Nutrition for Health Professionals Exam Review
Course Introduction
Nutrition for Health Professionals offers an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application in healthcare settings. This course covers macronutrients and micronutrients, dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, and the impact of nutrition on disease prevention and management. Students will learn to analyze dietary habits, interpret scientific research, and develop evidence-based nutrition strategies for diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on the role of healthcare professionals in promoting healthy eating behaviors, understanding cultural influences on diet, and addressing nutritional needs at various life stages. The course equips future health professionals with practical skills and knowledge to effectively counsel patients and advocate for optimal nutritional health within clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition Therapy and Pathophysiology 3rd Edition by Marcia Nelms
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26 Chapters
2080 Verified Questions
2080 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Role of the Dietitian in the Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessing whether Ms. Lopez has any difficulty swallowing is the job of which member of the interdisciplinary team?
A) pharmacist
B) nurse
C) social worker
D) speech-language pathologist
E) medical doctor
Answer: D
Q2) Listening to both sides of a discussion and weighing all the facts are examples of an attitude of _______________.
Answer: fairness
Q3) Individual state _______________ programs are expanding to serve lower-income Americans.
Answer: Medicaid
Q4) The Scope of Practice encompasses the range of roles, activities, and regulations within which nutrition and dietetics practitioners perform.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Nutrition Care Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question is most appropriate when evaluating the "P" in the PES statement?
A) Is the etiology truly the root cause?
B) Is there an intervention that will cause a positive change?
C) Will measuring symptoms resolve the problem?
D) Can the dietetics practitioner improve the issue?
E) Do the signs and symptoms describe the problem?
Answer: D
Q2) Standardized language refers to a uniform terminology that is used to describe practice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The _______________ (S) are the defining characteristics obtained from the subjective and objective nutrition assessment data in the PES statement.
Answer: signs and symptoms,?symptoms and signs
Q4) Documentation should be relevant, accurate, and _______________.
Answer: timely
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4
Chapter 3: Nutrition Assessment - Foundation of the Nutrition Care Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dietetic clinician has measured the mid-upper arm muscle area in a 46-year-old female client. The result is 22cm. This result would be classified as:
A) obese.
B) adequate.
C) marginal.
D) depleted.
E) wasted.
Answer: C
Q2) In general, the _______________ are much more useful to the consumer purchasing groceries than the dietitian performing a nutrition assessment.
Answer: daily values, DV, DVs
Q3) Increased fecal loss of serum protein, especially albumin, causing hypoproteinemia is called _______________.
Answer: protein-losing enteropathy, protein losing enteropathy, protein loss enteropathy
Q4) In healthy individuals, nitrogen _______________ should be equal to nitrogen intake.
Answer: excretion
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Chapter 4: Nutrition Intervention and Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Nutrition problem no longer exists" would be recorded as "_______________."
Q2) A nutritionist is providing teaching to a client about making changes in her diet. The client is resistant to change and says, "I don't think I could follow that kind of diet." Which response from the nutritionist would be most appropriate to confront this client?
A) "I think you would like help, but you don't want to do the work to change."
B) "I could help you if you would let me, but you don't seem to want my help."
C) "You say you want to change, but you are not willing to try."
D) "This is not unreasonable; if you tried harder, it wouldn't be so bad."
E) "You are saying you would like help and I would like to help you if I can."
Q3) The registered dietitian is not involved in the coordination of medications with meal planning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the 10 categories in which problem etiologies can be classified.
Q5) Discuss methods the registered dietitian can use to ensure patient satisfaction with meals and provide choice in menu selection.
Q6) _______________ builds on concepts of modeling through observing others who are doing well.
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Chapter 5: Enteral and Parental Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which condition would parenteral nutrition most likely be indicated?
A) Short bowel syndrome
B) Increased oral fluid intake
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Severe dysphagia
E) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) A three-in-one solution of parenteral nutrition prepared by an automated compounder contains:
A) fatty acids, iron, and monosaccharides.
B) dextrose, amino acids, and lipids.
C) omega-3 fatty acids, triglycerides, and commercial amino acids.
D) oligosaccharides, leucine, and valine.
E) nonessential amino acids, dextrose, and vitamins.
Q3) The lipid in most parenteral solutions available in the United States is an emulsion of _______________.
Q4) Up to 40% of nursing home patients exhibit some signs of malnutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Feeding access is achieved when a feeding tube is placed into the stomach or
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Chapter 6: Documentation of the Nutrition Care Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall movement in charting over the last decade has been toward:
A) increasing the size of the medical record.
B) changing charting from SOAP format to ADIME.
C) decreasing the size of the medical record.
D) requiring workers to document more information.
