Nutrition Assessment Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Nutrition Assessment is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and methods used to evaluate the nutritional status of individuals and populations. Students will learn how to collect and interpret dietary, anthropometric, biochemical, and clinical data to assess nutritional health. The curriculum covers practical skills in conducting interviews, utilizing food intake records, analyzing laboratory results, and employing standardized assessment tools. Emphasis is placed on understanding the strengths and limitations of various nutrition assessment techniques and applying this knowledge to create effective nutrition intervention strategies tailored to specific populations or health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 14th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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44 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Intake: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what form is dietary fat absorbed from the lumen of the intestine?
A)Chylomicron
B)Micelle
C)Triglyceride
D)Lipoprotein
Answer: B
Q2) SGLT-1 is key to the small intestine's ability to absorb water because
A)it is an active transporter of sodium and glucose.
B)it blocks the transport of sodium.
C)it stimulates the body's thirst mechanism.
D)it changes the pH of the small intestine.
Answer: A
Q3) After surgical removal of a large portion of the small intestine, what functional complication is most likely to develop?
A)Changes in dietary habits
B)Impaired digestion
C)Loss of absorptive tissue
D)Elimination of dietary residue
Answer: C
3
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Chapter 2: Intake: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the determination of the physical activity level (PAL) categories beyond sedentary different from the sedentary category?
A)They are based on METs.
B)They are based on the pace of walking.
C)They are based on the total time spent doing physical activity.
D)They are based on types of physical activity.
Answer: B
Q2) The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily composed of what?
A)Carbohydrate
B)Protein
C)Fat
D)Mixed macronutrients
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fat
C)Regular eating schedule
D)Spicy foods
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Inflammation and the Pathophysiology of Chronic Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical nutrition therapy for maintaining a healthy gut microbiome includes A)fermented foods.
B)avoiding processed foods.
C)prebiotics.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Cytochrome P450 enzymes are essential for A)production of cholesterol.
B)detoxification transport of toxins for elimination.
C)production of prostacyclins.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Increased intestinal permeability is associated with ___________.
A)blocking of large molecules to prevent passage into the internal microenvironment
B)an allogenic state
C)decreased antigenic load
D)more severe food sensitivity or allergy
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a limitation of using the 24-hour recall and the food frequency?
A)The patient's level of literacy
B)The time required to collect data
C)The lack of tools for conducting these
D)Reliance on the patient's memory
Q2) In the patient's _____ history, you would most likely find out about the patient's cultural views related to health care.
A)medical
B)social
C)medication
D)dietary
Q3) The purpose of nutritional screening is to
A)identify patients at nutritional risk.
B)determine a patient's nutritional problem.
C)categorize patients as high or moderate risk.
D)assess the patient's nutritional status.
Q4) Smartphones are now a legitimate method to record food intake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Clinical: Nutritional Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among which types of inheritance have no nutrition-related disorders been identified?
A)Autosomal recessive
B)X-linked dominant
C)Y-linked
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) Which of the following may promote a change in a DNA molecule affecting gene expression without changing the nucleotide sequence?
A)Genomic imprinting
B)Mutation
C)SNP
D)Gene variant
Q3) What syndrome results from inheriting two copies of a deletion in chromosome 15 from the father?
A)William syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Angelman syndrome
D)Klinefelter syndrome
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what mechanism is thirst stimulated in the hypothalamus?
A)Increase in serum osmolality
B)Decrease in serum osmolality
C)Increase in both serum osmolality and in extracellular volume
D)Decrease in serum osmolality and an increase in extracellular volume
Q2) What is the primary means by which hydrogen ions are generated in the body?
A)Normal tissue metabolism
B)Ingestion of highly acidic foods
C)Oxidation-reduction reactions
D)Reabsorption of bicarbonate
Q3) Which effect is of greatest concern in water intoxication?
A)Increased volume of the brain cells
B)Hypertension
C)Decreased circulating blood volume
D)Increased urinary output
Q4) In the extracellular space, what is the primary buffer system?
