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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles of nutrition and the metabolic processes that govern the utilization of nutrients in the human body. Students will examine the digestion, absorption, transportation, and function of macronutrients and micronutrients, as well as the hormonal and biochemical regulation of metabolic pathways. Emphasis is placed on the role of nutrition in health, disease prevention, and the management of metabolic disorders. Through lectures and case studies, learners will develop a comprehensive understanding of how diet influences metabolism and the physiological mechanisms underlying nutrient requirements across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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33 Chapters
1362 Verified Questions
1362 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structural features of a prokaryotic cell is composed of peptidoglycan,a rigid framework of polysaccharide cross-linked by short peptide chains?
A)cytosol
B)ribosome
C)nuclear area
D)cell wall
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following regarding the nature of the hydrogen bond is correct?
A)The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
B)The more linear the bond,the stronger the interaction.
C)The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
D)A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of membranes?
A)They have identical protein and lipid composition in the major organelles.
B)They are micromolecular assemblies.
C)They define boundaries of a select few cellular components.
D)They are spontaneous assemblies resulting from hydrophobic interactions.
Answer: D

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Q1) How many times more H does grapefruit juice at pH 3.2 contain compared to orange juice at pH 4.3?
A)10-<sup>7.5</sup>
B)10<sup>-2</sup>
C)0.9
D)12
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest type of bonding that occurs between water and the polar functional groups on non-ionic polar solutes?
A)ionic
B)hydrophobic
C)electrostatic
D)hydrogen
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following effects do solutes have on a water solvent?
A)They enhance the dynamic interplay among H O molecules.
B)They increase the orientation that neighbouring water molecules can assume.
C)They have no effect.
D)They give order to the solvent.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe a modified standard state for a thermodynamic parameter?
A)designated with a prime ( ' )symbol
B)H ion of 1 M
C)1 M for solutions
D)when the solvent is water at pH = 7
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is correct for a spontaneous endothermic reaction?
A)Heat must be given off by the reaction.
B)Energy must be added to the reaction.
C)The temperature must be very low.
D)The entropy must increase substantially.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding basic systems?
A)The internal energy of an isolated system is mostly conserved.
B)Open systems can exchange matter with other open systems.
C)The internal energy of an open system is always constant.
D)A closed system can accept heat from an isolated system.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following does <b>NOT</b> react with the -SH group on cysteine?
A)N-ethylmaleimide
B)benzaldehyde
C)acrylonitrile
D)iodoacetate
Q2) Glutamic acid has pK 's at 2.2,4.3,and 9.7.What is the isoelectric point for glutamic acid?
A)3.25
B)4.3
C)5.4
D)7.0
Q3) Which of the following amino acids has a free -carboxyl group but no free a-amino group?
A)aspartic acid
B)proline
C)asparagine
D)lysine
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Q1) Which of these atoms would be found in the amide plane of the peptide backbone?
A)H bound to the amide nitrogen
B)side chain carbons
C)C<sub> </sub>-carbon
D)O bound to the carbonyl carbon
Q2) Which of the following techniques involves using a strongly acidic,polystyrene resin,chromatography column?
A)gas-liquid chromatography
B)ion exchange chromatography
C)partition chromatography
D)liquid-liquid partition chromatography
Q3) Which of the following is determined by amino acid analysis of a protein?
A)the amino acid sequence of the protein
B)the number of residues of each amino acid in the protein
C)the identification of the N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids
D)the percentage of the various amino acids in the protein
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Q1) Which molecule is an example of an antiparallel -helix protein?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)flavodoxin
C)hemoglobin
D)papain
Q2) How are the parallel -sheets in a -barrel connected?
A)by regions of -helix
B)by -turns
C)by electrostatic interactions
D)by disulfide bonds
Q3) Which amino acid residue is most likely to be found in a beta turn?
A)glycine
B)alanine
C)valine
D)leucine
Q4) Which amino acid commonly comprises flexible,disordered segments of proteins?
A)Leu
B)Lys
C)Ser
D)Asp
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Q1) Which of the following are important components of the vitreous humour of the eye and of synovial fluid that lubricates the joints?
A)heparins
B)hyaluronates
C)chondroitins
D)keratin sulfates
Q2) Which of the following structures does glucose most commonly form?
A)a pyranose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 4
B)a pyranose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 5
C)a furanose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 3
D)a furanose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 4
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding the nature of glycogen?
A)It is a trisaccharide used for storage.
B)It has all non-reducing ends.
C)It is a branched polymer of linked glucose residues.
D)It is found primarily in the brain and skeletal muscles.
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Q1) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)progesterone
B)dolichol
C)epinephrine
D)histamine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a terpene?
