Nutrition and Human Biology Question
Bank
Course Introduction
Nutrition and Human Biology explores the intricate relationship between dietary intake and the physiological functions of the human body. This course examines the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients, emphasizing their roles in growth, development, and overall health. Topics also include the impact of nutrition on body systems, the biological mechanisms underlying nutrient requirements, and the influence of genetics, environment, and lifestyle on nutritional status. Through an integrated approach, students gain an understanding of how optimal nutrition supports human biology, prevention of disease, and promotion of lifelong health.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An important part of scientific research is repeatability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All of the changes that occur starting from the time an egg is fertilized and continuing through childhood,adolescence,and adulthood are called A) metabolism.
B) evolution.
C) homeostasis.
D) reproduction.
E) development.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods would be a good source of fiber?
A) peaches
B) whole-wheat bread
C) peanuts
D) bran cereal
E) All of these are good sources of fiber.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A) quick energy
B) support
C) transport
D) enzymes
E) motion
Answer: A
Q3) Fats are usually of animal origin,while oils are usually of plant origin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?
A) endosymbiont model
B) fluid-mosaic model
C) plasmagel-plasmasol model
D) lock and key model
E) induced-fit model
Answer: B
Q2) If a cell lacked ribosomes,it would not be able to
A) form a spindle apparatus.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) respire oxidatively.
D) break down fats.
E) produce ATP.
Answer: B
Q3) Biologists classify cells into two broad categories- animals and plants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In epithelial tissues,what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?
A) ependymal cells
B) plasma membrane
C) synovial membrane
D) basement membrane
E) transitional membrane
Q2) What type of tissue receives sensory input,integrates data,and conducts impulses?
A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) muscular tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) vascular tissue
Q3) If body temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism,the body's temperature would continue to rise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the functions of and the organs associated with the urinary system.
Q5) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pulmonary circuit,veins carry oxygen-_____ blood,and in the systemic circuit,veins carry oxygen-_____ blood.
A) rich; rich
B) poor; poor
C) rich; poor
D) poor; rich
Q2) The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which blood vessel will supply oxygenated blood directly to the femoral artery?
A) common iliac artery
B) femoral vein
C) aorta
D) common iliac vein
E) inferior vena cava
Q4) The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes blood red?
A) albumin
B) hemoglobin
C) fibrinogen
D) globulins
E) platelets
Q2) Robby has type B positive blood.His blood will contain
A)A and Rh antigens,and anti-B antibodies.
B)A but no Rh antigens,and anti-B antibodies.
C)B but no Rh antigens,and anti-A antibodies.
D)B and Rh antigens,and anti-A antibodies.
E)B and Rh antigens,and no antibodies.
Q3) The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of A) leukocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) albumins.
D) platelets.
E) globulins.
Q4) List the steps involved in the formation of a blood clot.When a blood vessel is punctured
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics.Under these conditions,which antibody levels would be higher than normal?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgE
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells contain which type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens?
A) steroid
B) interferon
C) antioxidant
D) complement
E) perforin
Q3) Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the presence and function of the IgA class of antibodies.
Q5) Describe the function of the thymus as it relates to the lymphatic system.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the steps of the HIV life cycle in the correct order:
1.Assembly
2.Integration
3.Entry
4.Fusion
5.Attachment
6.Budding
7.Biosynthesis and cleavage
8.Reverse transcription
A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 7, 6, 8
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
C. 8, 1, 7, 2, 6, 3, 5, 4
D. 4, 6, 3, 7, 2, 8, 1, 5
E. 5, 4, 3, 8, 2, 7, 1, 6
Q2) AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin is fat soluble?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin E
C) vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
D) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
E) biotin
Q2) What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth?
A) salivary lipase
B) salivary protease
C) salivary sucrase
D) salivary amylase
E) salivary lactase
Q3) Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count.What should the fisheries'officers do?
A) Nothing. A high coliform count is normal.
B) Nothing. A high coliform count is good for oyster production.
C) Shut down the bay. A high coliform count is harmful to humans who eat the oysters.
D) Shut down the bay. A high coliform count is harmful to the oysters.
E) Nothing. A high coliform count is beneficial to humans who eat the oysters.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange?
A) bronchus
B) larynx
C) nasal cavity
D) lungs
E) diaphragm
Q2) The pharynx contains the vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are internal and external respiration alike?
A) Both involve an exchange of gases.
B) Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs.
C) Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs.
D) Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues.
E) Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues.
Q4) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reabsorption of water in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of salt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urethra in females is much longer than in males.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What term is used to describe bone cells?
A) osteocytes
B) chondrocytes
C) trabeculae
D) periosteum
E) epiphysis
Q3) Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body?
A) humerus
B) pelvis
C) tibia
D) fibula
E) femur
Q4) As long as the growth plate remains,the limbs will keep increasing in length.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three types of cartilage found in the body and indicate a function for each.
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jillian is a top-level cross-country runner due to her having predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Temperature-sensitive neurons in the skin are responsible for initiating shivering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction,often accompanied by pain?