A)Phosphate
B)Bicarbonate and carbonic acid
C)Hydrogen
D)Protein
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Chapter 7: Clinical: Biochemical, Physical, and Functional Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) BMIs of _______ are associated with increased risk of mortality in those 65 and older.
A)less than 23
B)less than 18.5
C)greater than 24.9
D)there is no association between BMI and risk of mortality
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about bioelectric impedance analysis?
A)It measures lean body tissue.
B)It is noninvasive and portable.
C)It is not accurate in a dehydrated individual.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is a measure of iron storage?
A)TIBC
B)Serum ferritin
C)Transferrin
D)Hemoglobin
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antacids, H -receptor antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors affect the absorption of calcium, iron, and magnesium through
A)decreased bioavailability caused by change in gastrointestinal pH.
B)decreased bioavailability caused by inhibition of small intestine enzymes.
C)decreased bioavailability caused by damage to the intestinal mucosa.
D)increased bioavailability caused by change in gastrointestinal pH.
Q2) A patient is being treated for depression with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.Which of the following should the patient be instructed to avoid while taking this medication?
A)Milk, soy protein, and grapefruit
B)Cheese, salami, and Chianti wine
C)Tomatoes, onions, and poultry
D)Cantaloupe, canned pineapple, and peanuts
Q3) Which of the following medications could be given to a patient with cancer or AIDS to stimulate food intake?
A)Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
B)Sibutramine (Meridia)
C)Phentermine (Adipex-P)
D)Oxandrolone (Oxandrin)
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Chapter 9: Behavioral-Environmental: the Individual in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a community assessment, you determine that you need information about local cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.Which of the following would be an appropriate resource for this information?
A)Census Bureau
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)Department of Health and Human Services
D)Area Office on Aging
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the core functions of public health?
A)Community assessment
B)Food security
C)Policy development
D)Public health assurance
Q3) Which of the following is one of the CDC's operations related to food security and disaster planning?
A)PrepNet (Food Threat Preparedness Network)
B)F-Bat (Food Biosecurity Action Team)
C)FoodNet (Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network)
D)Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition
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Chapter 10: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Inadequate energy intake" is an example of A)"S" of a PES statement.
B)nutrition diagnosis.
C)nutrition symptom.
D)"E" of a PES statement.
Q2) Which of the following requires that health care providers ensure the protection of their patients' privacy?
A)TJC
B)MCOs
C)HIPAA
D)CMS
Q3) When providing nutritional care for the terminally ill patient, dietary restrictions
A)should be maintained throughout the illness.
B)are rarely appropriate and should not be used.
C)should be followed to the best of the patient's ability.
D)should be focused on preventing disease progression.
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Chapter 11: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Diet Guidelines,
Nutrient Standards, and Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pork is prohibited in which of the following religions?
A)Jewish, Muslim, and Seventh Day Adventist
B)Catholic, Muslim, and Buddhist
C)Mormon, Jewish, and Muslim
D)Mormon, Hindu, and Seventh Day Adventist
Q2) Tolerable upper intakes (UIs) of nutrients were established to
A)define nutrient intakes that may promote health.
B)reduce the risk of adverse toxic effects.
C)define the level of nutrient that will meet the requirements of 97% to 98% of the healthy population.
D)provide data on estimated safe and adequate daily dietary intakes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the Daily Reference Intake (DRI)?
A)Adequate Intake (AI)
B)Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C)Healthy Eating Index (HEI)
D)Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
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Chapter 12: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Complementary and
Integrative Medicine and Dietary Supplementation
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, art and music therapy are classified as
A)manipulative therapies.
B)energy therapies.
C)alternative medical systems.
D)mind-body therapies.
Q2) Which of the following assures that a dietary supplement is a quality product that contains what the label states?
A)CDR
B)DSHEA
C)FDA
D)GMP
Q3) According to the FDA, which of the following descriptions applies to a dietary supplement?
A)Ingested to affect structure or function of the body
B)Consumed for its taste, aroma, or nutritive value
C)Used to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease
D)Applied to the body for cleansing, beautifying, or altering appearance
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Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, a patient's parenteral feeding can be discontinued when enteral nutrition meets _____ of the patient's need.
