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Course Introduction
Nutrition for Health Professionals offers an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application within clinical, community, and public health settings. The course covers macronutrients and micronutrients, dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment techniques, and the role of nutrition in preventing and managing chronic diseases. Students will analyze current research, learn to interpret scientific data, and develop evidence-based dietary recommendations for diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on cultural, ethical, and professional considerations, equipping future health professionals with the knowledge and skills needed to promote optimal nutritional health and well-being in a variety of healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Q1) Identify goals for Mr. Lew, relating to nutrition. Be specific as to protein needs.
Answer: Mr. Lew will stabilize fluid and electrolyte balance within 24-48 hours; receive adequate nutrients to meet nutritional needs (typically 30-35 calories per kilogram of body weight); gain 0.25-0.5 lb/kg a week. Protein needs are greater in those recovering from alcoholism. Goal would be to consume 1-2 grams per kilogram of body weight daily. The extra protein is needed for cell growth and muscle and tissue repair. He will need to have protein added to meals as well as one to three snacks per day with added protein.
Resource: Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Nutrition Care Manual
Q2) Which of the following nutrients help build and repair body tissues?
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)fats
D)lipids
Answer: A
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Q1) MyPlate suggests that wine be consumed in moderation. Describe what this means and how it is different for men and women.
Answer: Wine may be consumed with meals-one to two 5-oz glasses per day for men and one 5-oz glass per day for women.
Q2) Chinese cooking may cause a problem for people with high blood pressure because of the extensive use of soy sauce, which is high in ____.
A)sugar
B)salt
C)iron
D)fat
Answer: B
Q3) Fruits provide all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)protein
B)vitamin A
C)vitamin C
D)potassium
Answer: A
Q4) Use approximate measures to determine Haley's usual caloric intake for 1 day.
Answer: 3,000-3,200 calories
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Q1) ____ is the process that uses released energy to convert substances to simpler products.
A)Aerobic metabolism
B)Catabolism
C)Anaerobic metabolism
D)Anabolism
Answer: B
Q2) Which one is NOT a role of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
A)activates the enzyme pepsin
B)destroys bacteria in food
C)destroys antibodies
D)aids in the solubility of iron and calcium
Answer: C
Q3) The process of digestion begins in the ____.
A)esophagus
B)stomach
C)mouth
D)small intestine
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following hormones controls the rate of glucose metabolism?
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)islets of Langerhans
D)steroids
Q2) Carbohydrates are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and supply the major source of energy for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disaccharides are simple sugars that may be absorbed from the intestine directly into the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Jill and Henry both have difficulty with constipation. What food sources provide fiber in the diet? What food sources can you recommend to aid this problem? Why have they limited the fiber in their diet? What is the dietary requirement for fiber?
Q5) Carbohydrates are required by the body to furnish adequate fiber needed. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Why might fat alternatives cause health concerns?
A)Long-term effects are unknown.
B)They contain high concentrations of vitamins and minerals.
C)They are high in calories.
D)Fat alternatives do not cause health concerns.
Q2) What factors could have contributed to his weight?
Q3) The Food and Nutrition Board's Committee on Diet and Health recommends that people reduce their fat intake to _____ of total calories.
A)25%
B)35%
C)20%
D)30%
Q4) What indicators are clues to Reinay's weight-conscious habits?
Q5) Where is the primary location for fat digestion?
A)large intestine
B)liver
C)small intestine
D)kidney
Q6) What are trans-fatty acids? What effect do they have on cholesterol levels? In what foods are they found?
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Q1) The average adult daily requirement is 0.8 g of protein per kilogram of body weight. Ariel weighs 110 pounds. What is the adult daily requirement of protein for her?
Q2) List the symptoms of kwashiorkor.
Q3) Discuss the impact of protein deficiency on the body.
Q4) Which enzyme finally reduces proteins to amino acids?
A)chymotrypsin
B)carboxypeptidase
C)trypsin
D)intestinal peptidases
Q5) Each gram of protein provides _____ calories.
A)4
B)7
C)9
D)11
Q6) Calculate the number of grams of protein that would be needed by a healthy adult who weighs 220 pounds.
Q7) Describe the conditions under which the body would use protein as a source of energy.
Q8) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?
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Q1) What should you tell her about vitamins in general, or the usual need for vitamins?
Q2) Describe the types of people who are prone to vitamin deficiencies.
Q3) Which vitamin B is stable in heat and is not destroyed during storage?
A)thiamine
B)riboflavin
C)niacin
D)vitamin B6
Q4) What is one possible consequence of hypervitaminosis of vitamin A?
A)xerostomia
B)kidney disease
C)diabetes
D)liver damage
Q5) Describe why mineral oil should not be used as a laxative.
