Nutrition for Health Professionals Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth examination of the principles of human nutrition and its critical role in promoting health and preventing disease. Designed for students in healthcare-related fields, it covers fundamental concepts such as nutrient functions, dietary requirements across the lifespan, and the relationship between nutrition and chronic conditions like diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and obesity. The course also addresses evidence-based dietary guidelines, nutrition assessment, food safety, and the impact of sociocultural factors on eating habits. Emphasis is placed on translating current research into practical recommendations for patient care and public health interventions.
Recommended Textbook Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 14th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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44 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Intake: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what form is dietary fat absorbed from the lumen of the intestine?
A)Chylomicron
B)Micelle
C)Triglyceride
D)Lipoprotein
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a list of enzymes released from the pancreas?
A)Insulin, trypsin, and secretin
B)Lactase, isomaltase, and dextrinase
C)Protease, pepsin, and gastrin
D)Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase
Answer: D
Q3) What are primarily absorbed by the large intestine?
A)Water and fats
B)Carbohydrates
C)Proteins
D)Water and electrolytes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Intake: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the determination of the physical activity level (PAL) categories beyond sedentary different from the sedentary category?
A)They are based on METs.
B)They are based on the pace of walking.
C)They are based on the total time spent doing physical activity.
D)They are based on types of physical activity.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy expenditure?
A)It accounts for 10% of total energy expenditure.
B)Its contribution to total energy expenditure increases with age.
C)Its contribution to total energy expenditure is most consistent during childhood.
D)It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Inflammation and the Pathophysiology of Chronic Disease
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary factors that help to maintain healthy fluid viscosity and therefore a healthy immune system include all EXCEPT
A)carbohydrate.
B)hydration.
C)vitamin E.
D)monounsaturated fat.
Answer: A
Q2) Increased intestinal permeability is associated with ___________.
A)blocking of large molecules to prevent passage into the internal microenvironment
B)an allogenic state
C)decreased antigenic load
D)more severe food sensitivity or allergy
Answer: D
Q3) Cytochrome P450 enzymes are essential for A)production of cholesterol.
B)detoxification transport of toxins for elimination.
C)production of prostacyclins.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MNA short form has been validated for use in what population?
A)Critically ill elderly
B)Surgical populations
C)Subacute and ambulatory elderly
D)Children
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening?
A)Should be able to be done quickly
B)Should include weight history
C)Should be done by dietitians
D)Should be setting specific
Q3) In the patient's _____ history, you would most likely find out about the patient's cultural views related to health care.
A)medical
B)social
C)medication
D)dietary
Q4) Smartphones are now a legitimate method to record food intake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Clinical: Nutritional Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutritional components of food affect genetic expression by acting as ligands for peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPAR).Which disease may NOT be positively affected by this nutrigenomic relationship?
A)Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B)Cancer
C)Obesity
D)Atherosclerosis
Q2) Which of the following may promote a change in a DNA molecule affecting gene expression without changing the nucleotide sequence?
A)Genomic imprinting
B)Mutation
C)SNP
D)Gene variant
Q3) Which of the following is the area of DNA where binding of regulatory proteins signals the start of transcription?
A)Promoter
B)Intervening sequence
C)Response element
D)Transcription factor
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what mechanism is thirst stimulated in the hypothalamus?
A)Increase in serum osmolality
B)Decrease in serum osmolality
C)Increase in both serum osmolality and in extracellular volume
D)Decrease in serum osmolality and an increase in extracellular volume
Q2) Eating which of the following would most increase dietary potassium intake?
A)Fruits and vegetables
B)Saltwater fish
C)Grains
D)Cereals
Q3) In the extracellular space, what is the primary buffer system?
A)Phosphate
B)Bicarbonate and carbonic acid
C)Hydrogen
D)Protein
Q4) Which effect is of greatest concern in water intoxication?