E) eliminating the need for the medical record.
Q2) The POMR is divided into five parts: data, problem list, care plan, progress notes, and _______________.
Q3) While editing, successful writers wait to make editing changes to a text until revision is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______________ include patient information or data collected from the patient or caregiver.
Q5) The actual process of writing is usually always linear. A)True B)False
Q6) The levels of _______________ include the different levels of writing on which one can focus attention.
Q7) Name the elements involved with every rhetorical norm.
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Chapter 7: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of thirst is regulated in the _______________.
Q2) Describe the "third spaces".
Q3) Vitamin D increases absorption of _______________ in the small intestine.
Q4) What hormone is released from the kidney and stimulates conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?
A) arginine vasopressin
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) renin
D) pepsin
E) aldosterone
Q5) At birth, total body water accounts for approximately 75% of the infant's weight.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Serum calcium exists in a reciprocal relationship with what other electrolyte?
A) magnesium
B) potassium
C) phosphorus
D) chloride
E) sodium
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within the bloodstream where is hemoglobin present?
A) red blood cells
B) serum
C) lymph
D) endothelium
E) white blood cells
Q2) What is the most biochemically important volatile acid in the body?
A) hydrochloric acid
B) acetic acid
C) phosphoric acid
D) nitric acid
E) carbonic acid
Q3) The pH of a substance is measured in a range from 1 to 12.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______________ present in the plasma can act as buffers; their contribution is most important intracellularly.
Q5) Carbonic _______________ inhibitors such as the drug acetazolamide can result in excessive loss of base while inhibiting production of carbonic acid in the kidney.
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Chapter 9: Cellular and Physiological Response to Injury -
the Role of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common cellular response to injury and disease is deposition of a substance called hyaline within and between the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many kilocalories per kilogram of bodyweight does she need to properly heal?
A) about 10
B) about 15
C) about 19
D) about 23
E) about 30
Q3) What is the study of the disruption of normal physiologic processes called?
A) epidemiology
B) pathogenesis
C) physiology
D) pathophysiology
E) pathology
Q4) Healing of burns often results in development of _______________.
Q5) The usual outcome of disease is sometimes referred to as the _______________.
Q7) The most severe allergic reaction is _______________. Page 11
Q6) Describe the difference between an antigen and an immunogen.
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Chapter 10: Nutritional Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What nutrient should the registered dietician counsel Mrs. G on how to achieve optimal levels in her diet or via supplementation to reduce her risk of such a disease?
A) omega-3 fatty acids
B) arginine
C) vitamin A
D) biotin
E) folate
Q2) What chromosome number is linked to various disease states with nutritional implications including several cancers, type 1 diabetes, and Crohn's disease?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
E) 20
Q3) The Human Genome Project was launched in the United States in 1990.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are predicted to be a few hundred _______________ genes in humans.
Q5) Describe familial hypercholesterolemia.
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Chapter 11: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adverse drug effects happen more often within what age group?
A) the elderly
B) middle-age people
C) young adults
D) teenagers
E) children
Q2) Binders, lubricants, and coating agents _______________ dissolution, whereas disintegrants _______________ dissolution.
Q3) With no fever, shortness of breath or rales, which medication should likely be discontinued for Mrs. Z?
A) amoxicillin
B) warfarin
C) doxazosin
D) Lipitor
E) omeprazole
Q4) The most important chemical properties of medications related to drug absorption include the solubility of the drug in lipid or water and the ionization of the medication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Diseases and Disorders of Energy Imbalance
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Sample Questions
Q1) As plasma glucose level rises following a meal, the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin and _______________.
Q2) Name five examples of health consequences that can develop from overweight and obesity.
Q3) Which factor influences the thermic effect of food (TEF) during a meal?
A) The macronutrient composition of the meal
B) The setting in which the meal is consumed
C) The position of the person eating the meal
D) The total energy expenditure of the individual
E) The thermoregulation of the room where the meal is served
Q4) Internationally, the most commonly used unit of measurement of food energy is the _______________.
Q5) The _______________is calculated by dividing the waist circumference measurement by the hip circumference measurement.
Q6) _______________ are low in energy while high in weight, and include such foods as high-water vegetables and fruits, and broth-based soups.
Q7) Discuss the physiological consequences of obesity in the following areas: type 2 diabetes, hepatobiliary disorders, cancer, reproductive disorders.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Diseases of the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of heart failure in women is:
A) hypertension.
B) ischemic heart disease.
C) peripheral arterial disease.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) acute coronary syndrome
Q2) Current recommendations include maintenance of dietary fat intake within 10%-15% of total caloric intake for patients with atherosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One tsp of table salt is equivalent to _______________ mg sodium.
