C
Q2) The recommended total calories provided by fat in an 1800 calorie diet would be
A) 180-270 calories.
B) 360-630 calories.
C) 540-630 calories.
D) 540-720 calories.
Answer: B
Q3) A type of fat that may be associated with a high risk of atherosclerosis if consumed on a regular basis is
A) olive oil.
B) safflower oil.
C) margarine.
D) lard.
Answer: D
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Q1) An animal protein that has relatively little value as a dietary protein source when eaten alone is
A) egg.
B) gelatin.
C) milk.
D) fish.
Q2) The phase of metabolism that makes growth and repair possible is A) digestion.
B) catabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) homeostasis.
Q3) A client weighs 130 lbs.She is close to desirable body weight and consumes a total of 40 grams of protein/day.The most appropriate nutritional counseling would be to A) increase protein intake.
B) maintain current protein intake.
C) decrease protein intake.
D) increase use of complementary proteins.
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Q1) A beverage that may cause intestinal gas in adults is A) milk.
B) coffee.
C) apple juice.
D) cola.
Q2) Compared with the pH in the stomach,the pH in the small intestine is
A) lower.
B) higher.
C) the same.
D) neutral.
Q3) Dietary fiber is beneficial because it
A) is high in nutrients.
B) is readily digested.
C) adds bulk to feces.
D) absorbs excess nutrients.
Q4) After eating fried chicken the end products from the digestion of fat include
A) glycerol and fatty acids.
B) glucose and fatty acids.
C) amino acids and dipeptides.
D) cholesterol and glycerol.

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Q1) The body's sources of stored energy include
A) glucose.
B) adipose tissue.
C) undigested food.
D) bone.
Q2) The total number of kilocalories in a snack that contains 10 g carbohydrate,2 g protein,and 5 g fat is _____ kcal.
A) 17
B) 68
C) 93
D) 153
Q3) Metabolic rate would increase with a body temperature of
A) 97.4° F.
B) 98.4° F.
C) 98.6° F.
D) 101.2° F.
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Q1) The B vitamin predominantly found in foods of animal origin is
A) pantothenic acid.
B) niacin.
C) thiamin.
D) cobalamin.
Q2) Liver is a rich source of
A) vitamin A (retinol).
B) vitamin C.
C) vitamin D.
D) vitamin E.
Q3) A 62-year-old woman who smokes one pack of cigarettes a day and whose food intake records reveal a minimal intake of vitamin C foods may be at risk for
A) easy bruising and pinpoint hemorrhages.
B) cracked and bleeding lips.
C) fevers and infections.
D) neurologic disorders.
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Q1) Potassium deficiency may be caused by A) allergies.
B) food poisoning.
C) psychological stress.
D) myocardial infarction.
Q2) A food that enhances nonheme iron absorption is A) orange juice.
B) white toast.
C) olive oil.
D) sausage.
Q3) An example of a food that is a good source of calcium is A) kidney beans.
B) whole-grain bread.
C) yogurt.
D) spinach.
Q4) The functions of energy metabolism and acid-base balance are regulated by A) sodium.
B) iron.
C) potassium.
D) phosphorus.
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Q1) Water retention would be the result of the hormone
A) ADH.
B) estrogen.
C) progesterone.
D) insulin.
Q2) Cations primarily responsible for controlling body water distribution are A) sodium and chloride.
B) calcium and phosphorus.
C) sodium and potassium.
D) sodium and bicarbonate.
Q3) The term used to denote concentration of electrolytes in a given volume is A) valence.
B) colloidal osmotic pressure.
C) pH.
D) milliequivalent.
Q4) An example of a cation is A) sodium.
B) phosphate.
C) carbonate.
D) sulfate.
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Q1) A pregnant adolescent is at risk because she
A) does not know how to care for herself.
B) has not established good eating habits.
C) is still in a growth stage of development.
D) will not know about the pregnancy until after the fetal organs have formed.
