Nutrition Assessment Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Nutrition Assessment provides students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to evaluate the nutritional status of individuals and populations. The course covers methods such as dietary intake analysis, anthropometric measurements, biochemical and clinical assessments, and explores the interpretation of assessment data in the context of health promotion and disease prevention. Emphasis is placed on integrating assessment results into effective nutrition care plans, understanding evidence-based guidelines, and considering cultural, social, and economic factors that influence nutrition assessment and intervention.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 14th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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44 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Intake: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption occurs in the stomach for which of the following nutrients?
A)Vitamins
B)Carbohydrates
C)Minerals
D)Alcohol
Answer: D
Q2) What are primarily absorbed by the large intestine?
A)Water and fats
B)Carbohydrates
C)Proteins
D)Water and electrolytes
Answer: D
Q3) What effect may be achieved by eating a diet high in prebiotic carbohydrates?
A)Decreased SCFA production in the bowel
B)Increased growth of Lactobacillus spp.
C)Decreased absorption of bile salts
D)Increased absorption of cation minerals
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Intake: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fat
C)Regular eating schedule
D)Spicy foods
Answer: B
Q2) A respiratory quotient of 0.64 would most likely occur in which of these patients?
A)A pregnant woman
B)A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
C)A trauma patient in the ICU
D)Someone who had just eaten a high-fat meal
Answer: B
Q3) A particular food provides 100 kcal.How many kJ does this equal?
A)420
B)480
C)4200
D)4800
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Inflammation and the Pathophysiology of Chronic
Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic inflammation is associated with ______________.
A)a progressive shift in the type of cells present at the site of inflammation
B)production of cytokines
C)loss of the body's ability to recognize "self"
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Dietary factors that help to maintain healthy fluid viscosity and therefore a healthy immune system include all EXCEPT
A)carbohydrate.
B)hydration.
C)vitamin E.
D)monounsaturated fat.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following nutrients may contribute physiologically to all immune responses?
A)Vitamin E
B)Vitamin C
C)Vitamin D
D)Folate
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening?
A)Should be able to be done quickly
B)Should include weight history
C)Should be done by dietitians
D)Should be setting specific
Q2) What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency?
A)The patient's level of literacy
B)The time required to collect data
C)The lack of tools for conducting these
D)Reliance on the patient's memory
Q3) The MNA short form has been validated for use in what population?
A)Critically ill elderly
B)Surgical populations
C)Subacute and ambulatory elderly
D)Children
Q4) Smartphones are now a legitimate method to record food intake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Clinical: Nutritional Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What syndrome results from inheriting two copies of a deletion in chromosome 15 from the father?
A)William syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Angelman syndrome
D)Klinefelter syndrome
Q2) Which type of disorders are the most common of the mendelian inherited disorders?
A)Autosomal recessive diseases
B)Autosomal dominant diseases
C)X-linked dominant diseases
D)X-linked recessive diseases
Q3) Which of the following is a syndrome caused by extra chromosomes?
A)William syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Angelman syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eating which of the following would most increase dietary potassium intake?
A)Fruits and vegetables
B)Saltwater fish
C)Grains
D)Cereals
Q2) Which effect is of greatest concern in water intoxication?
A)Increased volume of the brain cells
B)Hypertension
C)Decreased circulating blood volume
D)Increased urinary output
Q3) Which of the following results from ingesting a large amount of sodium in a short time?
A)Hypotension
B)Muscular cramps
C)Increased urinary calcium excretion
D)Increased urinary output of potassium
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Chapter 7: Clinical: Biochemical, Physical, and Functional Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) BMIs of _______ are associated with increased risk of mortality in those 65 and older.
A)less than 23
B)less than 18.5
C)greater than 24.9
D)there is no association between BMI and risk of mortality
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in prealbumin levels?
A)Malnutrition
B)Inflammation
C)Protein-wasting disease of the gastrointestinal tract
D)Zinc deficiency
Q3) Which indicator of protein status has the longest half-life?