A)Increased volume of the brain cells
B)Hypertension
C)Decreased circulating blood volume
D)Increased urinary output
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Chapter 7: Clinical: Biochemical, Physical, and Functional Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which laboratory value would be added in a comprehensive metabolic panel (compared with a BMP)?
A)Albumin
B)Glucose
C)Blood urea nitrogen
D)White blood cells
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about bioelectric impedance analysis?
A)It measures lean body tissue.
B)It is noninvasive and portable.
C)It is not accurate in a dehydrated individual.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is a positive acute-phase respondent?
A)Interleukin-1
B)Albumin
C)Transthyretin
D)C-reactive protein
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications should not be taken with foods that contain bran?
A)Alendronate (Fosamax)
B)Iron supplements
C)Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D)Digoxin (Lanoxin)
Q2) Hypertensive patients who are taking loop diuretics for reduction of blood pressure may experience hypokalemia.Which other electrolyte does NOT need to be monitored for a potential secondary nutrient deficiency?
A)Magnesium
B)Sodium
C)Phosphorus
D)Calcium
Q3) Which term describes the metabolism of drugs by reactions such as oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, or conjugation?
A)Bioavailability
B)Biotransformation
C)Excipient
D)Pharmacodynamics
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Behavioral-Environmental: the Individual in the Community
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathogen causes hemorrhagic colitis (painful, bloody diarrhea), which can result from eating undercooked ground beef and meats?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Yersinia enterocolitica
Q2) The Hunger-Free Kids Act of 2010 did which of the following?
A)Expanded the after school meal program
B)Expanded WIC program coverage from 6 months to 1 year
C)Improved the nutrition quality of school-based lunch programs
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is one of the CDC's operations related to food security and disaster planning?
A)PrepNet (Food Threat Preparedness Network)
B)F-Bat (Food Biosecurity Action Team)
C)FoodNet (Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network)
D)Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Utilization management is
A)a system to protect personal health information.
B)a system of cost efficiency.
C)a critical pathway.
D)a medical staffing system.
Q2) The nutritional value of the average clear liquid diet is
A)no protein and 500 to 700 kcal.
B)5 to 10 g protein and 500 to 600 kcal.
C)20 to 30 g protein and 100 to 1200 kcal.
D)40 to 50 g protein and 500 to 700 kcal.
Q3) The Joint Commission requires the identification of nutrition risk of hospital patients to occur within
A)12 hours of admission.
B)24 hours of admission.
C)48 hours of admission.
D)24 hours of admission, except on the weekend.
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Chapter
Nutrient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A food constituent that is not defined as a nutrient but has a biologic effect that may influence health is a
A)sustainable food.
B)organic food.
C)cariogenic food.
D)functional food.
Q2) Serving size on nutrition labels is determined by
A)the government, which sets individual standards.
B)the manufacturer of the product.
C)the types of stores that sell the product.
D)the package size of the product.
Q3) "Low-fat" on a food label means that food
A)contains 25% less fat than a reference product.
B)contains less than or equal to 3 g of fat per serving.
C)contains one-third fewer fat calories than a reference product.
D)is naturally low in fat.
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Chapter 12: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Complementary and
Integrative Medicine and Dietary Supplementation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of claims was first established under DSHEA?
A)Authoritative statements
B)Health claims
C)Nutrition claims
D)Structure-function claims
Q2) According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, art and music therapy are classified as
A)manipulative therapies.
B)energy therapies.
C)alternative medical systems.
D)mind-body therapies.
Q3) Which type of holistic therapy is based on the belief that you treat like with like?
A)Homeopathy
B)Naturopathy
C)Traditional Oriental medicine
D)Phytotherapy
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14
Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient most likely to experience refeeding syndrome is a patient who has
A)enteral feeding initiated after 7 days NPO.
B)parenteral feeding initiated after 7 days NPO.
C)enteral feeding after 24 hours NPO.
D)parenteral feeding after 24 hours NPO.
Q2) For a fluid-restricted patient, an appropriate formula to select for use would be _____ kcal/ml.