Q2) Increased protein is necessary in pregnancy for
A) preventing gestational diabetes.
B) sparing carbohydrates for energy needs.
C) growing maternal tissues.
D) preventing pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Q3) Appropriate snack choices for a pregnant woman with morning sickness may include
A) a meal of hot soup and Gatorade.
B) lemonade with added sugar and peppermint sticks.
C) a glass of hot decaffeinated tea.
D) whole-wheat toast with a small amount of light butter and a small piece of fruit.
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Q1) A type of feeding not recommended for infants during the early months is A) breast milk.
B) amino acid-based formula.
C) soy-based formula.
D) cow's milk.
Q2) During a checkup at the clinic,a child's growth is evaluated by using A) fitness testing.
B) clinical observation.
C) food records.
D) growth charts.
Q3) Failure to thrive may be caused by A) early sitting and crawling.
B) sleeping with a bottle.
C) overuse of vitamin supplements.
D) overdilution of formula.
Q4) The ideal first food for infants is A) human milk.
B) cow's milk.
C) soy-based formula.
D) amino acid-based formula.
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Q1) Feeding older adults with sensitivity includes
A) giving sufficient time to chew and swallow.
B) serving only pureed foods.
C) avoiding liquids with meals.
D) serving bland foods.
Q2) Contributing factors for osteoporosis include
A) inadequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
B) increased estrogen after menopause.
C) excess weight.
D) excess iron intake.
Q3) Each decade,basal energy needs decrease
A) 0.5% to 1%.
B) 1% to 2%.
C) 2% to 4%.
D) 5% to 8%.
Q4) It may be advisable for an older adult to take a vitamin or mineral supplement
A) daily.
B) weekly.
C) if he or she has been ill.
D) if he or she is under stress.
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Q1) Bacterial food poisoning is caused by
A) ingestion of toxic bacteria.
B) toxins produced by bacteria in the intestines.
C) toxins produced by bacteria in the bloodstream.
D) ingestion of toxins produced by bacteria in the food before it is eaten.
Q2) Mercury poisoning is most often caused by eating which of the following?
A) raw seafood
B) improperly canned foods
C) fish from contaminated water
D) crops grown with pesticides
Q3) To prevent food-borne parasitic infections,an important consideration for meat is to A) buy from a reliable source.
B) freeze before it is cooked.
C) cook thoroughly before eating.
D) store raw meat in air-tight packaging.
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Q1) An eating style that includes a relatively high number of "eating occasions" is referred to as A) grazing. B) meals.
C) episodes.
D) snacking.
Q2) An example of an Asian food item that is a good source of protein would be A) rice candy.
B) tofu.
C) broccoli stir-fry.
D) buttermilk curd.
Q3) A food that is not allowed according to Jewish (kosher)food laws is A) pork.
B) eggs.
C) milk.
D) fish.
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Q1) The most important key to a successful weight-loss program is A) personal motivation.
B) exercise.
C) dietary restriction.
D) a good nutrition counselor.
Q2) The hormone that tends to have the opposite effect to leptin is A) ghrelin.
B) secretin.
C) insulin.
D) peptidase.
Q3) To lose 2 lbs over a 2-week period,caloric intake would need to be reduced by _____ kcal/day.
A) 150
B) 300
C) 350
D) 500
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Q1) Aerobic capacity is expressed in terms of amount of _____ of body weight per minute.
A) water absorbed per kilogram
B) oxygen consumed per kilogram
C) oxygen consumed per pound
D) carbon dioxide produced per kilogram
Q2) An appropriate amount of exercise for a 12-year-old would be
A) no more than 15 minutes of stretching per day.
B) at least 20 minutes of physical activity per week.
C) at least 60 minutes of physical activity per day.
D) no more than 30 minutes of physical activity every other day.
Q3) If an athlete exercises for a prolonged period of time,the muscles will become A) atrophied.
B) fatigued.
C) cramped.
D) limp.
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Q1) Hypogeusia may suggest
A) a nutrient imbalance.