A)Albumin
B)Prealbumin
C)Retinol-binding protein
D)Transferrin
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gastrointestinal side effect commonly seen when narcotic drugs such as codeine and morphine are administered is
A)a change in taste.
B)constipation.
C)gastrointestinal bleeding.
D)anorexia.
Q2) Decreased serum albumin levels, which are seen in many conditions, including malnutrition and liver disease, affect medications by
A)leading to decreased serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
B)leading to increased serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
C)leading to decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver.
D)leading to decreased pharmacologic effects.
Q3) Patients receiving anticonvulsant medications, such as phenytoin and phenobarbital, may need to be supplemented with which nutrients?
A)Ascorbic acid and vitamin A
B)Ascorbic acid and vitamin D
C)Folate and vitamin D
D)Iron and vitamin A
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Chapter 9: Behavioral-Environmental: the Individual in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the core functions of public health?
A)Community assessment
B)Food security
C)Policy development
D)Public health assurance
Q2) While performing a community assessment, you determine that you need information about local cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.Which of the following would be an appropriate resource for this information?
A)Census Bureau
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)Department of Health and Human Services
D)Area Office on Aging
Q3) Which of the following is a qualification for a school to receive federal cash reimbursement and food donations under the National School Lunch Program?
A)The school must be located in a low-income urban area.
B)The school must be located in a low-income rural area.
C)The school must serve a lunch meeting specific nutritional requirements.
D)The school must serve a minimum of 200 meals per day 5 days each week.
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Chapter 10: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of a sentinel event?
A)It is an unanticipated event that involves serious injury or death.
B)It marks a point in the care of the patient that will extend their DRG.
C)The outcomes of the event must be documented in the medical record.
D)It can be psychologic injury.
Q2) The Joint Commission requires the identification of nutrition risk of hospital patients to occur within
A)12 hours of admission.
B)24 hours of admission.
C)48 hours of admission.
D)24 hours of admission, except on the weekend.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding The Joint Commission?
A)Accreditation by The Joint Commission is required by hospitals.
B)To maintain accreditation, a hospital must undergo a Joint Commission survey every 5 years.
C)The Joint Commission specifies that a qualified dietitian must be involved in establishing a hospital's nutrition care process.
D)The three sections of the "Accreditation Manual for Hospital" are patient-focused functions, staff-focused functions, and structures with functions.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Diet Guidelines,
Nutrient Standards, and Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the Daily Reference Intake (DRI)?
A)Adequate Intake (AI)
B)Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C)Healthy Eating Index (HEI)
D)Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Q2) MyPyramid was developed by
A)USDA and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).
B)the National Cancer Institute.
C)the Food and Drug Administration.
D)the Ministry of Health.
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be required to have a nutrition label?
A)Canned corn
B)Hot dogs
C)Fresh ground turkey
D)American cheese
Q4) An example of an approved health claim is:
A)acai berries help prevent cancer.
B)grapefruit can assist in weight loss because it helps burn calories.
C)diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure.
D)eating fish meals twice a week can improve immunocompetence.
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Chapter 12: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Complementary and
Integrative Medicine and Dietary Supplementation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of claims was first established under DSHEA?
A)Authoritative statements
B)Health claims
C)Nutrition claims
D)Structure-function claims
Q2) For which medical diagnosis is CAM most frequently used in the United States?
A)Headache
B)Arthritis
C)Head cold
D)Back pain
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that there has been an increased usage of CAM in the United States?
A)CAM is not as expensive as conventional medicine.
B)CAM is used when conventional medicine has little to offer in effective treatment.
C)CAM is used when conventional medicine has significant risks and side effects.
D)CAM has a history of efficacy in treatment of some conditions.
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14
Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) After assessment of a patient has determined that oral intake is inadequate, what is the next determination to be made?
A)Is the GI tract functional?
B)What type of tube should be placed?
C)What type of formula should be used?
D)What amount and composition of TPN are appropriate?
Q2) Which one of these routes of parenteral access is considered long term?