A)0.8
B)1
C)1.2
D)1.5
Q3) What type of enteric tube enters the body at the nose and terminates at the stomach?
A)Nasogastric
B)Nasojejunal
C)Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
D)Percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
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15
Chapter 14: Education and Counseling: Behavioral Change
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance to change can be overcome by all the following techniques EXCEPT A)affirming.
B)double-sided reflection.
C)agreeing with a twist.
D)reflecting.
Q2) Which stage of change is characterized by the patient's feelings of ambivalence?
A)Precontemplation
B)Contemplation
C)Preparation
D)Maintenance
Q3) A client is aware that a dietary behavior problem exists but is not sure whether to do something about it.What stage of change is this client in?
A)Precontemplation
B)Contemplation
C)Preparation
D)Relapse
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Chapter 15: Nutrition for Reproductive Health and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can promote failure to thrive in a breast-fed infant as a result of poor milk production?
A)Poor latching or suck during the feeding episode
B)Small for gestational age infant
C)Maternal smoking
D)Maternal illness
Q2) Which hormone promotes letdown?
A)Colostrum
B)Progesterone
C)Oxytocin
D)Prolactin
Q3) What recommendation about sodium should be given for pregnant women?
A)Aggressive restriction is warranted.
B)Sodium intake should be above 2 to 3 g/day.
C)Sodium intake should not exceed 1 g/day.
D)Sodium intake should not exceed 2 g/day.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When plotting an infant's weight or length on a percentile growth chart, a curve is produced that can be used to follow the infant's growth.What is this curve called?
A)Growth velocity
B)Growth channel
C)Catch-up growth
D)Lag-down growth
Q2) Why should honey NOT be used in home-prepared formulas for infants?
A)The added sweetener will cause the infant to crave sweets.
B)The sugars present cannot be digested by the infant.
C)The honey will settle out in the formula and cause a curdled appearance.
D)The infant has no immunity to the botulism spore that may be present.
Q3) To meet the fluoride needs of a breast-fed infant, what should parents be instructed to do?
A)Begin giving fluoride supplements immediately after birth.
B)Supplement the mother's diet with fluoride.
C)Begin giving fluoridated water when the baby's teeth erupt.
D)When the infant starts eating solid foods, the foods will provide enough fluoride.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Nutrition in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause a preschool child to eat less food at a meal?
A)Providing the child with a short-handled spoon or fork.
B)Providing food at a warm temperature, not too hot or cold.
C)Scheduling feeding time right after play or activity.
D)Serving foods so they do not touch one another on the plate.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with impaired academic performance in children?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Food insecurity
C)Skipping breakfast
D)Bringing lunch from home
Q3) Food insecure families in the United States
A)contribute to poor outcomes in children.
B)are associated with inadequate iron intake in children 3 years and under.
C)are served by SNAP, WIC, and school lunch.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the correct interpretation of an adolescent who has a BMI above the 85th percentile?
A)The adolescent is overweight.
B)The adolescent is obese.
C)The adolescent is at risk for becoming overweight.
D)The adolescent is overfat.
Q2) How can an adolescent plan a vegetarian diet that is in line with the DRIs and Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
A)By focusing on a vegan diet
B)By ensuring adequate legumes, nuts, and whole grains
C)By including fish
D)By including eggs and dairy foods
Q3) Which of the following is a method for rating sexual maturation?
A)Periods of adolescence
B)Gynecologic age
C)Tanner stages
D)Peak gain velocity
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is A)accidents.
B)cancer.
C)diabetes.
D)heart disease.
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of the decreased circulation of estrogen associated with menopause?
A)Increase in bone remodeling
B)Increase in HDL levels
C)Increase in LDL levels
D)Increase in energy levels
Q3) Endogenous toxins are
A)the same as xenobiotics.
B)from environmental pollutants.
C)end products of metabolism.
D)prebiotics.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition in Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased intake of which nutrient may be required in a patient who has pressure ulcers?