Q4) Discuss each of the following components when evaluating clinical hypertension: classification of blood pressure, major cardiovascular disease risk factors, identifiable causes of hypertension.
Q5) _______________ are medications that affect the movement of calcium, which causes the blood vessels to relax and therefore reduces vasoconstriction.
Q6) _______________ is used to determine the dosage of anticoagulant medication for patients with atrial fibrillation.
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Chapter 14: Diseases of the Upper Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saliva is produced in the mouth by three pairs of salivary glands: the parotid, submandibular, and:
A) occipital.
B) sublingual.
C) supramandibular.
D) lingual.
E) maxillary.
Q2) Which complication is most likely associated with Barrett's esophagus?
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) esophageal cancer
C) diverticulitis
D) pyloric stenosis
E) atrophic gastritis
Q3) What is an example of a change in gastrointestinal physiology that occurs with aging?
A) Increased upper esophageal pressure
B) Atrophy of the small intestine mucosa
C) Enhanced excretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D) Increased incidences of diarrhea
E) Overproduction of saliva in the mouth
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Lower Gastrointenstinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is a dark stool caused by contamination with blood from the upper GI tract.
Q2) Which types of foods would the nutritionist suggest for RD in rehabilitation during a period of remission?
A) foods high in oxalate
B) low-residue foods
C) foods that contain antioxidants
D) lactose-free foods
E) foods without glutamine
Q3) What best describes the action of opiate anti-diarrheal medications?
A) They enter bacteria and destroy DNA
B) They decrease fluid secretions and reduce stool output
C) They decrease intestinal muscle tone and peristalsis of the GI tract
D) They inhibit acetylcholine and decrease peristalsis
E) They work as anti-inflammatory and immune suppressant agents in the colon
Q4) Gastric juices provide the primary digestive enzymes in the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _______________ is the primary site for reabsorption of bile acids.
Q6) Briefly describe segmentation associated with digestion in the small intestine.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Liver - Gallbladder - and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis in children is:
A) phenylketonuria.
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) necrotizing enterocolitis.
D) cystic fibrosis.
E) hypothyroidism.
Q2) The hepatic duct descends to the right for a few inches and is then joined by the cystic duct from the gallbladder to form the _______________.
Q3) Autodigestion of the pancreas is prevented by storing the digestive enzymes in their inactive forms, as zymogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fat malabsorption with chronic pancreatitis results in _______________.
Q5) Symptoms associated with acute pancreatitis include:
A) diarrhea, bloody stools, and abdominal cramping.
B) epigastric pain and ascites.
C) flatulence, diarrhea, and abdominal distention.
D) fever and headache.
E) abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting.
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe hypoglycemia is defined as blood glucose level of _______________ mg/dL.
Q2) What is the term for inadequate glucose supply to the brain?
A) neuropathy
B) neuroglycopenia
C) glycosuria
D) achlorhydria
E) ketoacidosis
Q3) Current estimates using standard criteria indicate that approximately one in five people over the age of _______________ have elevated fasting blood glucose and/or elevated glycosylated hemoglobin.
Q4) The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is _______________, which accounts for approximately 60-80% of cases.
Q5) What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
A) 120 days
B) 100 days
C) 75 days
D) 45 days
E) 12 days
Q6) Discuss metabolic syndrome in relation to diabetes.
Q7) Discuss pituitary tumors.
20
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with acute kidney injury are prone to loss of what type of amino acids?
A) leucine and isoleucine
B) only essential amino acids
C) only non-essential amino acids
D) all essential and non-essential amino acids
E) only branched-chain amino acids
Q2) List the common sources of oral iron supplements.
Q3) Describe the nutrition diagnoses that might coincide with CKD.
Q4) What food enhances the bioavailability of tacrolimus and cyclosporine?
A) spinach
B) legumes
C) grapefruit
D) chocolate
E) tomatoes
Q5) What is often one of the first signs of renal insufficiency?
A) kidney pain
B) hematuria
C) microalbuminuria
D) increased urine output
E) low blood pressure
21
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Hematological System
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ levels are thought to be the best markers of vitamin B12 status.
Q2) Discuss how the feedback mechanism for iron absorption is altered in iron-deficiency anemia.
Q3) What kind of anemia develops from a folate deficiency?
A) microcytic
B) macrocytic
C) hemolytic
D) hypochromic
E) microblastic
Q4) What kind of anemia develops from lead toxicity?
A) microcytic
B) macrocytic
C) hemolytic
D) hypochromic
E) microblastic
Q5) Describe the main purpose of nutritional therapy for hemochromatosis.