A)Peripheral intravenous catheter
B)Peripherally inserted central catheter
C)Single-lumen catheter inserted into the subclavian vein
D)Catheter inserted into the external jugular vein
Q3) The calorie concentration provided by most general-purpose formulas is _____ kcal/ml.
A)0.5
B)1 to 1.2
C)1.5
D)2
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15
Chapter 14: Education and Counseling: Behavioral Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) When counseling a client who speaks a different language, the most effective way to communicate is to
A)use a family member or close friend who speaks the language and can translate.
B)use a visual aid that has been developed using international symbols.
C)find a counselor who speaks the same language and can do the counseling.
D)use a certified translator.
Q2) Assessment of a patient's stage of change should be completed
A)when the patient is referred for counseling.
B)at the beginning of the first counseling session.
C)by the end of the first counseling session.
D)before the second counseling session.
Q3) If a counseling session ends with the client not ready to change, which of the following should the counselor do?
A)Establish goals for the client.
B)Arrange for follow-up contact.
C)Persuade the client to perform some change.
D)Express disappointment with the client.
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Chapter 15: Nutrition for Reproductive Health and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the first 6 months of lactation, what is the recommended energy intake?
A)200 kcal less than the amount for pregnant women
B)330 kcal more than the amount for nonpregnant women
C)550 kcal more than the amount for pregnant women
D)The same as the amount for pregnant women in the third trimester
Q2) What recommendation about sodium should be given for pregnant women?
A)Aggressive restriction is warranted.
B)Sodium intake should be above 2 to 3 g/day.
C)Sodium intake should not exceed 1 g/day.
D)Sodium intake should not exceed 2 g/day.
Q3) A woman has a BMI indicating overweight before pregnancy.Which of the following guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy is recommended?
A)Weight gain is contraindicated during this pregnancy.
B)Guidelines for weight gain for overweight women are not currently established.
C)Weight gain should be controlled to 15 to 25 lb.
D)It is not necessary to control weight gain during pregnancy.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition in Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the growth expectations for most infants?
A)The birth weight is usually regained by the end of the first month.
B)Infants triple their birth weight by 6 months of age.
C)Infants double their birth weight by 4 to 6 months of age.
D)Infants triple their length by 3 years of age.
Q2) What would be a behavior demonstrated by a 7- to 9-month-old to indicate that she is sated and finished eating?
A)She falls asleep.
B)She pays more attention to her surroundings.
C)She plays with or throws her utensils.
D)She hands her cup or bottle to her mother.
Q3) What are the recommended guidelines regarding the use of low-fat and nonfat milk for infants?
A)These are appropriate for overweight infants during the first year.
B)These are appropriate for any infant during the first year.
C)These are inappropriate for infants during the first year.
D)These are inappropriate for infants during the first 3 months of life.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Nutrition in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What may a child be at risk for if she drinks large amounts of apple or pear juice throughout the day and limited amounts of water or milk?
A)Diarrhea
B)Hypervitaminosis A
C)Overhydration
D)Constipation
Q2) Which of the following results from zinc deficiency in a child's diet?
A)Increased fat stores
B)Short stature
C)Chronic diarrhea
D)Mental retardation
Q3) What may be a consequence of a child experiencing an early adiposity rebound?
A)An increased ratio of lean mass to fat mass as an adolescent.
B)An increased ratio of lean mass to fat mass as an adult.
C)An increased ratio of fat mass to lean mass as an adult.
D)An increased height-to-weight ratio as an adult.
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19
Chapter 18: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are adolescents most likely to visit a fast-food restaurant?
A)Right after school
B)During dinnertime through the week
C)During dinnertime on the weekend
D)During lunchtime on the weekend
Q2) Adequate intake of which nutrient is of greatest concern when working with adolescent athletes?
A)Carbohydrate
B)Protein
C)Water
D)Iron
Q3) How can an adolescent plan a vegetarian diet that is in line with the DRIs and Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
A)By focusing on a vegan diet
B)By ensuring adequate legumes, nuts, and whole grains
C)By including fish
D)By including eggs and dairy foods
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endogenous toxins include
A)pollutants in water.
