Nutrition and Disease Prevention Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the critical relationship between nutrition and the prevention of chronic diseases, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, obesity, cancer, and osteoporosis. Students will examine the role of macro- and micronutrients in maintaining optimal health and how dietary patterns impact disease risk. The course integrates current scientific evidence to evaluate the effectiveness of various dietary strategies in disease prevention, analyzes national and global nutrition guidelines, and discusses the roles of behavioral, cultural, and socioeconomic factors in shaping dietary habits. Through case studies and real-world applications, students will gain a deeper understanding of how evidence-based nutrition interventions can promote public health and reduce the burden of preventable diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Nutritional Foundations and Clinical Applications 6th Edition by Michele Grodner
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20 Chapters
617 Verified Questions
617 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Wellness Nutrition
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of informal education include
A) attending a workshop on coronary artery disease sponsored by the American Heart Association.
B) watching a television show about diabetes.
C) learning about food safety techniques in a high school economics course.
D) joining a support group to help overcome an eating disorder.
Answer: B
Q2) A nutrient that can be made by the body is called
A) essential.
B) complete.
C) incomplete.
D) nonessential.
Answer: D
Q3) For a mother with two children who works in health care management 60 to 70 hours a week,the biggest barrier to healthy eating is likely to be
A) lack of concern for her own or her children's health.
B) inadequate income to purchase healthy foods.
C) insufficient time to plan and prepare healthful meals.
D) lack of knowledge about healthy eating.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Personal and Community Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) For most Americans,the most significant nutrition concerns are
A) lack of interest in making healthy food choices.
B) poor availability of fruits and vegetables in many areas.
C) excessive intake of saturated fats,cholesterol,sodium,and sugars.
D) inadequate intake of key vitamins,minerals,and phytochemicals.
Answer: C
Q2) One reason that increasing fruit and vegetable consumption helps decrease dietary fat intake is that fruits and vegetables
A) are natural appetite suppressants.
B) replace high-fat foods in the diet.
C) are rich in antioxidants and phytochemicals.
D) decrease absorption of fat from foods.
Answer: B
Q3) If clients want to use the food label to check the number of kilocalories in a product,they should also check the A) calories from fat.
B) servings per container.
C) Percent Daily Value.
D) ingredient list.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Digestion,Absorption,and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) When someone walks by a bakery and smells the fresh bread,his or her mouth starts to water.As the person thinks about eating the fresh bread,another digestive function that starts to occur is
A) peristalsis in the small intestine.
B) stimulation of pancreatic secretions.
C) increased blood flow to the gut and liver.
D) release of the hormone gastrin in the stomach.
Answer: D
Q2) If pancreatic secretions were absent,
A) there would be no bicarbonate to buffer the acid in chyme entering the duodenum.
B) mechanical digestion in the stomach would be inhibited.
C) the hormone secretin would not be secreted by the small intestine.
D) the gallbladder would not contract to release bile into the small intestine.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason for chewing sugar-free gum instead of sugar-sweetened gum is that sugar-free gum
A) is calorie-free and helps with weight control.
B) contains sugar alcohols that do not promote dental caries.
C) contains gums that provide soluble dietary fiber.
D) is sweeter than sugar-sweetened gum because it contains artificial sweeteners.
Q2) Since the 1970s,consumption of refined white sugar has decreased,mostly because A) health-conscious consumers are using less of it.
B) use of high-fructose corn syrup has increased.
C) use of artificial sweeteners has increased.
D) use of honey and other natural sweeteners has increased.
Q3) If someone chewed a piece of bread for a long time,its taste would become A) unchanged.
B) salty.
C) sweeter.
D) bitter.
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6
Chapter 5: Fats
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Sample Questions
Q1) If dietary analysis shows that fat provides 31% of an individual's energy intake,their fat intake would be
A) considered below the recommended range.
B) considered within the recommended range.
C) considered above the recommended range.
D) generally recognized as safe.
Q2) To decrease intake of saturated fatty acids and increase intake of polyunsaturated fatty acid,one dietary change would be from using _____ to using _____ oil.
A) shortening;coconut
B) margarine;olive
C) soybean oil;canola
D) butter;sunflower
Q3) The best description of a fat with high amounts of trans fatty acids is that it is
A) liquid at room temperature.
B) found naturally in tropical oils.
C) easily transformed from one state to another.
D) produced by hydrogenation of plant oils.
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Chapter 6: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sports coaches at a university are designing training diets for their teams.Why do they need to provide more protein for the men's rowing team than for the women's rowing team?
A) The men's team is more active than is the women's team.
B) The men's team has more lean body mass than does the women's team.
C) The men's team has a higher metabolic rate than does the women's team.
D) The men's team uses dietary protein less efficiently than does the women's team.
Q2) Body proteins may become denatured in the presence of a A) drug overdose.
B) very high fever.
C) vitamin deficiency.
D) high stress level.
Q3) If a man weighs 190 lb and eats 150 g protein per day,his protein intake is _____ of the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA).
A) less than 100%
B) between 100% and 150%
C) between 150% and 200%
D) greater than 200%
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods rich in antioxidant vitamins include
A) oranges and vegetable oils.
B) apples and butter.
C) carrots and olive oil.