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
Q2) Which trace element needs to be initially given at higher levels when there is a risk of refeeding syndrome?
A)Zinc
B)Copper
C)Chromium
D)Phosphorus
Q3) The maximum osmolality of parenteral solution that the cephalic or brachial vein may tolerate for infusion is _____ mOsm/kg.
A)300 to 500
B)500 to 800
C)800 to 900
D)900 to 1200
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15
Chapter 14: Education and Counseling: Behavioral Change
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a client's belief in his ability to carry out change?
A)Self-efficacy
B)Self-management
C)Self-monitoring
D)Self-reflection
Q2) When counseling a client who speaks a different language, the most effective way to communicate is to
A)use a family member or close friend who speaks the language and can translate.
B)use a visual aid that has been developed using international symbols.
C)find a counselor who speaks the same language and can do the counseling.
D)use a certified translator.
Q3) One of the five tenets of cultural competency is
A)you must know a culture's communication style to be an effective counselor.
B)cultural competency eliminates racism.
C)culture is defined as race, religion, and ethnicity.
D)culture is mutable and multiple.
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16
Chapter 15: Nutrition for Reproductive Health and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone promotes letdown?
A)Colostrum
B)Progesterone
C)Oxytocin
D)Prolactin
Q2) Which of these statements is NOT true about colostrum?
A)It is higher in fat than mature milk.
B)It is higher in immunoglobulins than mature milk.
C)It is higher in protein than mature milk.
D)It is lower in lactose than mature milk.
Q3) According to the RDA, how much additional protein above that of a nonpregnant woman should a pregnant woman consume during the second half of her pregnancy?
A)10 g
B)15 g
C)25 g
D)35 g
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should honey NOT be used in home-prepared formulas for infants?
A)The added sweetener will cause the infant to crave sweets.
B)The sugars present cannot be digested by the infant.
C)The honey will settle out in the formula and cause a curdled appearance.
D)The infant has no immunity to the botulism spore that may be present.
Q2) Which of the following describes the growth expectations for most infants?
A)The birth weight is usually regained by the end of the first month.
B)Infants triple their birth weight by 6 months of age.
C)Infants double their birth weight by 4 to 6 months of age.
D)Infants triple their length by 3 years of age.
Q3) What is the appropriate serving size for foods offered to a small child?
A)1 tsp for each year of age
B)1 Tbsp for each year of age
C)1/2 cup of each food served
D)1 cup total food per meal
Q4) Which vitamin is NOT adequately provided by breastmilk?
A)Vitamin C
B)Niacin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin A
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Chapter 17: Nutrition in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are appropriate general guidelines for measurements to assess the growth of a child?
A)Growth measurements should be made at 1, 4, and 10 years.
B)After the child's channel on the growth charts has been determined, it is not necessary to reevaluate on a regular basis.
C)Growth measurements of height, weight, and weight for height should be determined at regular intervals.
D)After the growth pattern is established, it will not change until adolescence.
Q2) Which of the following results from zinc deficiency in a child's diet?
A)Increased fat stores
B)Short stature
C)Chronic diarrhea
D)Mental retardation
Q3) Food insecure families in the United States
A)contribute to poor outcomes in children.
B)are associated with inadequate iron intake in children 3 years and under.
C)are served by SNAP, WIC, and school lunch.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among adolescents, which type of eating disorder is most likely to be diagnosed?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Disordered eating not otherwise specified
D)Excessive eating disorder
Q2) To determine if weight is appropriate for height at a given age for a given gender, where should the data plotted on the NCHS growth chart appear?
A)Between the 5th and 85th percentiles
B)Between the 10th and 50th percentiles
C)Between the 75th and 95th percentiles
D)Between the 5th and 25th percentiles
Q3) Which of the following does NOT describe typical eating behavior in adolescents?
A)Skipped meals
B)Adequate fruit and vegetable intake
C)Frequent dependence on fast foods
D)Inadequate time for meals
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of nutrition and dietetic professionals in the adult years involves
A)addressing the role of nutrition in the leading causes of death and debility.