A)Water
B)Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C)Protein
D)Potassium
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of The Dining Practice Standards?
A)Are guidelines for long-term care dining
B)Recommend against canned nutrition supplements
C)They encourage strict dietary control for diabetes and heart disease
D)They are endorsed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Q3) What is dysgeusia?
A)Diminished sense of smell
B)Loss of sense of taste
C)Dry mouth from decreased salivation
D)Result of hypochlorhydria
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Chapter 21: Nutrition in Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results from the use of fasting as a means of weight loss?
A)Excessive weight gain after refeeding
B)An initial rapid weight loss from diuresis
C)A decrease in ketone formation
D)Carbohydrate craving
Q2) Gout may develop during fasting or after very low-calorie diets.This occurs because elevated ketones are impeding the elimination of
A)uric acid.
B)creatinine.
C)sodium.
D)potassium.
Q3) Obese women should lose weight before becoming pregnant because of the possible impact of what compound released when adipose tissue is mobilized?
A)Ghrelin
B)Insulin
C)Semi-volatile organic compounds
D)Pro- and antiinflammatory cytokines
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Chapter 22: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many calories should be provided in the diet of a patient with anorexia nervosa to initiate weight gain?
A)25 to 30 kcal/kg/day
B)30 to 40 kcal/kg/day
C)40 to 50 kcal/kg/day
D)70 to 100 kcal/kg/day
Q2) After a binge episode, how much of the energy intake can be eliminated through purging?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)None
Q3) Urine specific gravity should be checked when patients being treated for eating disorders are weighed to
A)monitor for muscle wasting.
B)check for dehydration or fluid loading.
C)check for presence of ketones.
D)identify use of medications to suppress appetite or promote purging.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) For athletes participating in events lasting more than 1 hour, what can a pre-event high-carbohydrate intake do?
A)It can cause hyperglycemia.
B)It can increase muscle glycogen stores.
C)It can cause hypotension.
D)It can improve strength during an event.
Q2) During extended physical activity, such as endurance events, the major fuels used for cellular energy are
A)glucose and fatty acids.
B)glycogen and ketones.
C)amino acids and fatty acids.
D)glucose and ketones.
Q3) A desirable pre-event meal 3 to 4 hours before competition is one that provides A)high fiber and vitamin content.
B)200 to 350 g of carbohydrate and is low in fat.
C)an equal mix of protein and carbohydrate.
D)200 to 350 g of protein and fat and is low in carbohydrate.
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25
Chapter 24: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bone measurements is more appropriate for individuals from late adolescence to the elderly years?
A)BMC
B)BMD
C)PBM
D)Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) When is the peak bone mass of a female typically achieved?
A)By the end of adolescence
B)By approximately 30 years of age
C)Within the decade preceding menopause
D)After the onset of menopause
Q3) Which of the following changes related to nutrition and bone metabolism does NOT occur in elderly subjects?
A)Decreased intake of protein
B)Reduction of skin biosynthesis of vitamin D
C)Increased renal excretion of calcium
D)Decline in osteoblast function
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26
Chapter 25: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appropriate dietary management for a patient with Sjögren syndrome?
A)Provide foods that are pureed in form.
B)Provide oral liquid supplements.
C)Provide moist, soft, nonspicy food.
D)Begin fluid restriction.
Q2) Which of the following foods would be identified to a patient as being potentially cariogenic?
A)Raw carrots and apples
B)Cheddar cheese
C)Butter
D)Crackers and pretzels
Q3) The ingestion of which of the following is most likely to promote bacterial activity that promotes dental caries?
A)Sucrose, glucose, and fructose
B)Xylitol, mannitol, and lactose
C)Aspartame, saccharin, and cyclamate
D)Xylitol, saccharin, and galactose
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Chapter 26: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Adverse
Reactions to Food: Allergies and Intolerances
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Q1) Food allergies that are most likely to resolve with age are those that first manifest during the first _____ of life.