A)squalene
B) -tocopherol (vitamin E)
C)coenzyme Q (UQ)
D)cetyl palmitate (spermaceti)
Q3) Which of the following is a cellular function of glycosphingolipids?
A)water-repellent properties of animal skin
B)tissue and organ non-specific
C)involvement in nerve impulse transmission
D)hormone-receptor recognition
Q4) Which of the following diets should be used to reduce coronary heart disease?
A)low in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
B)low in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
C)high in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
D)high in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of eicosanoids?
A)They are derived from steric acid.
B)They exert their effects at very low concentrations.
C)They usually act very near their site of synthesis.
D)They include prostaglandins,thromboxanes,and leukotrienes.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a property of progesterone?
A)It is produced from pregnenolone in ER.
B)It is synthesized in the adrenal cortex activated by ACTH.
C)It prepares the uterus for attachment of a fertilized ovum.
D)It is secreted from corpus luteum early in the menstrual cycle.
Q3) Which components constitute the core of lipoproteins?
A)proteins and triacylglycerols
B)triacylglycerols and cholesterol esters
C)phospholipids and cholesterol esters
D)cholesterol esters and proteins
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of COX-2 inhibitors?
A)can non-selectively block inflammation mediated by both isoforms of COX
B)are NSAIDs
C)have less potential for stomach lesions than aspirin
D)have less renal toxicity than COX-1 inhibitors
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a similarity between muscle Ca² -ATPase and Na ,K -ATPase?
A)Both have residence on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)Both form covalent E-P intermediates during ATP hydrolysis.
C)Both have similar mechanisms of ATP hydrolysis.
D)Both have similar ion transport mechanisms.
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms associates the Ras proteins to the membrane?
A)thioester-linked fatty acyl anchor
B)thioether-linked prenyl anchor
C)carboxy-terminal ester-linked prenyl anchor
D)insertion of a portion of an amphipathic helix into the membrane
Q3) Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the plasma membrane?
A)energy transduction
B)signal transduction
C)allowing free passage of certain toxic ions and molecules into the cell
D)accumulation of cell nutrients
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Q1) Which of the following is a unifying feature of polypeptide hormones?
A)originally synthesized without signal sequences
B)synthesized as active prepro-hormones
C)may produce several different peptide hormones with suitable processing
D)activated from prepro-hormones to hormones by phosphorylation
Q2) Rapid influx of Ca² into the cytoplasm can occur as a result of the binding of hormones to a receptor-activating phospholipase C activity.Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increased level of Ca² ?
A)lysozymes
B)calciosomes
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)extracellular stores through Ca² channels in the plasma membrane
Q3) Which of the following explains how extracellular hormone binding activates intracellular tyrosine kinase activity?
A)by conformational change-induced active site activation
B)by conformational change-induced oligomeric association and phosphorylation
C)by induced mRNA synthesis
D)by activation of specific phospholipases
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of uncompetitive inhibition?
A)I combines only with ES.
B)I combines only with E.
C)I combines with E and ES.
D)I combines with EP.
Q2) What is an enzyme's specificity a result of?
A)the ratio of catalyzed rate to the uncatalyzed rate of reaction
B)molecular recognition based on structural complementarity
C)amount of enzyme produced by the cell
D)amount of substrate available
Q3) How do catalysts work to accelerate a chemical reaction?
A)They raise the average energy of the reactants.
B)They raise the overall free energy change of the reaction
C)They lower the energy of activation.
D)They lower the overall free energy change of the reaction.
Q4) Where on the enzyme does the substrate bind in order for catalysis to occur?
A)at hydrophobic residues
B)at the active site
C)at the regulatory site
D)on the surface

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Q1) Aspartate proteases display a variety of substrate specificities.Which of the following peptide bonds,however,do they most actively cleave?
A)those on the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids
B)those on the amino side of aromatic amino acids
C)those between 2 small,neutral residues
D)those between 2 hydrophobic amino acid residues
Q2) Where is the initial bond formation located in the covalent intermediate in the chymotrypsin-catalyzed reaction?
A)between serine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
B)between nitrogen and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
C)between histidine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
D)between aspartate and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
Q3) How does HIV-1 protease differ from most mammalian aspartic acid proteases?
A)It has 2 subunits,each with a 2-aspartate active site.
B)It has 2 subunits,each contributing an aspartate to the active site.
C)It has 2 active sites on 1 protein.
D)It has 2 subunits,1 with an active site and the other with a regulatory activity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules activates PDH kinase?