B)incorporating basic education on food access, selection, and preparation.
C)setting mutually acceptable, achievable goals for optimal performance and health.
D)all of the above.
Q2) How is soy beneficial in promoting cardiovascular health?
A)By reducing saturated fat intake
B)By replacing animal protein in the diet
C)By stimulating HDL production
D)By promoting vasodilation and decrease in blood pressure
Q3) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is A)accidents.
B)cancer.
C)diabetes.
D)heart disease.
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21
Chapter 20: Nutrition in Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is dysgeusia?
A)Diminished sense of smell
B)Loss of sense of taste
C)Dry mouth from decreased salivation
D)Result of hypochlorhydria
Q2) Nutrition screening using the BMI as an indicator
A)is the best indicator for those 85 years of age and older.
B)may not be accurate because of body composition changes in elderly adults.
C)is better than using mid-arm muscle circumference.
D)is not part of the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA).
Q3) A 70-kg man with a Stage 4 pressure ulcer needs ___________ g/day of protein and __________ kcal/day.
A)84; 2100
B)70; 2800
C)105; 2450
D)140; 2100
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Chapter 21: Nutrition in Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gout may develop during fasting or after very low-calorie diets.This occurs because elevated ketones are impeding the elimination of
A)uric acid.
B)creatinine.
C)sodium.
D)potassium.
Q2) Which of the following results from the use of fasting as a means of weight loss?
A)Excessive weight gain after refeeding
B)An initial rapid weight loss from diuresis
C)A decrease in ketone formation
D)Carbohydrate craving
Q3) The rate of weight loss for men on energy-deficient diets is more rapid than for women because men
A)generally have less fat to lose.
B)are more successful at weight reduction programs.
C)have higher testing metabolic rate and lean body mass than women.
D)are more likely to exercise while trying to lose weight.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which eating disorder might a person binge often but not try to compensate for this behavior?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Eating disorder not otherwise specified
D)Binge eating disorder
Q2) After a binge episode, how much of the energy intake can be eliminated through purging?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)None
Q3) How many calories should be provided in the diet of a patient with anorexia nervosa to initiate weight gain?
A)25 to 30 kcal/kg/day
B)30 to 40 kcal/kg/day
C)40 to 50 kcal/kg/day
D)70 to 100 kcal/kg/day
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Athletes need to increase their water intake to
A)enhance renal excretion of waste products from muscle activity.
B)improve intestinal absorption of nutrients after digestion.
C)maintain water balance in the body as a whole and within cells.
D)increase skin evaporation of water as a cooling mechanism.
Q2) What is the primary source of energy for exercise of low to moderate intensity?
A)Fatty acids
B)Glycogen
C)Amino acids
D)Glycerol
Q3) Which of the following is a potential androgenic effect of taking steroids?
A)Decreased body fat
B)Increased libido
C)Changes in genital size
D)Vocal cord changes
Q4) A desirable pre-event meal 3 to 4 hours before competition is one that provides
A)high fiber and vitamin content.
B)200 to 350 g of carbohydrate and is low in fat.
C)an equal mix of protein and carbohydrate.
D)200 to 350 g of protein and fat and is low in carbohydrate.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT a risk factor for developing osteoporosis?
A)Hispanic ethnicity
B)European or Asian ethnicity
C)Cigarette smoking
D)Female athlete triad
Q2) Which of the following are bone-forming cells?
A)Osteocytes
B)Osteoblasts
C)Osteoclasts
D)Osteocalcins
Q3) Bone tissue consists of the mineral phase and the organic _____ phase.
A)collagen
B)cartilage
C)matrix
D)osteocalcin
Q4) Which of the following statements about exercise and bone is TRUE?
A)Regular weight-bearing exercise has little influence on BMD.
B)Upper body strength activities may improve overall BMD.
C)Walking several miles each day has a large impact on hip BMD.
D)Swimming regularly has a large impact on vertebral BMD.
26
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Chapter 25: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can commonly occur after a patient develops gingival recession?
