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This course explores the intricate relationship between nutrition and oral health, emphasizing how dietary habits influence the development, maintenance, and prevention of oral diseases. Students will examine the roles of macro- and micronutrients in oral tissue health, learn about nutrition-related oral pathologies such as dental caries and periodontal disease, and investigate how systemic conditions linked to nutrition affect the oral cavity. The course also covers dietary counseling strategies for different age groups and at-risk populations, and reviews the latest research and guidelines promoting optimal oral and overall health through nutrition.
Recommended Textbook
The Dental Hygienists Guide to Nutritional Care 4th Edition by Cynthia A. Stegeman
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21 Chapters
824 Verified Questions
824 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consumption of milk and milk products can promote the achievement of peak bone mass in children and adolescents. Studies indicate that higher dairy consumption is associated with decreased dental caries, but has no effect on periodontal disease.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: C
Q2) Healthy People (HP 2020), issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has resulted in a reduction of deaths from cardiovascular disease, stroke, and some cancers. It also has resulted in decreased dental caries in children aged 2 to 4 years and adults aged 53 to 44 years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological function that plants use to make the carbohydrate animals can use for energy and oxygen is called:
A) oxidation-reduction.
B) condensation.
C) hydrolysis.
D) photosynthesis.
Answer: D
Q2) Each of the following is a component of an amino acid except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Carbon dioxide group (CO<sub>2</sub>)
B) Amino group (-NH<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>)
C) Carboxyl group (-COO<sup>-</sup>)
D) Side chain (R group)
Answer: A
Q3) Each of the following is true of lipids except one. Which one is the exception?
A) The catabolism of lipids is a major source of energy for the body.
B) Lipids can by oxidized to produce more energy than carbohydrates or proteins.
C) The hydrous nature of lipids make them retain water.
D) Lipids can be stored in adipose tissue in unlimited amounts.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestion is accomplished solely through chemical activities on food because peristalsis permits blending of foodstuffs with digestive secretions.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Each of the following is true of enzymes except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Enzymes are complex proteins that are very specific.
B) Enzymes regulate metabolic reactions so that they proceed slowly and thoroughly.
C) Enzymatic reactions require a substrate.
D) Only small amounts of an enzyme is needed to complete a reaction.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monosaccharide is the most sweet?
A) Glucose
B) Dextrose
C) Fructose
D) Sucrose
Q2) Photosynthesis of carbon dioxide and water results in the formation of a carbohydrate called galactose. A carbohydrate can be referred to as a hydrated carbon.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Dietary fiber refers to digestible components of food that include polysaccharides, lignin, whole grains, and seeds. Sources or dietary fiber usually contain other macronutrients, but vitamin and mineral components must be obtained through food processing.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with periodontal disease might require increased protein intake because the physiologic response to inflammation and infection can negatively affect protein synthesis.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) If a low-quality protein is the only protein source ingested, it cannot support life or normal growth. High-quality proteins are well balanced in their essential amino acid content.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) In a 2-oz cooked serving, which food supplies the least protein?
A) Light meat chicken
B) Dark meat chicken
C) Lean pork chop
D) Lean cut of beef
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Q1) Patients should be counseled to select foods labeled as "low cholesterol." Stick margarine, a cholesterol-free product, is a good selection because it is low in saturated fat and only partially hydrogenated.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which of the following food groups in MyPyramid always contains fat?
A) Fruits
B) Vegetables
C) Milk
D) Grains
E) Meat
Q3) Lecithin, a phospholipid used for energy, is present in all cells. Lecithin is present in thromboplastin, which is necessary for blood clotting.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a symptom of type 1 diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Polydipsia
B) Polyphagia
C) Polyuria
D) Ketoacidosis
E) Weight gain
Q2) Each of the following mechanisms affects the amount eaten at a particular meal except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Distention of the stomach
B) Release of cholecystokinin
C) Fat within the stomach
D) Secretion of glucagon
E) Secretion of insulin
Q3) Each of the following is true of type 2 diabetes except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Body mass index greater than 27 kg/m<sup>2</sup> is a risk factor.
B) Obesity and sedentary lifestyle are risk factors.
C) Increased fat stores cause some degree of insulin resistance.
D) Inadequate insulin is a major cause.
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Q1) Rickets is no longer prevalent in the United States because increased breastfeeding provides ample vitamin D reserves.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Although vitamins are synthesized during metabolic processes, they also must be obtained through external sources because vitamins cannot be produced in adequate amounts to meet body needs.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which form of vitamin K is the most potent?
A) Phylloquinone
B) Ergocalciferol
C) Menaquinone
D) Menadione
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Q1) Each of the following is true of calcium within the saliva except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
B) Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature of demineralized enamel surface.
C) Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
D) Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Q2) Actions in which pressure stretches or strains the structure are referred to as compressional forces. Tensional forces are actions in which pressure attempts to increase a structure's volume.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which of the following does not enhance absorption of calcium supplements?
A) Sucrose
B) Dextrose
C) Lactose
D) Mineral oil
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Q1) Osteodystrophy
A)Keshan disease
B)Excess selenium
C)Tin
D)Copper
E)Aluminum
F)Manganese
G)Excess molybdenum
H)Chromium
I)Selenium
Q2) Chromium supplements can cause serious renal impairment when taken in excess. Registered dietitians frequently recommend over-the-counter chromium supplements for weight loss and type 2 diabetes management.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following decreases or destroys thiamin content in food except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Baking soda added to cooking water of vegetables
B) Overcooking and high temperatures
C) Olive oil added to vegetables during cooking
D) Consumption of raw fish
E) Use of antacids as a calcium supplement
Q2) Conditions such as burns and growth spurts lead to additional riboflavin requirements because this nutrient acts as a coenzyme in the syntheses of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which condition is least likely to be caused by a deficiency of riboflavin?
A) Glossitis
B) Bilateral cheilosis
C) Dermatitis
D) Anemia