A)year
B)3 years
C)10 years
D)15 years
Q2) A child develops gastrointestinal symptoms after drinking fruit juice.This is an example of what type of condition?
A)Food allergy
B)Food aversion
C)Food hypersensitivity
D)Food intolerance
Q3) Which age group is most likely to develop food hypersensitivity?
A)0 to 2 years of age
B)3 to 12 years of age
C)Adolescents
D)Elderly
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true for diet recommendations after Nissen fundoplication?
A)Start with clear liquid diet.
B)Advance to full liquid diet.
C)Consume multiple, small meals.
D)Avoid dry, hard foods.
Q2) A patient with gastroparesis may benefit by which of these drugs?
A)Metoclopramide
B)Aspirin
C)Acarbose
D)Simethicone
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT associated with Helicobacter pylori?
A)H.pylori increases the risk of atrophic gastritis and gastric cancer.
B)H.pylori is a viral infection found in the intestine.
C)H.pylori is a bacterial infection found in the gastric mucosa.
D)H.pylori infection may be treated with antibiotics and acid suppression therapies.
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should patients with Crohn disease be monitored for when experiencing diarrhea?
A)Calcium and phosphorus status
B)Magnesium and iron status
C)Zinc and potassium status
D)Iron and selenium status
Q2) What should be included in the initial treatment of diarrhea?
A)Low-fat, low-fiber diet
B)Replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes
C)Increase of high-pectin foods
D)High-fiber diet to increase stool bulk and restore normal bowel motility
Q3) Why do renal oxalate stones form as a consequence of ileal resection?
A)Inadequate intake of dietary fiber and water
B)Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins
C)Malabsorption of calcium, zinc, and magnesium
D)Malabsorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> and intrinsic factor complex
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used in the medical treatment of ascites?
A)Shunt placement
B)Whipple procedure
C)Paracentesis
D)Shock-wave lithotripsy
Q2) Which of the following is characterized by the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct?
A)Cholangitis
B)Cholecystitis
C)Choledocholithiasis
D)Cirrhosis
Q3) A deficiency of which nutrient is associated with Wernicke encephalopathy?
A)Copper
B)Essential fatty acid
C)Tryptophan
D)Thiamin
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Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must a patient demonstrate to be a candidate for use of oral glucose-lowering medications?
A)Functioning alpha-cells in the pancreas
B)Functioning beta-cells in the pancreas
C)Functioning gastrointestinal mucosa
D)Resistance to insulin at all times
Q2) Which of the following criteria is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
A)Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dl
B)HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C)Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dl or greater
D)All of the above
Q3) Which insulin peaks in activity 2 to 3 hours after injection?
A)Lispro (Humalog)
B)Detemir (Levemir)
C)NPH
D)Regular
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid, Adrenal, and
Other Endocrine
Disorders
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Q1) Maintaining thyroid hormone function throughout the aging process appears to be an important hallmark of healthy aging.What characteristic is an indicator of thyroid health in centenarians?
A)Decreased free T4 and rT3 levels
B)An increased libido
C)Constant cortisol production
D)The absence of circulating thyroid autoantibodies
Q2) More than 90% of people with autoimmune thyroid disease have a genetic defect affecting their ability to metabolize what?
A)Vitamin D
B)Flavonoids
C)Selenium
D)Tyrosine
Q3) A rare primary adrenal insufficiency in which insufficient levels of steroid hormones are produced despite adequate levels of the hormone ACTH is known as A)adrenal fatigue.
B)Addison disease.
C)Cushing syndrome.
D)euthyroid sick syndrome.
33
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Which form of folate is the one that becomes "trapped" when vitamin B deficiency occurs?
A)Folate
B)THFA
C)5-Methyl THFA
D)5,10-Methyl THFA
Q2) Foods high in _____ should be avoided by individuals with sickle cell anemia.