B)drugs.
C)end products of metabolism of hormones.
D)curcuminoids.
Q2) Which is an appropriate nutritional guideline for the adult years?
A)Focus primarily on lipid intake.
B)Follow a nutrient-dense, phytochemical-rich food plan.
C)Follow a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
D)Follow a vegan diet.
Q3) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is A)accidents.
B)cancer.
C)diabetes.
D)heart disease.
Q4) How is soy beneficial in promoting cardiovascular health?
A)By reducing saturated fat intake
B)By replacing animal protein in the diet
C)By stimulating HDL production
D)By promoting vasodilation and decrease in blood pressure
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Chapter 20: Nutrition in Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about elderly adults is FALSE?
A)Among the oldest old, there are more women than men.
B)More elderly men than women are married.
C)Most elderly live in nursing homes.
D)The life expectancy of older adults is greater than it was 100 years ago.
Q2) In Medicare benefits, for which of the following are MNT services NOT included?
A)Preventive services
B)Cancer
C)Diabetes
D)Preend-stage kidney disease
Q3) How would a pressure ulcer be classified if it involves a partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis, presenting as an abrasion or shallow crater?
A)Stage 1
B)Stage 2
C)Stage 3
D)Stage 4
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Chapter 21: Nutrition in Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerobic exercise is effective in weight management because it
A)lowers glycogen stores and promotes the use of fat for fuel.
B)decreases lean body mass in proportion to fat.
C)increases resistance to insulin.
D)decreases sensitivity to insulin.
Q2) Which enzyme removes dietary triglyceride from the blood?
A)Hormone-sensitive lipase
B)Lipoprotein lipase
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Insulin
Q3) An increased incidence of which of the following diseases is NOT associated with obesity?
A)Heart disease
B)Osteoporosis
C)Gallbladder disease
D)Sleep apnea
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Chapter 22: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many calories should be provided in the diet of a patient with anorexia nervosa to initiate weight gain?
A)25 to 30 kcal/kg/day
B)30 to 40 kcal/kg/day
C)40 to 50 kcal/kg/day
D)70 to 100 kcal/kg/day
Q2) During the treatment of patients with eating disorders, which of the following is an additional feature that should be monitored in the food records of patients with bulimia nervosa as opposed to anorexia nervosa?
A)Eating behaviors
B)Exercise
C)Emotions and feelings when eating
D)Use of alternative sweeteners
Q3) Delayed gastric emptying and gastric distension are common in A)binge eating disorder.
B)bulimia nervosa.
C)anorexia nervosa.
D)eating disorder not otherwise specified.
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24
Chapter 23: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathways is NOT used to generate energy in muscle cells during any type of exercise?
A)Glycogenolysis
B)Gluconeogenesis
C)Glycolysis
D)Beta oxidation
Q2) What is the primary source of energy for exercise of low to moderate intensity?
A)Fatty acids
B)Glycogen
C)Amino acids
D)Glycerol
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of caffeine use as an ergogenic aid?
A)Enhances fatty acid mobilization
B)Facilitates calcium transport in muscle contractility
C)Reduces fatigue by reducing plasma potassium accumulation
D)Cleanses out metabolic end products by promoting diuresis
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25
Chapter 24: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for the maturation of osteocalcin?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin E
D)Vitamin A
Q2) Which of the following statements about exercise and bone is TRUE?
A)Regular weight-bearing exercise has little influence on BMD.
B)Upper body strength activities may improve overall BMD.
C)Walking several miles each day has a large impact on hip BMD.
D)Swimming regularly has a large impact on vertebral BMD.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with excessive calcium supplementation?
A)Constipation
B)Iron deficiency
C)Urinary tract stones
D)High blood pressure
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26
Chapter 25: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can commonly occur after a patient develops gingival recession?
A)Root caries
B)Lingual caries
C)Increased salivation
D)Increased enamel production
Q2) To limit the chances of developing early childhood caries, which of the following should never be provided in a bottle as part of prolonged night feeding?