A)ADP
B)calcium
C)NADH
D)insulin
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to define the process that occurs when binding 1 equivalent of S to an allosteric protein enhances the binding of additional equivalents of S to the same protein molecule?
A)negative heterotropic effect
B)positive homotropic effect
C)positive heterotropic effect
D)negative homotropic effect
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hemoglobin's binding of oxygen?
A)CO promotes dissociation of O from hemoglobin by lowering the pH.
B)Protons promote binding of oxygen by Hb.
C)2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)promotes release of O by Hb.
D)CO can bind with Hb's free amino groups and stabilize deoxyHb.
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Q1) Which of the following troponin subunits is responsible for inhibiting actin-myosin binding?
A)troponin C
B)troponin M
C)troponin G
D)troponin I
Q2) In E.coli,which action powers the rotation of the flagella?
A)the hydrolysis of GTP by the flagella
B)phosphorylation of the motB protein by phosphoenolpyruvate
C)the hydrolysis of ATP by the motB protein
D)a proton gradient across the plasma membrane of the bacterium
Q3) In the b-sheet of the - - - -segment of myosin,a particular sequence likely binds ATP and is found in other nucleotide-binding proteins.Which of the following represents that sequence?
A)Cys-X-X-Cys-X-His
B)Arg-X-X-His-X-Gly
C)Gly-X-X-Gly-X-Gly
D)Lys-X-Gly-X-X-Ser
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metabolism?
A)a process that synthesizes either energy or complex cellular substances
B)a process of intermediates
C)the conversion of food energy into energy of motion
D)a free-flow unregulated process
Q2) Which of the following is the major advantage of a multi-enzyme complex?
A)Its large size enables it to span an entire membrane.
B)The product of one enzyme is passed directly to the next enzyme without the possibility of diffusion.
C)Multi-enzyme complexes are much less likely to be inhibited.
D)It confers enzyme instability.
Q3) Which of the following terms classifies species that can adapt to anaerobic conditions by substituting other electron acceptors for oxygen in their energy-producing pathways?
A)aerobes
B)obligate aerobes
C)facultative anaerobes
D)obligate anaerobes
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Q1) What happens to lactate after it is produced by anaerobic muscle tissue?
A)It is stored in muscle until oxygen is available.
B)It is carried by the blood to the liver for gluconeogenesis back to glycogen.
C)It is further oxidized to acetate in muscle.
D)It is transferred to erythrocytes to release oxygen from hemoglobin.
Q2) Which enzyme is NOT involved in the first 5 steps of glycolysis?
A)phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
B)phosphoglycerate kinase
C)fructose bisphosphate aldolase
D)triose phosphate isomerase (TPI)
Q3) Which of the of the following covalent modifications does cAMP-dependent protein kinase carry out on pyruvate kinase?
A)carboxylation
B)phosphorolysis
C)phosphorylation
D)decarboxylation
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct for aconitase?
A)Iron atom acts as a Lewis acid.
B)Equilibrium favours isocitrate.
C)Aconitase contains an iron-sulfur cluster.
D)One Fe<sup>3+</sup> coordinates with C-3 carbonyl and hydroxyl group of citrate.
Q2) Which of the following is an essential feature of the glyoxylate cycle that is NOT associated with the TCA cycle?
A)It utilizes condensation of acetyl-CoA with succinate.
B)It can produce a net synthesis of 4-carbon units,which are TCA cycle intermediates,from acetyl-CoAs.
C)It occurs in chloroplasts.
D)Mammals use the glyoxylate cycle for gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a principal allosteric regulator of TCA cycle activity?
A)[FADH ]
B)NADH
C)acetyl-CoA
D)ATP
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Q1) Which of the following resides in the mitochondria?
A)enzymes for glycolysis
B)adenylate cyclase
C)the pentose phosphate pathway
D)the electron transport complexes
Q2) Which of the following components is NOT membrane bound?
A)cytochrome ? /? <sub>3</sub>
B)cytochrome c
C)cytochrome c<sub>1</sub>
D)coenzyme Q
Q3) Which of the following cytochromes receives the electron transferred from UQH to the Rieske protein?
A)cyt c
B)cyt b<sub>H</sub>
C)cyt b<sub>L</sub>
D)cyt c<sub>1</sub>
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Q1) Which of the following two components constitute the proton-motive force?
A)an ATP/H ratio and an ion equilibrium
B)pH gradient and an ATP/H ratio
C)a membrane potential and a pH gradient
D)an ATP/H ratio and a membrane potential
Q2) Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation are similar processes.Which of the following is common to both processes?
A)Both produce NADPH to be used in the reductive pentose phosphate pathway (Calvin cycle).
B)Both contain cytochromes in their electron carrier chains.