A)protein
B)folate
C)iron
D)vitamin A
Q3) Although severe microcytic hypochromic anemia is present, which of the following is also a characteristic of sideroblastic anemia?
A)Iron overload
B)Low serum iron levels
C)High serum iron and low tissue iron levels
D)Low tissue iron levels
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following causes blood pressure to increase?
A)Vasodilation
B)Decreased cardiac output
C)Decreased vascular resistance
D)Increased peripheral resistance
Q2) Which of the following lipoproteins normally returns most of the cholesterol to the liver for disposal via reverse transport?
A)Chylomicrons
B)VLDL
C)LDL
D)HDL
Q3) Which of the following promotes homeostatic control of blood pressure in the short term?
A)Kidney control of fluid levels
B)Sympathetic nervous system secretion of norepinephrine
C)Secretion of renin from the nephrons
D)Activation of the renin-angiotensin system
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Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) The primary cause of aspiration pneumonia is
A)drinking water or other thin liquids.
B)tube feeding at a high rate per hour.
C)weak muscles.
D)excessive lung secretion.
Q2) What is the effect of pulmonary disease on a patient's energy requirements?
A)Decreased need for energy because of loss of lean body mass
B)Increased need for energy because of increased work of breathing
C)Decreased need for energy because of a lack of physical activity
D)Decreased need for energy because of starvation
Q3) Which of the following is(are) synthesized in the lungs?
A)Angiotensin I
B)Arachidonic acid
C)Prostaglandins
D)Hemoglobin
Q4) Which of the following is a disease of bronchial hyperresponsiveness?
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Emphysema
C)Tuberculosis
D)Asthma
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) A reduction in which of the following parameters is the first alteration that leads to the development of chronic renal failure or end-stage renal disease?
A)Blood pressure
B)Left ventricular ejection
C)Blood volume
D)Glomerular filtration rate
Q2) Which of the following foods does NOT potentially increase the acidity of urine?
A)Lemons
B)Cranberries
C)Chicken
D)Spaghetti noodles
Q3) Which of the following can minimize the resorption effects of increased parathormone on bone calcium that occurs in renal disease?
A)eliminating carbonated beverages to decrease phosphates
B)using thiazide diuretics to eliminate calcium
C)supplementing calcium early in the disease
D)decreasing protein products high in phosphate
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Chapter 36: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
Prevention, Treatment, and Survivorship
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Q1) In carcinogenesis, which step does NOT necessarily occur in tumor development?
A)Initiation
B)Promotion
C)Progression
D)Metastasis
Q2) For which of the following problems associated with cancer treatment should a high-calorie diet supplemented with calorically dense foods be provided?
A)Constipation
B)Xerostomia
C)Anorexia
D)Neutropenia
Q3) Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
A)should never be treated with parenteral nutrition.
B)always occurs immediately after transplant.
C)is a minor complication of chemotherapy.
D)is a major complication seen primarily after allogenic transplants.
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Chapter 37: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hiv and Aids
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Q1) What opportunistic infection manifests as purple nodules or lesions on the skin and mucous membranes?
A)Candidiasis
B)Herpes zoster
C)Kaposi sarcoma
D)Pneumococcal sinusitis
Q2) Hepatoxicity in association with treatment with nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, and protease inhibitors is associated with what opportunistic infection?
A)Mycobacterium avium
B)Cryptosporidiosis
C)Hepatitis C virus
D)Dysesthesia
Q3) Hepatitis C virus coinfection with HIV is highly correlated with A)men who have sex with men.
B)injection drug use.
C)poverty.
D)low literacy rates.
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Chapter 38: Medical Nutrition Therapy in Critical Care
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Q1) How does the gut hypothesis explain the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome?
A)Injury or disruption of the gut barrier function allows bacterial translocation to occur.
B)Active feeding of the gut promotes the migration of gut-associated lymphoid tissue.
C)Bypassing feeding of the gut via parenteral nutrition promotes infection through open access to the blood system.