A)Formula
B)Milk
C)Juice
D)All of the above
Q3) When a patient is identified as wearing full dentures, what else should be included in the nutrition assessment of the patient?
A)Recent changes in the patient's weight
B)The patient's regular daily fluid intake
C)When the patient last had her own teeth
D)The patient's daily intake of cariogenic foods
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Chapter 26: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Adverse
Reactions to Food: Allergies and Intolerances
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ are antigenic determinants on the surface of food proteins that are recognized by the immune system.
A)Cytokines
B)Conformational epitopes
C)Mast cells
D)Haptens
Q2) Which of the following methods is effective for diagnosis when symptoms are subjective or when multiple food allergies are suspected?
A)Open food challenge
B)Single-blind food challenge
C)Double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge
D)Elimination diet
Q3) A patient who has a food allergy to shrimp would be considered at what level of nutritional risk in allergy management?
A)No nutritional risk
B)Low nutritional risk
C)Moderate nutritional risk
D)High nutritional risk
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Chapter 27: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dietary modifications minimize the problems associated with a gastrectomy with a vagotomy?
A)Increasing carbohydrate intake, particularly simple sugars, and decreasing fat and protein
B)Decreasing intake of liquids and simple sugars with meals
C)Reducing the intake of fiber from fruits and vegetables
D)Increasing the intake of milk at mealtimes and between meals
Q2) A patient with gastroparesis may benefit by which of these drugs?
A)Metoclopramide
B)Aspirin
C)Acarbose
D)Simethicone
Q3) The gastrointestinal effects of smoking include
A)reduction of LES pressure.
B)lower duodenal pH.
C)inhibition of pancreatic bicarbonate secretion.
D)all of the above.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of diarrhea may be experienced by a patient with lactase deficiency?
A)Exudative diarrhea
B)Malabsorptive diarrhea
C)Osmotic diarrhea
D)Secretory diarrhea
Q2) The FODMAPs diet is showing success for which group of patients?
A)Patients with diverticulosis
B)Celiac disease patients
C)Crohn disease patients
D)IBS patients
Q3) In the MNT for inflammatory bowel disease, which of the following is LEAST likely to be used?
A)Low-residue diet
B)Parenteral nutrition
C)Lactose-free or reduced diet
D)High-fiber diet
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characterized by the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct?
A)Cholangitis
B)Cholecystitis
C)Choledocholithiasis
D)Cirrhosis
Q2) Which of the following symptoms appears when pancreatitis progresses to where the ability to secrete a sufficient quantity of enzymes is impaired?
A)Constipation
B)Hypervitaminosis A
C)Steatorrhea
D)Elevated serum ammonia
Q3) Which is the most common hepatitis virus that is primarily transmitted by blood and body fluids?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis D
D)Hepatitis E
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Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) Which of the following criteria is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
A)Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dl
B)HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C)Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dl or greater
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about glycemic index (GI) is TRUE?
A)Consuming low-GI meals (<70) improves overall glycemic control.
B)Specific carbohydrate foods can have a variable GI.
C)When compared with an equal amount of starch, sucrose promotes a greater glycemic response.
D)The GI of glucose is lower than the GI of white bread.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential acute complication of type 1 DM?
A)Hypoglycemia
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Ketoacidosis
D)Blood vessel damage
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid, Adrenal, and Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Graves disease is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid is diffusely enlarged (goiter) and overactive, producing an excessive amount of thyroid hormones.It is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid) in the United States.What is the primary target of circulating autoantibodies in this disease?
A)Insulin receptors
B)Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptors
C)Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) receptors
D)Cortisol receptors
Q2) A severe systemic illness that causes decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, an increased conversion of T3 to the inactive rT3, and decreased binding of thyroid hormones is known as
A)Hashimoto thyroiditis.
B)Graves disease.
C)euthyroid sick syndrome.
D)Addison disease.
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Hepcidin, a peptide synthesized in the liver, is associated with what function?