A)Root caries
B)Lingual caries
C)Increased salivation
D)Increased enamel production
Q2) What role do nuts play in regard to the development of dental caries?
A)They are cariogenic.
B)They are cariostatic.
C)They are anticariogenic.
D)They are cariogenic when eaten with fruit.
Q3) Which can reduce the cariogenicity of a meal when it follows the meal?
A)Eating dessert
B)Eating a snack of pretzels
C)Chewing sugar-free gum
D)Eating fruit
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Chapter 26: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Adverse
Reactions to Food: Allergies and Intolerances
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Q1) Within what frame of time is the onset of symptoms related to a food allergy most likely to occur?
A)Within 2 hours
B)Within 2 to 14 hours
C)More than 24 hours
D)More than 48 hours
Q2) A child develops gastrointestinal symptoms after drinking fruit juice.This is an example of what type of condition?
A)Food allergy
B)Food aversion
C)Food hypersensitivity
D)Food intolerance
Q3) Which food is the most common cause of near-fatal and fatal anaphylactic reactions?
A)Nuts
B)Shellfish
C)Egg
D)Wheat
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Chapter 27: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT associated with Helicobacter pylori?
A)H.pylori increases the risk of atrophic gastritis and gastric cancer.
B)H.pylori is a viral infection found in the intestine.
C)H.pylori is a bacterial infection found in the gastric mucosa.
D)H.pylori infection may be treated with antibiotics and acid suppression therapies.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with dyspepsia?
A)Diet
B)Abnormal gastric emptying
C)Being underweight
D)Upper abdominal discomfort
Q3) When an H blocker is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, the patient may be at risk for deficiency of which nutrient?
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
C)Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D)Vitamin D
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a characteristic difference between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?
A)Age at disease onset
B)Segmental versus continuous distribution of the disease throughout the GI tract
C)Clinical features of diarrhea, food intolerance, and dehydration
D)Medical management with steroids and diet
Q2) What should be in the solution used for fluid replacement for acute diarrhea in infants and small children?
A)Vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes
B)Glucose and electrolytes in water
C)Chemically defined formula
D)Lactose-free formula
Q3) Which disease is associated with advanced age?
A)Crohn disease
B)Diverticulitis
C)Ulcerative colitis
D)Tropical sprue
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following recommendations should be included in the nutrition care plan for a patient in the acute postliver transplant phase?
A)Calorie restriction
B)Increased sodium
C)Decreased protein
D)Increased protein
Q2) Which of the following, when consumed by a patient with chronic pancreatitis, may cause symptoms to worsen?
A)Fried foods, foods with a high sucrose content, and caffeine
B)Carbohydrates, low-fat dairy products, and coffee
C)Large meals, fatty foods, and alcohol
D)Red meat, sweets, and coffee
Q3) Which of the following parameters is included in Subjective Global Assessment?
A)Change in weight
B)Nitrogen balance
C)Fluid intake and output
D)Liver enzyme levels
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommendation for self-monitoring of blood glucose?
A)Every morning and every night before bed
B)When there is a change in activity level or diet
C)Four or more times daily for type 1 DM and one to four times for type 2 DM
D)At least eight times a day for type 1 DM
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a potential acute complication of type 1 DM?
A)Hypoglycemia
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Ketoacidosis
D)Blood vessel damage
Q3) What must a patient demonstrate to be a candidate for use of oral glucose-lowering medications?
A)Functioning alpha-cells in the pancreas
B)Functioning beta-cells in the pancreas
C)Functioning gastrointestinal mucosa
D)Resistance to insulin at all times
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid, Adrenal, and Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Dietary intervention is a key therapeutic tool in managing patients with thyroid disease.In the absence of nutritional deficiencies, what is the main goal of nutritional support?
A)Maintaining vitamin sufficiency
B)Decreasing oxidative stress
C)Increasing iodine concentrations
D)Reducing antithyroidal antibodies
Q2) Characteristics of chronic adrenal stress do NOT include
A)increased thyroid-binding protein activity.
B)decreased conversion of T4 to active forms of T3.