Q6) The von Willebrand factor is a protein on the cell surface that causes platelets to become sticky and adhere to other platelets.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Diseases and Disorders of the Neurological System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term developmental delay is a catch-all phrase used to describe any lag in reaching age-appropriate developmental milestones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What drug for epilepsy inhibits both vitamin D and folate metabolism?
A) valproate
B) carbamazepine
C) gabapentin
D) phenytoin
E) topiramate
Q3) Define the term stroke.
Q4) Where is the neurotransmitter dopamine produced within the brain?
A) pons
B) occipital lobe
C) substantia nigra
D) thalamus
E) hypothalamus
Q5) Vitamin _______________ is required as a cofactor for one of the enzymes needed for the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine.
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary edema increases the thickness of the alveolar and capillary space, leading to impaired gas exchange, hypoxia, and overall increased work of breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infants with BPD are at risk for delayed skeletal mineralization and _______________.
Q3) What vitamin deficiency is relatively common in people with CF?
A) vitamin B9
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin B6
E) vitamin A
Q4) _______________ are chemical mediators produced by the body that contribute to the development of asthma.
Q5) Describe bronchopulmonary dysplasia, including treatment.
Q6) Discuss the etiology of COPD in relation to cigarette smoking.
Q7) Describe the cause of cystic fibrosis (CF).
Q8) Emphysema develops gradually over years, usually as a result of exposure to
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Chapter 22: Metabolic Stress and the Critically Ill
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enteral formula has the highest percentage of lipids?
A) Perative®
B) Pivot®
C) Crucial®
D) Oxepa®
E) Impact®
Q2) What did the National VA Surgical Risk Study find to be the best predictor of complications and mortality following surgical procedures?
A) preoperative albumin levels
B) liver function
C) smoking
D) blood pressure
E) age
Q3) Metabolic stress is the hypermetabolic, catabolic response to acute injury or disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Energy requirements are _______________ during metabolic stress and injury.
Q5) Provide a comprehensive definition of sepsis.
Q6) Describe the main objectives of nutritional support for the critically ill.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Neoplastic Disease
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Q1) Immune-enhancing enteral formulas containing mixtures of arginine, nucleic acids, and _______________ may be beneficial in malnourished patients undergoing major cancer operations.
Q2) What is the average protein need per day for non-stressed cancer patients?
A) 0.7-1.1 g/kg
B) 1.0-1.5 g/kg
C) 1.4-1.8 g/kg
D) 1.9-2.5 g/kg
E) 2.3-2.8 g/kg
Q3) Given AS's weight loss, what would his MD likely diagnose him with?
A) failure to thrive
B) anorexia nervosa
C) mildly underweight
D) moderately underweight
E) cancer cachexia
Q4) African-American women have a 10% _______________ incidence rate than white females for all cancers combined.
Q5) _______________ are signaling proteins that are produced by white blood cells and help mediate and regulate immune responses, inflammation, and hematopoiesis.
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Chapter 24: HIV and Aids
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Q1) Growth hormone and related treatments have demonstrated efficacy in improving body cell mass.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral DNA is combined with the cell's own DNA by what enzyme?
A) transcriptase
B) RNA protease
C) receptorase
D) integrase
E) retroase
Q3) What musculoskeletal symptom is relatively common with HIV infection?
A) osteoarthritis
B) myopathy
C) ligament laxity
D) tendonitis
E) rheumatoid arthritis
Q4) HIV RNA is transcribed to DNA particles using reverse transcriptase enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Electrolyte levels are typically _______________ in AIDS patients.
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked disorder that mainly affects what demographic?
A) people with Down's Syndrome
B) adult males
C) adult females
D) boys
E) girls
Q2) Composed of cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and bones, the skeletal system forms a strong, tightly bound but flexible framework for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carpopedal spasm results from tetany occurring in the hands and feet and can be a sign of what?
A) hypocalcemia
B) hypercalcemia
C) hypophosphatemia
D) hyperphosphatemia
E) hyperkalemia
Q4) Bone mineral density (BMD) is best measured using _______________.
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Chapter 26: Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) In patients with galactosemia, the enzyme defect occurs in uridyltransferase, which normally converts galactose, in the form of galactose-1-phosphate, to _______________ -1-phosphate.
Q2) Explain how fructose is normally metabolized.
Q3) Methylcrotonylglycinuria is a metabolic disorder of what branched-chain amino acid?
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
Q4) Discuss the epidemiology of amino acidopathies.
Q5) What amino acid supplement used for metabolic disorders displays antiatherogenic, antioxidant, and immunomodulatory properties?
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
Q6) Describe the acute nutritional interventions used for urea cycle disorders.
Page 29
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