C)Both represent a major route of ATP hydrolysis.
D)Both have iron clusters as electron carriers.
Q3) Which of the following is the photochemical event that is the essence of photosynthesis?
A)conversion of H O to O
B)phosphorylation of ADP
C)light energy transduction to chemical energy
D)fixation of CO
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Q1) Which of these reactions represents the gluconeogenic reversal of PFK-1 in glycolysis?
A)fructose-6-P + ADP fructose + ATP
B)fructose-6-P + H O fructose + Pi
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP fructose-6-P + ATP
D)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + H O fructose-6-P + Pi
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a substrate for gluconeogenesis?
A)glycerol
B)lactate
C)acetate
D)pyruvate
Q3) Where is glucose from UDP-glucose transferred to so that the initiation of glycogen synthesis occurs?
A)to the tyrosine-OH group of glycogenin
B)to the 4-position of free glucose
C)to the 2-position of fructose
D)to the serine-OH group of glycogen synthase
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Q1) Which of the following explains why bile salts are important in the initial digestion of triacylglycerols in the intestine?
A)They are coenzymes for pancreatic lipase activity.
B)They convert the inactive lipase into the active form leading to digestion.
C)They emulsify the triacylglycerol globules to produce greater surface area,which will increase the activity of the lipase.
D)They permit greater permeability of the triacylglycerols through the intestinal membrane.
Q2) Which of the following lipid components are produced in the duodenum by the enzyme pancreatic lipase during lipid digestion?
A)diacylglycerols and fatty acids
B)fatty acids and glycerol
C)triacylglycerols and glycerol
D)monoacylglycerols and fatty acids
Q3) Which of the following classes of enzymes does enoyl-CoA hydratase belong to?
A)transferase
B)hydrolase
C)lyase
D)ligase
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Q1) Which of the following describes how homoserine and homocysteine are related to serine and cysteine,respectively?
A)They have an extra amino group.
B)They have an additional methylene group.
C)They have an additional carboxyl group.
D)They have an aldehyde group.
Q2) Which of the following describes the role ATP plays in the nitrogenase complex?
A)breaks the N triple bond
B)provides electrons
C)phosphorylates the enzyme
D)transfers electrons from ferredoxin
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is biosynthesized from aspartate?
A)serine
B)glycine
C)cysteine
D)lysine
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Q1) What is the percentage of adenine in a sample of double-stranded DNA containing 32% cytosine?
A)0%
B)18%
C)32%
D)68%
Q2) Which of these compounds is a 6-membered heterocyclic aromatic ring?
A)pyrimidine
B)purine
C)anose
D)ribonucleotide
Q3) What is the net charge on nucleotide monophosphates?
A)+2
B)+1
C)-1
D)-2
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the linking number?
A)It is a basic parameter characterizing supercoiled DNA.
B)L = T + W.
C)It is the number of times that 2 strands are intertwined,providing both strands remain covalently intact.
D)L = 40 in a relaxed circular DNA duplex of 400 bp.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a DNA intercalating agent?
A)ethidium bromide
B)actinomycin D
C)acridine orange
D)streptomycin
Q3) Which of the following stabilizes the DNA double-helix structure?
A)The sugar-phosphate backbones are oriented in parallel directions.
B)Bases stack together through hydrophobic interactions and van der Waals forces.
C)The glycosidic bonds holding paired bases are directly across the helix from one another.
D)Appropriate base pairing builds a polymer whose external dimensions are not consistent.
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Q1) Which of the following provides the immediate reducing power of ribonucleotide reductase?
A)thioredoxin
B)ferredoxin
C)NADH
D)Fe-S complex
Q2) Glutamine phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase catalyzes step 2 in the biosynthesis of purines.Which of the following regarding the regulation of this enzyme is correct?
A)It is accelerated by an input of ATP or GTP.
B)It is sensitive to activation by azaserine.
C)It is accelerated by an input of AMP or GMP.
D)The G series of nucleotides as well as the adenine nucleotides act as competitive inhibitors.
Q3) What is the importance of the purine nucleoside cycle?
A)It participates in the conversion of purines into pyrimidines.
B)It generates fumarate,which inhibits the formation of AMP from IMP.
C)It provides fumarate as an anaplerotic enhancement of the citric acid cycle.
D)It inhibits the citric acid cycle in skeletal muscles.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a useful feature of a plasmid for cloning?
A)expressed sequence tag
B)a cloning site
C)a replicator (origin of replication)
D)a selectable marker
Q2) Which of the following is a method used to insert or transform cells with a plasmid?