Q6) Ms. Salmendos asks you, "Who are vitamins meant for, and why is it such a big business if people do not need supplements?"
Q7) The deficiency of vitamin D in young children may cause night blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the use of vitamin E in premature infants and the elderly.
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Q1) Describe the function of potassium.
Q2) Zinc is a cofactor for more than 300 enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What mineral is the most prevalent mineral in the body?
A)iron
B)phosphorus
C)calcium
D)potassium
Q4) Most minerals in food occur as salts. Describe preparation methods for foods that contain mineral salts.
Q5) What is the best food source of sodium?
Q6) The adequate intake of fluoride remains the same from infancy throughout the life cycle because the bones and teeth are fully developed by early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the results of taking in excessive amounts of minerals.
Q8) Ms. James asks you to recommend the best food sources of calcium.
Q9) What are the symptoms of potassium deficiency?
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Q1) How much water loss can result in circulatory failure?
A)10%
B)less than 10%
C)20% or more
D)50%
Q2) What are the solutes that maintain the balance between intracellular and extracellular fluids?
A)potassium, phosphorus, and chloride
B)sodium, potassium, and chloride
C)calcium, phosphorus, and potassium
D)sodium and copper
Q3) List expected outcomes:
Q4) If your body needs 2,000 calories daily, then you should consume 1,000 mL of water in order to maintain hydration and fluid balance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a buffer system and what mixture maintains the body's main buffer system?
Q6) List conditions when the need for fluids is increased.
Q7) List substances included in measurement of intake and output.
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Q1) Women with smaller-sized breasts will be unable to produce enough milk to satisfy an infant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) "Will I have to stop drinking coffee if I breastfeed?"
Q3) List the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q4) Discuss four priority nutritional concerns for the pregnant woman. Include nursing interventions to relieve the symptoms.
Q5) When the mother drinks alcohol, it enters the fetal blood stream in the same concentration as it does the mother's.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Macrosomia refers to birthweight of over _____ pounds. A)7

Q7) "If I eat all those additional calories, how will I ever lose all of the extra weight I have gained?"
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Q1) How can you account for the underweight condition and the psychosocial withdrawal of Lucia?
Q2) Breast milk provides all the nutrients needed by the infant except iron.
A)True B)False
Q3) What are outcomes that ensure that the infant is receiving sufficient nutrition and calories from breastfeeding?
Q4) Excessive amounts of vitamin A can damage the infant's kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List nursing interventions that may be used to achieve nutritional goal attainment.
Q6) What is the best food for a premature infant?
A)whole milk
B)breast milk
C)2% milk
D)infant formula
Q7) An infant with galactosemia who is fed lactose-free formula will have all its nutritional needs met. As the infant grows to become an adult, what type of nutrient supplements will be needed?
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is associated with cancer of the throat and esophagus?
A)alcoholism
B)sedentary lifestyle
C)diabetes
D)hypertension
Q2) Whole milk is recommended for children 2 years and older.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia are only seen in female adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some factors that can worsen an adolescent's weight problem?
Q5) Describe the rate of growth and the appetite of a child between the ages of 1 and 3 years.
Q6) From ages 1 to 10, as a child grows, calorie needs decrease but nutrient needs increase.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason for poor nutrition in an elderly person?
A)poor dentation
B)depression
C)fad diets
D)poor appetite
Q2) What are the three basic components of an assessment?
Q3) As the body ages, what tends to occur?
A)bone density and metabolism increase
B)lean muscle mass increases
C)fat decreases
D)bone density and metabolism decrease
Q4) Ms. Leonas asks you why the physician cannot order her a drug to reduce her elevated cholesterol, rather than her going on a strict diet. How would you respond?
Q5) The most common cause of overweight is lack of exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Osteoporosis is becoming a common occurrence in the young to middle adulthood age groups. A healthy diet is very important in the care of this condition. A diet rich in what nutrients is thought to help prevent osteoporosis?
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Q1) When using BMI, which parameters define overweight?
A)below 18.5
B)18.5-24.9
C)25.0-29.9
D)30.0 or higher
Q2) Regardless of which type of eating pattern is chosen for weight loss, ___________ change is absolutely required.
A)metabolic
B)physical
C)behavior
D)psychological
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a core principle of motivational interviewing?
A)expressing empathy
B)rolling with resistance
C)mandating progress
D)developing discrepancy
Q4) Describe the optimal way to increase caloric intake for an underweight individual.
Q5) Compare the physiology of a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) with that of an adjustable gastric band (AGB).
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Q1) What are the goals for the treatment of diabetes?
Q2) What are the expected lab results for someone with pre-diabetes?