D)Foodborne illness promotes absorption of foodborne pathogens, increasing infection.
Q2) Which hormone promotes the synthesis of acute-phase proteins?
A)Glucagon
B)Cortisol
C)Epinephrine
D)ACTH
Q3) In contrast to stress, which of the following is a characteristic of starvation?
A)Increased resting energy expenditure
B)Decreased energy expenditure
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased nitrogen excretion
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Chapter 39: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is NOT a disease of autoimmune origin?
A)OA
B)RA
C)SLE
D)Scleroderma
Q2) What is the role of prostacyclin or PGI ?
A)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE<sub>1</sub>
B)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE<sub>2</sub>
C)Promotes platelet aggregation
D)Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q3) With what do the plasma copper levels seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis correlate?
A)Dietary intake of copper
B)Type of medication
C)Degree of joint inflammation
D)Degree of malabsorption and diarrhea
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Chapter 40: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) What is the guideline for accepted weight adjusted for quadriplegia?
A)Ideal body weight (IBW) as determined by the Hamwi formula
B)10 to 15 lb less than IBW as determined by the Hamwi formula
C)10 to 15 lb less than ideal body mass index (BMI)
D)15 to 20 lb less than ideal BMI
Q2) Because of potential drug-nutrient interactions, it would be more beneficial to provide the majority of their dietary protein to patients with Parkinson disease
A)during breakfast.
B)at the noon meal.
C)evenly throughout the day.
D)with the evening meal.
Q3) A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has a rating of 3 or 4 on the swallowing severity scale.Which of the following interventions would be recommended in the medical nutrition therapy plan?
A)A regular diet with small, frequent feedings
B)Modification of dietary consistency and texture
C)Supplemental tube feedings
D)Nothing by mouth (NPO)
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Chapter 41: Mnt in Psychiatric and Cognitive Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following conditions may be improved by supplementation of long-chain fatty acids?
A)Anxiety disorder
B)Eating disorders
C)Depression
D)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Q2) What is the recommendation of the International Society for the Study of Fatty Acids and Lipids (ISSFAL) for the daily intake of DHA and EPA?
A)220 mg of each daily
B)500 mg combined daily
C)Total of 1100 mg daily
D)Total of 1600 mg daily
Q3) Flavonoid-rich foods include
A)peaches, apricots, and sweet potatoes.
B)fish and seafood.
C)kale, broccoli, and spinach.
D)apples, oranges, berries, and chocolate.
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Chapter 42: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) How much fluid should be provided to an LBW infant during the first day of life?
A)40 to 85 ml/kg
B)50 to 100 ml/kg
C)80 to 105 ml/kg
D)1000 ml total
Q2) Which of the following is NOT adequately provided to preterm infants through the use of human milk fortifiers?
A)Zinc
B)Calcium
C)Phosphorus
D)Iron
Q3) Compared with term infants, preterm infants have an increased need for vitamin A)A.
B)C.
C)D.
D)E.
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Chapter 43: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
A)Hereditary glucose intolerance
B)Glycogen storage disease
C)Galactosemia
D)Fructose 1,6-diphosphatase deficiency
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the enzyme deficiencies associated with urea cycle disorders?
A)Ornithine transcarbamylase
B)HMG-CoA reductase
C)Carbamyl-phosphate synthetase
D)Arginase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the nutritional treatments that would be provided to patients with metabolic disorders?
A)Restrict the amount of a specific substrate (nutrient) in the diet.
B)Supplement the diet with a greater amount of a "safe" product of metabolism.
C)Replace the defective enzyme through the diet.
D)Supplement the defective enzyme cofactor.
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Chapter 44: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Which developmental disorder is characterized by the child having an insatiable appetite?
A)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)Spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q2) Children with _____ may be affected by Arnold Chiari malformation of the brain.
A)autism
B)spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q3) Children with which of the following disorders are LEAST likely to have short stature?
A)Down syndrome
B)Cerebral palsy
C)Autism
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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