A)add the DNA to bacterial cells that have been lightly treated with lysozyme to produce "holes" in the cell wall
B)add the DNA to a heated suspension of cells at 42°C
C)treat the bacteria with Ca² ,add the DNA,and briefly heat to 42°C
D)incubate the DNA with the cells overnight at 4°C
Q3) How does RNA interference function?
A)siRNA binds to genes and prevents transcription.
B)A single strand of the siRNA binds to the gene transcript,preventing translation.
C)The double-stranded siRNA binds to mRNA to prevent ribosomal association.
D)siRNA binds to RNA polymerase,preventing mRNA production.
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Q1) Which of the following is a property of DNA polymerase III?
A)It is responsible for incorporating most of the nucleotides in the leading strand.
B)It is a large protein complex containing more than 5 subunits.
C)It synthesizes most of the leading strand prior to aiding in the synthesis of the lagging strand.
D)It has lesser processivity than DNA polymerase I.
Q2) Which of the following terms defines the exchange of one base for another?
A)frameshift mutation
B)point mutation
C)transition mutation
D)transversion mutation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an activity the reverse transcriptases possess?
A)DNA ligase activity
B)RNA-directed DNA polymerase activity
C)RNase H activity
D)DNA-directed DNA polymerase activity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved in the transcription of a typical gene encoding a polypeptide in eukaryotes?
A)the splicing together of a number of exons in the DNA prior to transcription
B)synthesis by RNA polymerase II
C)transcription of DNA corresponding to both introns and exons
D)addition of the poly(A)<sup>+</sup> tail
Q2) Which of the following base locations in DNA specifies the first base in the RNA transcript designated,and what numerical value is it assigned?
A)promoter;-5
B)enhancer;-35
C)transcription start site;0
D)transcription start site;+1
Q3) Which of the following DNA-binding motifs common to many prokaryotic regulatory proteins is the lac repressor an example of?
A)a homeobox
B)a zinc finger
C)a basic region-leucine finger
D)a helix-turn-helix
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26933
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Q1) Which nucleotide and its hydrolysis provide the driving energy for protein biosynthesis in all cells?
A)ATP
B)GTP
C)UTP
D)CTP
Q2) Which of the following is a protein synthesis inhibitor that catalytically inactivates 28S rRNA and is very toxic in eukaryotic cells?
A)ricin
B)puromycin
C)cycloheximide
D)tetracycline
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the genetic code?
A)Each single amino acid is represented by several codons.
B)Codons are read 5' to 3'.
C)There are 20 total "sense" codons,1 for each amino acid.
D)There are 3 nonsense codons;these are "stop" signals.
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Q1) Which of the following AUBPs is known to function by out-competing other AUBPs for binding to AREs?
A)TTP
B)AUF-1
C)KSRP
D)HuR
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a protein component of P-bodies?
A)Edc3p: decapping activator
B)Argonautes: miRNA silencing
C)CPEB: cytoplasmic polyadenylation element-binding protein
D)eIF2: eukaryotic initiation factor
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA inference (RNAi)?
A)It is conducted by non-coding RNA (miRNAs).
B)It is mediated by cis-acting,single-stranded RNA.
C)It is conserved in a few organisms.
D)It is no longer used for conducting biological research.
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during ubiquitination degradation of proteins?
A)Multiple ubiquitinations may occur on a protein substrate.
B)Ubiquitin-protein ligase (E<sub>3</sub>)transfers ubiquitin to free amino groups on the protein.
C)E<sub>3</sub> selects a protein for degradation by the nature of the C-terminal amino acid.
D)Ubiquitin-carrier protein (E<sub>2</sub>)picks up ubiquitin.
Q2) Which of the following amino acids in a protein targeted for destruction is most commonly the receptor for ubiquitin?
A)Ser
B)Lys
C)Asn
D)Tyr
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of HtrA proteases?
A)chaperones at low temperatures
B)ATP-dependent
C)proteases at low temperatures
D)bind folded proteins
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Q1) In which area is glucose NOT pivotal to adipocyte metabolism?
A)formation of DHAP for reduction and esterification of fatty acids
B)provision of glucose-6-phosphate for generating NADPH from the pentose phosphate pathway
C)synthesis of ketone bodies
D)conversion of glucose to fatty acids for storage and export
Q2) What is the term for the constant availability of fuels in the blood,and what is the order of preference for fuel usage?
A)phosphorylation potential;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
B)fuel dynamics;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
C)metabolic regulation;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
D)caloric homeostasis;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of ATP stoichiometry in metabolic pathways?
A)It is not a consequence of evolution.
B)A singular number is not required.
C)It results from biological adaptation.
D)It cannot be predicted from any chemical considerations.
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