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Q1) Liberates water
A)Semi-permeable membrane
B)Osmosis
C)Hemochromatosis
D)Metabolism of protein and carbohydrate
E)Antidiuretic hormone
F)Coliforms
G)Chloride
H)Peripheral edema
I)Diaphoresis
J)Anions
K)Hypernatremia
L)Myxedema
M)Hyperkalemia
Q2) Approximately 25% of reputable producers of bottled water use groundwater as their water source. Plain tap water is the most natural source of fluids.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) An infant is considered premature if the gestational period is less than 39 weeks. Mortality rates are highest for infants born at 32 to 36 weeks' gestation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Each of the following is true of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) and fetal alcohol syndrome disorder except one. Which one is the exception?
A) FAS is a cluster of birth defects resulting from prenatal alcohol exposure.
B) The brain is one of the first organs affected by alcohol.
C) At birth, an infant with FAS has a head circumference that is larger than normal.
D) The first trimester is the most vulnerable time for the fetus.
E) Four to five drinks per day can produce the full FAS syndrome.
Q3) The ideal time to begin taking folate to prevent neural tube defects is:
A) before conception.
B) once pregnancy begins.
C) at 6 weeks.
D) upon completion of the first trimester.
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Q1) The most powerful predictor for how much children eat is how much food is put on their plate. The MyPlate sections for kids are different from those of adults.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Each of the following is true of iron requirements except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Healthy, full-term infants require minimal iron during the first 6 months.
B) Breastfed infants do not require iron supplementation until 4 to 6 months.
C) Iron supplementation is recommended after 4 months for formula-fed, healthy infants.
D) Preterm infants should receive iron supplements after 6 months.
E) Iron supplementation is usually given as liquid drops.
Q3) Each of the following is true except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Infant formulas should be discontinued at approximately 1 year of age.
B) Vitamin D-fortified whole milk should not be provided until 2 years.
C) Low-fat milk is not recommended for children younger than 2 years.
D) Special toddler formulas are available, but are unnecessary.
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic stomach inflammation
A)Obesity
B)Hypogeusia
C)Anosmia
D)Xerostomia
E)Edentulism
F)Atrophic gastritis
Q2) Loss of sense of sense of taste
A)Obesity
B)Hypogeusia
C)Anosmia
D)Xerostomia
E)Edentulism
F)Atrophic gastritis
Q3) The primary cause of confusion in older hospitalized patients is thought to be: A) malnutrition.
B) atropic gastritis.
C) dehydration.
D) sarcopenia.

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Q1) Which term is used to describe medical practices that have been thoroughly evaluated using scientific methods?
A) Meta-analysis
B) Systematic reviews
C) Evidence based
D) Observational studies
Q2) While discussing benefits and drawbacks of organic foods, which selection can a dental hygienist convey correctly to a patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Experts agree that organic foods are more nutritious.
B) Animals raised by organic producers cannot be given antibiotics to stimulate growth.
C) Products labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" must contain at least 70% organic ingredients.
D) A product containing more than 5% of the Environmental Protection Agency pesticide tolerance cannot be labeled organic.
E) Nonorganic produce is 60% more likely to have pesticides than organic fruits and vegetables.
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Q1) Individuals with loss of smell are inclined to do each of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Use more spices.
B) Eat less.
C) Eat and drink more sweets.
D) Lose weight.
Q2) Intake of which nutrients is most frequently cited as being negatively affected by oral problems and dentate status? (Select all that apply.)
A) Protein
B) Vitamin C
C) Fiber
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q3) The type of medication most likely to induce xerostomia is:
A) antibiotics.
B) diuretics.
C) local anesthetics.
D) anticholinergic.
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Q1) Protein and fat are considered cariogenic because consumption of foods with these two nutrients following a fermentable carbohydrate may decrease pH.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which food would be least beneficial for an individual wanting to restrict both plaque acid and fat intake?
A) American cheese
B) Seafood
C) Poultry
D) Eggs
Q3) Which of the following ingredients are anticariogenic? (Select all that apply.)
A) Xylitol
B) Fluoride
C) Vitamin waters
D) Chlorhexidine
E) Glycyrrhiza
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Q1) Calcification of the alveolus and cementum requires which nutrients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vitamins A, C, D, and E
B) Amino acids
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
E) Carbohydrates
Q2) As with dental caries, nutrition has direct involvement in periodontal disease. Suppuration, an increased oral clearance time of food, contributes to both periodontal disease and dental caries.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which nutrient is essential for normal growth and development of salivary glands and epithelial tissue?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B complex
D) Zinc

21
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Q1) Caused by erosion and abrasion
A)Sialometric test
B)Dentin hypersensitivity
C)Erosion
D)Abrasion
E)Cheddar cheese
F)Temporomandibular disorder
G)Tinnitus
H)Crepitus
I)Geographic tongue
J)Phytochemicals
Q2) The area around the cementoenamel junction is particularly susceptible to root caries because if often has irregular anatomical features.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Q1) After reviewing the health and dental histories, the dental hygienist has adequate information to begin dietary counseling with the patient. Providing a standardized, low-carbohydrate menu is sufficient for most patients with a high caries rate.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which communication skill is most important for a dental hygienist when interviewing a patient during nutritional counseling?
A) Empathy
B) Patience
C) Listening
D) Questioning
Q3) Overall, the most effective method of obtaining dietary information is with the:
A) diet history.
B) twenty-four-hour-recall.
C) food frequency questionnaire.
D) food diary.
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