A)Absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
B)Iron saturation of myoglobin
C)Increasing iron absorption
D)Systemic iron homeostasis
Q2) What does the quantity plasma ferritin value reflect when iron status is evaluated?
A)Supply of iron delivered to developing red blood cells
B)The most sensitive indicator of negative iron balance
C)Total iron-binding capacity
D)Iron supply to the tissues
Q3) The Shilling test is useful in diagnosing which type of anemia?
A)Pernicious
B)Iron deficiency
C)Hemolytic
D)Medication induced
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Diuretics work to lower blood pressure by
A)promoting vasodilation.
B)inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system.
C)decreasing blood volume.
D)increasing potassium retention.
Q2) In regard to food labels, what is the definition of "sodium free"?
A)No sodium or sodium chloride at all
B)Less than 1 mg of sodium per serving and no sodium chloride
C)Less than 5 mg of sodium per serving and no sodium chloride
D)Less than 10 mg of sodium per serving and no sodium chloride
Q3) The MNT for patients with hypertriglyceridemia should include
A)high amounts of carbohydrate.
B)soy protein.
C)monounsaturated fat and omega-3 fat.
D)1500-mg sodium restriction.
Q4) Which of the following decreases in congestive heart failure?
A)Beta-natriuretic peptide
B)Ejection fraction
C)Cardiac remodeling
D)Interleukin-1
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Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Fluid in the pleural space with a milky appearance is a symptom of A)chylothorax.
B)respiratory distress syndrome.
C)acute respiratory distress syndrome. D)asthma.
Q2) What is the recommendation for determining energy needs for patients with COPD?
A)Provide 30 to 35 kcal/kg of body weight.
B)Provide 130% to 150% of the BEE.
C)Use indirect calorimetry.
D)Provide the EER.
Q3) Long-term pulmonary improvement requires special monitoring of what in the infant with BPD?
A)Fluid and electrolytes
B)Lipid intake
C)Head circumference
D)Serum albumin
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following foods does NOT potentially increase the acidity of urine?
A)Lemons
B)Cranberries
C)Chicken
D)Spaghetti noodles
Q2) When acute kidney injury (AKI) is caused by hypertrophy of the prostate, the ARF is classified as _____ AKI.
A)secondary
B)prerenal
C)intrinsic
D)postrenal
Q3) Which of the following diseases is NOT among the top three considered to cause nephrotic syndrome?
A)Kidney cancer
B)Diabetes
C)Lupus
D)Amyloidosis
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
Prevention, Treatment, and Survivorship
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Q1) Which diagnostic mechanism is used to determine tumor size?
A)Staging
B)Tumor biopsy
C)Tumor markers
D)Cytokines
Q2) For _____ cancer, epidemiologic studies indicated that alcohol consumption increases the risk of development.
A)ovarian
B)prostate
C)mouth
D)pancreatic
Q3) Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
A)should never be treated with parenteral nutrition.
B)always occurs immediately after transplant.
C)is a minor complication of chemotherapy.
D)is a major complication seen primarily after allogenic transplants.
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Chapter 37: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hiv and Aids
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Q1) Individuals are more susceptible to developing signs and symptoms of HIV infection when the CD4+ cell count falls below
A)200 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>.
B)500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>.
C)1000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D)CD4+ cell concentrations do not relate to signs and symptoms of HIV.
Q2) What is the primary adverse effect of some kinds of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?
A)Drug interactions
B)Increase in side effects and disease progression
C)Decreased adherence
D)Micronutrient malabsorption
Q3) Which herbal supplement is contraindicated when used with antiretroviral medication such as indinavir?
A)Echinacea
B)Cat's claw
C)Milk thistle
D)St.John's wort
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Chapter 38: Medical Nutrition Therapy in Critical Care
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Q1) Which of the following is a criterion in the diagnosis of SIRS?
A)Shock
B)Ileus
C)Bandemia
D)Multiple trauma
Q2) A patient would be given enteral nutrition if the patient had
A)a high-output fistula.
B)intractable vomiting.