C)weakened immune barriers of the digestive tract, lungs, and brain.
D)increased sensitivity to thyroid hormones.
Q3) More than 90% of people with autoimmune thyroid disease have a genetic defect affecting their ability to metabolize what?
A)Vitamin D
B)Flavonoids
C)Selenium
D)Tyrosine
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Which protein is most responsible for the transport of vitamin B to target cells in the body?
A)Haptocorrin
B)Intrinsic factor
C)Holotranscobalamin I
D)Holotranscobalamin II
Q2) Which biochemical measure is useful in evaluating the body's folate stores?
A)Serum folate level
B)Red blood cell folate level
C)Urinary formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU)
D)Serum homocysteine level
Q3) Hepcidin, a peptide synthesized in the liver, is associated with what function?
A)Absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
B)Iron saturation of myoglobin
C)Increasing iron absorption
D)Systemic iron homeostasis
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the ACC/AHA diet guidelines?
A)Reduction of dietary cholesterol
B)Reduction of saturated fat, especially from red meat
C)Increase in dietary fiber
D)Appropriate calories
Q2) Diuretics work to lower blood pressure by
A)promoting vasodilation.
B)inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system.
C)decreasing blood volume.
D)increasing potassium retention.
Q3) Which of the following lipoproteins normally returns most of the cholesterol to the liver for disposal via reverse transport?
A)Chylomicrons
B)VLDL
C)LDL
D)HDL
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is(are) synthesized in the lungs?
A)Angiotensin I
B)Arachidonic acid
C)Prostaglandins
D)Hemoglobin
Q2) What term refers to rapid breathing?
A)Dyspnea
B)Hemoptysis
C)Tachypnea
D)Aspiration
Q3) Which of the following recommendations should be made to the parents of an infant who has both BPD and esophageal reflux?
A)Thicken formula with baby cereal.
B)Thin formula with a glucose solution.
C)Feed the infant positioned in the supine position.
D)Delay introduction of baby food until 9 months of age.
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following foods does NOT potentially increase the acidity of urine?
A)Lemons
B)Cranberries
C)Chicken
D)Spaghetti noodles
Q2) A complication of intradialytic parenteral nutrition that is NOT commonly associated with usual PN is
A)vitamin deficiency.
B)hypophosphatemia.
C)infection.
D)hypoglycemia.
Q3) Renal adaptations that permit "normal" function eventually fail, causing a progression toward ESRD because of A)loss of nephrons.
B)uremia.
C)increases in blood pressure.
D)imbalances between glomerular and tubular functions.
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Chapter 36: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
Prevention, Treatment, and Survivorship
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemoprevention is the
A)pharmacologic use of nutrients to suppress or reverse carcinogenesis.
B)pharmacologic use of medications to treat cancer.
C)use of CAM therapy to prevent or treat cancer.
D)reduction of carcinogenic growth factors in the blood.
Q2) Common side effects of radiation-induced enteritis combined with small bowel resection include
A)sore throat, mucositis, and severe dental and gum destruction.
B)nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C)maldigestion, malabsorption, dehydration, and malnutrition.
D)edema, ascites, and weight gain.
Q3) Which diagnostic mechanism is used to determine tumor size?
A)Staging
B)Tumor biopsy
C)Tumor markers
D)Cytokines
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Chapter 37: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hiv and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity in people with HIV should be treated with A)altered antiviral medications.
B)decreased protein intake.
C)supplementation and complementary medicine.
D)physical activity, aerobic exercise, and regular medical nutrition therapy.
Q2) What opportunistic infection manifests as purple nodules or lesions on the skin and mucous membranes?
A)Candidiasis
B)Herpes zoster
C)Kaposi sarcoma
D)Pneumococcal sinusitis
Q3) Which herbal supplement is contraindicated when used with antiretroviral medication such as indinavir?
A)Echinacea
B)Cat's claw
C)Milk thistle
D)St.John's wort
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Chapter 38: Medical Nutrition Therapy in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient would be given enteral nutrition if the patient had
A)a high-output fistula.