B) a lack of physical exercise.
C) excessive oral hygiene.
D) a life-threatening emergency.
Q2) An example of a diet with modified texture is a _____ diet.
A) liquid
B) low-energy
C) high-protein
D) vegetarian
Q3) A food that contains furanocoumarin which can interact with certain medications is A) red apple slices.
B) grapefruit juice.
C) mashed potatoes.
D) chicken noodle soup.
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Q1) Of the following,a food choice that would help provide adequate protein for recovery from hepatitis is
A) grilled chicken.
B) apple turnover.
C) fruit salad.
D) English muffin.
Q2) A resident who has Parkinson's disease and resides in a long-term care facility has recurring pneumonia and coughs while eating.This may be evidence of A) dysphasia.
B) dysphagia.
C) achalasia.
D) dyspnea.
Q3) Nutrition therapy for gallbladder disorders includes A) reducing cholesterol intake.
B) eliminating gas-forming foods.
C) lowering fat intake.
D) increasing caloric intake.
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Q1) Examples of foods high in soluble dietary fiber are
A) whole-wheat bread and crackers.
B) pureed fruits and vegetables.
C) potatoes and yams.
D) oat bran and legumes.
Q2) A food that can be used freely on a sodium-restricted diet is
A) canned salmon.
B) a peanut butter sandwich.
C) a biscuit.
D) a fresh apple.
Q3) The Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC)diet recommends limiting daily cholesterol intake to no more than _____ mg daily.
A) 200
B) 300
C) 400
D) 600
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Q1) A good source of fiber rich food is
A) steel cut oats.
B) grilled chicken breast.
C) cinnamon apple sauce.
D) an English muffin.
Q2) The hormone that is synthesized by the pancreatic isle cells is A) glycogen.
B) ketone.
C) somatostatin.
D) insulin.
Q3) The main factors that influence development of type 2 diabetes mellitus are A) weight and heredity.
B) liver disease.
C) enzyme deficiencies.
D) childhood illnesses.
Q4) A menu selection high in saturated fat is
A) grilled turkey burgers with onion and peppers.
B) baked ziti with sausage and cream sauce.
C) baked salmon and herbed potatoes.
D) baked macaroni and tomato sauce.

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Q1) The massive edema of nephrotic syndrome is caused by A) blockage in the nephron tubules.
B) excessive fluid intake.
C) large protein losses in the urine.
D) a diet too high in sodium.
Q2) The hormone that causes the kidneys to reabsorb water and decrease urine production is
A) renin.
B) vitamin D.
C) erythropoietin.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
Q3) Carbohydrates and fats are important in the diets of patients with kidney disease because they
A) prevent fatigue.
B) spare protein for tissue synthesis.
C) are low in sodium.
D) are metabolized before they reach the kidney.
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Q1) During the initial stage of treatment of a severe burn
A) a dextrose intravenous feeding is started.
B) total parenteral nutrition is initiated.
C) the patient is encouraged to take water orally.
D) an intravenous electrolyte solution is given.
Q2) Before general surgery,nothing is given by mouth for at least _____ hours.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 24
Q3) If a patient requires parenteral nutrition for a prolonged period,the most appropriate type of feeding is
A) elemental enteral formula.
B) intact enteral formula.
C) total parenteral nutrition.
D) peripheral parenteral nutrition.
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Q1) Given a functional gastrointestinal tract,the preferred method of feeding a patient with cancer is
A) normal oral intake.
B) a liquid formula diet.
C) tube feeding.
D) total parenteral feeding.
Q2) The nutrient primarily responsible for maintaining tissue integrity and immunocompetence is/are
A) carbohydrate.
B) protein.
C) vitamins.
D) minerals.
Q3) Category 2 CD4 T-Lymphocyte values are defined as
A) less than 200 cells/µL.
B) more than 200 cells/µL.
C) 200 to 499 cells/µL.
D) 800 to 1000 cells/µL.
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