A) bursitis
B) sprain
C) strain
D) tic
E) spasm
Q4) Muscles can only pull; they cannot push.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the structural differences between the thick and thin myofilaments.
Q6) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true?
A) Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves.
B) The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals.
C) Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves, while some are only motor fibers. Others are mixed.
D) Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head, neck, and face.
E) The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve.
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
A) sensory
B) interneuron
C) motor
D) neuroglia
E) afferent
Q3) Which of the following is part of the limbic system?
A) spinal cord
B) primary somatosensory area
C) amygdala
D) reticular formation
E) cerebellum
Q4) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle:
1)Muscle spindle is stretched.
2)Reflex action occurs.
3)Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle.
4)Nerve signals are generated.
5)The muscle relaxes.
6)The muscle's length increases.
A) 1,6,2,4,5,3
B) 2,3,1,4,5,6
C) 5,6,1,4,2,3
D) 2,1,6,3,4,5
E) 5,1,2,4,3,6
Q2) Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except A) stereocilia.
B) hair cells.
C) calcium carbonate granules.
D) a gelatinous substance within a chamber.
E) the vestibular nerve.
Q3) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would the endocrine and nervous systems respond to an individual touching a hot stove?
A) sending signals that pull the invidiual's hand away
B) sending signals that cause the release of epinephrine
C) sending signals that cause the release of norepinephrine
D) sending signals that cause the individual to move his/her whole body away
E) the endocrine and nervous systems would cause an individual to do all of these things
Q2) List the hormones that are produced by the following endocrine glands,and indicate the target tissue/organ the hormones act upon: hypothalamus,thyroid,thymus,and pineal gland.
Q3) Which pancreatic hormone stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) estradiol
D) epinephrine
E) cortisol
Q4) Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes.
Q5) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does fertilization of the egg normally occur?
A) ovary
B) abdominal cavity
C) fimbria
D) oviduct
E) vagina
Q2) The placenta,which sustains the developing embryo and fetus,originates only from maternal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If fertilization occurs,the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle?
A) days 1-5
B) days 1-13
C) days 6-13
D) days 15-28
E) days 28-32
Q5) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What occurs during stage 3 of labor?
A) The cervix dilates.
B) The baby is born.
C) Effacement occurs.
D) The amniotic sac ruptures.
E) The placenta is expelled.
Q3) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Q4) Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm?
A) tail
B) middle piece
C) head
D) nucleus
E) cell membrane
Q5) Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer.Is she in labor?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear or disappear?
A) prophase and metaphase
B) metaphase and anaphase
C) prophase and anaphase
D) anaphase and telophase
E) prophase and telophase
Q2) How many cells are produced as the result of meiosis and mitosis?
A) four, two
B) two, two
C) two, four
D) four, four
E) it varies each time the cells go through meiosis and mitosis
Q3) If an organism does not undergo meiosis,then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter.How big is 6 mm approximately?
A) just barely visible, about the size of a pin prick
B) about the same as one of the letters in this question
C) about the size of a pencil eraser
D) about the size of a nickel
E) about the size of a quarter
Q2) A carcinogen is not a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells,the cells are killed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The earlier a cancer is detected,the more likely it can be effectively treated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) gamete
D) probability
E) autosomal
Q2) When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes,you are describing his or her genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a pedigree,an affected male would be designated by
A) an open circle.
B) a shaded circle.
C) an open square.
D) a shaded square.
E) a square with a line through it.
Q4) In an X-linked dominant trait,affected males pass the trait only to daughters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the term "polygenic traits."
23
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Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers found three genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that,when compared to our human genes,have given us insight into our evolution.What were those three genes?
A) genes for speech development, hearing, and smell
B) genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length
C) genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism
D) genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length
E) genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size
Q2) Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-aspartic acid- glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred.
A) GUUAAGAGG
B) GCCGACGGC
C) CACCGCCGA
D) GAUGGUGCU
E) UUUUAAUGG
Q3) As the RNA is being made,it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecines?
A) walked on all fours, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs
B) walked upright, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs
C) walked on all fours, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs
D) walked upright, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs
E) walked on all fours and used their tails for balance
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning evolution is not true?
A) Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes.
B) Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants.
C) Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants.
D) Reptiles preceded the amphibians.
E) Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals.
Q3) The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are the Cro-Magnons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.
Q6) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) What kind of an organism is an earthworm?
A) producer
B) herbivore
C) carnivore
D) omnivore
E) detritus feeder
Q2) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
Q3) Which is an exchange pool for the carbon cycle?
A) the ocean
B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C) limestone
D) fossil fuels
E) soil
Q4) Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
A) aquifers
B) standing water (lakes and ponds)
C) ice
D) ocean
E) runoff
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Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere
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Q1) The more-developed countries have typically always had low population growth rates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to have a negative population growth rate,
A) the birthrate must exceed the death rate.
B) the biotic potential of the population must increase.
C) the death rate must exceed the birth rate.
D) the carrying capacity for the population must increase.
E) only replacement reproduction can occur.
Q3) At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles)of a coastline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A) It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war.
B) It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war.
C) It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine.
D) It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II.
E) It stabilized due to fewer people dying in war.
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