C)high doses of catecholamine agents.
D)acute pancreatitis.
Q3) Which of the following should be the first emphasis of nutrition care immediately after a major burn injury?
A)Promote weight gain.
B)Increase lean body mass and strength.
C)Establish fluid and electrolyte balance.
D)Promote a positive nitrogen balance.
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Chapter 39: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) With what do the plasma copper levels seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis correlate?
A)Dietary intake of copper
B)Type of medication
C)Degree of joint inflammation
D)Degree of malabsorption and diarrhea
Q2) Which of the following provides abundant omega-3 fatty acids such as DHA and EPA?
A)Flaxseed and walnuts
B)Soy and canola oils
C)Salmon and tuna
D)Lard
Q3) Which feature associated with the joint of a person affected with gout is different from the joint of a person affected with rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Bone erosion
B)Inflamed synovium
C)Bone spurs
D)Presence of tophi
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Chapter 40: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of head-injured patients?
A)They have profound urinary nitrogen loss.
B)Their energy needs are related to the Glasgow Coma Scale.
C)They are hypermetabolic.
D)They have decreased energy needs.
Q2) Which of the following can result from thiamin deficiency?
A)Pernicious anemia
B)Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
C)Pellagra
D)Adrenomyeloleukodystrophy
Q3) The Frazier free water protocol is used for patients with A)Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
B)brain trauma.
C)multiple sclerosis.
D)dysphagia.
Q4) Which of the following can occur with impaired swallowing?
A)Aspiration pneumonia
B)Hemiparesis
C)Dysgeusia
D)Comminution
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Chapter 41: Mnt in Psychiatric and Cognitive Disorders
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Q1) MTFHR mutations are associated with what psychiatric disorder?
A)Alzheimer disease
B)Anxiety disorder
C)Schizophrenia
D)Chronic fatigue syndrome
Q2) Chronic fatigue syndrome and fibromyalgia are associated with dysfunction of the
A)pituitary gland.
B)cerebral cortex.
C)hypothalamus.
D)glucose metabolism.
Q3) The brain is _________% fat.
A)80
B)50
C)100
D)20
Q4) Which of the following are sources of alpha linoleic acid?
A)Cod
B)Spinach
C)Walnuts
D)Oysters
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Chapter 42: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) How much fluid should be provided to an LBW infant during the first day of life?
A)40 to 85 ml/kg
B)50 to 100 ml/kg
C)80 to 105 ml/kg
D)1000 ml total
Q2) Which of the following must be supplemented to preterm infants fed parenterally or fed human milk to prevent the development of osteopenia?
A)Protein
B)Calcium and phosphorus
C)Vitamins A and D
D)All fat-soluble vitamins
Q3) An infant has a birth weight below the 10th percentile, but her linear growth and head growth are between the 10th and 90th percentiles.This infant would be classified as A)AGA.
B)SGA with asymmetric IUGR.
C)SGA with symmetric IUGR.
D)only SGA.
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Chapter 43: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following foods would be allowed in the diet of a child with PKU?
A)Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
B)Sugar-free gum
C)Potato chips
D)Spaghetti and meatballs
Q2) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT treated with a low-protein diet?
A)Argininemia
B)Methylmalonic acidemia
C)Ketone use disorder
D)Galactosemia
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the possible infant outcomes of PKU mothers with elevated phenylalanine levels?
A)Liver dysfunction
B)Microcephaly
C)Congenital heart disease
D)Low birth weight
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Chapter 44: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Antibodies to casein, gluten, and soy have been noted in individuals with A)Prader-Willi syndrome.
B)cerebral palsy.
C)autism.
D)fetal alcohol syndrome.
Q2) The child that would have the lowest energy needs is a A)healthy child.
B)child with mild cerebral palsy.
C)child with spina bifida.
D)child with Down syndrome.
Q3) Which class of feeding problems is associated with head control and trunk stability?
A)Behavioral feeding problems
B)Oral motor feeding problems
C)Positioning feeding problems
D)Self-feeding problems
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