Q3) Medical treatment of diabetes focuses on what topics?
Q4) Describe dietary management for gestational diabetes.
Q5) What are the goals for medical nutrition therapy for diabetes?
Q6) Formulate nursing diagnosis statements for Mary.
Q7) When increasing one's fiber intake, one must also increase _____ intake.
A)fat
B)carbohydrate
C)water
D)protein
Q8) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q9) Which condition may result when clients do not eat the prescribed diet, yet still continue to take the prescribed meal-time insulin?
A)hyperglycemia
B)ketosis
C)hypoglycemia
D)hypertension

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Q10) Differentiate gestational diabetes from type 1 diabetes.
Q11) What data are used to validate the condition?
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Q1) What is the name of the condition in which blood flow, and thus oxygen and nutrients, to the tissues is reduced?
A)ischemia
B)angina pectoris
C)hyperlipidemia
D)hypertension
Q2) The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) plan has been shown to reduce high blood pressure. A core component of this plan is to increase consumption of fruits and vegetables. How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day are encouraged on this plan? List four potassium-rich fruits and vegetables.
Q3) Recent research indicates that fats are a primary factor in the development of hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the formation of plaque.
Q5) What predisposing factors have increased Ed's risk for hypertension?
Q6) Discuss the goal and recommendations for the dietary management of James. State nursing interventions to obtain that goal.
Q7) After the initial attack, what diet will James be given?
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Q1) _____ is a condition in which protein wastes that should have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood.
A)Acute renal failure
B)Oliguria
C)Uremia
D)Nephritis
Q2) Approximately how many liters of urine are excreted per day?
A)10 L
B)5 L
C)1.5 L
D)15 L
Q3) State nursing interventions for Hazel.
Q4) _____ is/are usually restricted to 1,500 to 2,500 mg a day for dialysis clients.
A)Potassium
B)Calcium
C)Protein
D)Fats
Q5) Describe the function and the action of the kidneys.
Q6) What is the dietary regimen for prevention of kidney stones?
Q7) Hazel's dietary intake is inadequate. How can you get her to eat more?
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Q1) Describe the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis.
Q2) Celiac disease is a disorder characterized by malabsorption of virtually all nutrients and is caused by recurrent diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diet therapy for pancreatitis is intended to reduce stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. The type of diet used is a liquid diet consisting mainly of carbohydrates because they have the least stimulating effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What pathology results in edema and ascites in the late stages of cirrhosis?
Q5) The liver is of major importance in the process of metabolism. Which of the following functions is NOT performed in the liver?
A)Bile is stored
B)Cholesterol is synthesized
C)Bile is synthesized
D)Fats are converted to lipoproteins
Q6) How can the nurse determine if Laura is ready to begin to eat food?
Q7) Describe the incidence of cholecystitis.
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Q1) What is the term used for cancerous tumor?
A)neoplasm
B)benign growth
C)cachexia
D)carcinogen
Q2) What type of diet is recommended for a cancer client who has chewing difficulty?
A) liquid diet
B) soft diet
C) low-residue diet
D) high-fiber diet
Q3) _____ is the study of cancer.
A)Gerontology
B)Carcinology
C)Oncology
D)Neurology
Q4) Lymphomas develop from white blood cells and affect bone marrow and the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What nutritional conditions result from use of chemotherapy?
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Q1) One substance that causes food poisoning is mold. Describe the allergic reactions to molds, the symptoms, and preventive measures.
Q2) Which organism is commonly found in contaminated soil, food, and water as well as in recreational water sources?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Clostridium perfringens
D)Cryptosporidium
Q3) What is the most common microorganism found in seafood?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Contaminated food always looks, smells, or tastes different from non-contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the population groups most likely to become very ill or die from food poisoning.
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Q1) What vitamins and minerals are used prior to surgery to improve nutritional status, and what are their functions?
Q2) What factor is related to weight loss in the AIDS client?
A)Medication used to treat AIDS destroys the protein stores.
B)Appetite and the body's ability to absorb nutrients are decreased.
C)Depression decreases the appetite and causes lethargy.
D)Fever increases the metabolism and burns the extra calories.
Q3) Acute or chronic illness or surgery can devastate one's nutritional status. Describe the effects.
Q4) Describe symptoms and pathology of the dumping syndrome.
Q5) Extra ____ is needed for wound healing, tissue building, and blood regeneration.
A)vitamin B
B)protein
C)vitamin D
D)carbohydrate
Q6) Describe postsurgery nutritional care.
Q7) In relation to mealtime, what important information should be added to the client's chart?
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Q8) Define xerostomia and discuss its causes. How can xerostomia be alleviated?
Q9) Why is it recommended to clients to lose weight prior to surgery?
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