B)intractable vomiting.
C)high doses of catecholamine agents.
D)acute pancreatitis.
Q2) What are interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor examples of?
A)Catecholamines
B)Acute phase proteins
C)Cytokines
D)Antiinflammatory proteins
Q3) Which of the following should be the first emphasis of nutrition care immediately after a major burn injury?
A)Promote weight gain.
B)Increase lean body mass and strength.
C)Establish fluid and electrolyte balance.
D)Promote a positive nitrogen balance.
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Chapter 39: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is characterized by hardening of the skin and visceral organs?
A)Gout
B)Scleroderma
C)Fibromyalgia
D)Sjögren syndrome
Q2) Which of the following CAM therapies has been demonstrated as effective in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Copper bracelets
B)Echinacea
C)Borage and evening primrose oil
D)Thunder god vine
Q3) Which of the following conditions is NOT a disease of autoimmune origin?
A)OA
B)RA
C)SLE
D)Scleroderma
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) The guideline for use of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) in patients with neurologic disease or disorders is to use
A)whenever there is a risk of aspiration pneumonia.
B)with patients whose swallowing function will not ensure adequate nutritional intake.
C)with patients who refuse a central line for total parenteral nutrition.
D)with patients who are expected to resume oral alimentation within 7 days.
Q2) On the Dysphagia Outcome and Severity Scale, at what level is total assistance for the patient necessary?
A)Level 7
B)Level 5
C)Level 3
D)Level 1
Q3) What is dysphagia?
A)Inhalation of a foreign object into the lungs
B)Impaired taste
C)Difficulty swallowing
D)Impairment of the tongue or other muscles essential to speech
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Mnt in Psychiatric and Cognitive Disorders
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Q1) What is the recommendation of the International Society for the Study of Fatty Acids and Lipids (ISSFAL) for the daily intake of DHA and EPA?
A)220 mg of each daily
B)500 mg combined daily
C)Total of 1100 mg daily
D)Total of 1600 mg daily
Q2) Which food is a good source of vitamin D?
A)Butter
B)Flax seed
C)Egg yolk
D)Steel cut oat
Q3) An excess of which nutrient has been associated with bipolar disorder?
A)Chromium
B)Magnesium
C)Iron
D)Vitamin C
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Chapter 42: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) The total of IV lipid in an LBW infant is generally
A)25% to 40% of nonprotein calories.
B)10 g/kg/day.
C)10% to 15% of nonprotein calories.
D)60% of nonprotein calories.
Q2) The metabolic rate of the premature newborn is _____ kcal/kg/day.
A)30
B)50
C)90
D)105
Q3) The energy needs of a premature infant fed parenterally differ from those of a premature infant fed enterally because parenterally fed infants
A)require less energy per kilogram of body weight.
B)require an equal amount of energy per kilogram of body weight.
C)require more energy per kilogram of body weight.
D)have very erratic energy requirements.
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44
Chapter 43: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the possible infant outcomes of PKU mothers with elevated phenylalanine levels?
A)Liver dysfunction
B)Microcephaly
C)Congenital heart disease
D)Low birth weight
Q2) The current preferred method for screening for inborn errors of metabolism is
A)microarray technology.
B)tandem mass spectrometry.
C)Guthrie bacterial inhibition assay.
D)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
Q3) Beyond fatty acid oxidation disorders, which other metabolic disorder is treated with supplemental carnitine?
A)Isovaleric acidemia
B)Ketone utilization disorder
C)Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
D)Tyrosinemia
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) To make standard 20-calorie/oz formula, how much powdered formula needs to be mixed with every 2 oz of water?
A)1 tsp
B)1 Tbsp
C)1 scoop
D)2 scoops
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the qualifications of developmental disabilities as established by law?
A)Manifests before the age of 22 years
B)Attributable to malnutrition that causes mental or physical impairment
C)Results in substantial functional limitations in three or more areas of major life activity
D)Expected to continue through life indefinitely
Q3) Which developmental disorder is characterized by the child having an insatiable appetite?
A)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)Spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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