D) mushrooms and milk.
Q2) If whole milk is stored in a clear bottle in a refrigerator with a glass front,
A) the milk fat may separate and rise to the top of the bottle.
B) some of the protein in the milk may become denatured.
C) the ultraviolet light exposure may destroy the vitamin D.
D) the ultraviolet light exposure may destroy the riboflavin.
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital with confusion,memory loss,and ataxia.What other information would lead you to suspect that his symptoms may be caused by secondary thiamin deficiency?
A) The patient has very limited funds and has been eating mainly rice and beans.
B) The patient admits that he struggles with alcoholism.
C) The patient is recovering from a minor stroke.
D) The patient has a family history of Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 8: Water and Minerals
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary fluoride is important for
A) decreasing staining of teeth.
B) decreasing sensitivity of teeth.
C) stimulating production of saliva.
D) increasing the strength of tooth enamel.
Q2) A family with three young children has limited income,relies on public transportation,and has just moved into a very old apartment complex with old plumbing and lead pipes.The best recommendation to minimize lead exposure would be to
A) use only bottled water.
B) run the tap water for 2 minutes before using it.
C) boil the tap water for 2 minutes before using it.
D) use only hot water for drinking,cooking,and preparing food.
Q3) A sodium intake of 2100 mg daily by a healthy adult would be considered
A) below the adequate intake (AI).
B) within the recommended range.
C) below the maximum recommended level.
D) above the maximum recommended level.
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Chapter 9: Energy, Weight, and Fitness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most accurate way to measure body fat levels is to use
A) body mass index (BMI).
B) triceps skinfold thickness.
C) underwater weighing (densitometry).
D) bioelectric impedance analysis (BIA).
Q2) The behavior change that would do most to help preserve lean body mass is
A) avoiding weight loss.
B) exercising regularly.
C) decreasing dietary fat intake.
D) ensuring adequate protein intake.
Q3) It would be especially beneficial for someone to avoid becoming obese if they have a family history of
A) osteoporosis and sarcopenia (muscle wasting).
B) alcoholism and liver cancer.
C) sleep apnea and osteoarthritis.
D) multiple sclerosis and celiac disease.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Across The Life Span
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A meal that a family should not share with their 10-month-old infant is
A) meatloaf and mashed potatoes.
B) refried beans and cheese.
C) peanut butter and honey sandwich.
D) baked fish and butternut squash.
Q2) The person who is most likely to have an inadequate calcium intake is a(n)
A) school-age child who receives free school breakfast and lunch.
B) toddler who prefers to drink milk rather than eat meals.
C) adolescent boy who plays varsity football.
D) adolescent girl who is a competitive gymnast.
Q3) The child most likely to develop type 2 diabetes is the one who A) is obese.
B) is malnourished.
C) has multiple food allergies.
D) lives in a low-income household.
Q4) Interventions for obese children should focus on A) gradual weight loss.
B) low-fat food choices.
C) healthy lifestyle behaviors.
D) increased physical activity.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Assessment and Patient Care
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to evaluate the weight of a hospitalized patient is
A) at the same time as assessing the patient's vital signs.
B) no more than once a week,to avoid measuring fluid shifts rather than true weight.
C) by using a bed scale.
D) while the patient is wearing a hospital gown,at the same time each day,and after voiding.
Q2) Measurement of serum albumin level would be most useful for predicting visceral protein status in a(n)
A) patient with congestive heart failure who has very little appetite.
B) elderly patient who has been living alone and is scheduled for nonemergency surgery.
C) patient with liver failure related to chronic alcohol abuse.
D) patient who was in a serious car accident and is recovering from multiple fractures.
Q3) A patient may be at high nutritional risk if he or she
A) is receiving a soft diet.
B) has a serum albumin level of 2.5 g/dL.
C) has been receiving a tube feeding for 1 week.
D) has gained 5 pounds during the previous month.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Food-Related Issues
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a home visit to a patient receiving home enteral nutrition,the greatest source of concern would be if the
A) patient were receiving enteral feedings only during the night.
B) patient has gained 1 pound during the past month.
C) family complains that they miss being able to eat meals together.
D) family is blending family meals to make their own formula.
Q2) If a patient starts to experience diarrhea 12 hours after starting enteral feedings,the first course of action the medical staff would try is
A) switching to a lactose-free formula.
B) decreasing the rate of the formula feeding.
C) switching to an elemental formula.
D) stopping the feeding until the diarrhea resolves.
Q3) If a patient with depression takes a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI),the nurse may want to ask about use of herbal products because of potential interactions if the patient is using
A) ginseng.
B) ginkgo biloba.
C) St.John's wort.
D) evening primrose oil.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nutrition for Disorders of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient who has undergone gastric bypass surgery for treatment of extreme obesity experiences sudden sweating,nausea,and stomach cramps after meals,the patient may have
A) gastroesophageal reflux.
B) pancreatitis.
C) peptic ulcer disease.
D) dumping syndrome.
Q2) The best way to prevent formation of diverticula in the colon is to
A) eat plenty of fruits,vegetables,and whole grains.
B) avoid foods with rough hulls,such as nuts and seeds.
C) use stool softeners to promote daily bowel movements.
D) avoid foods that cause gas and increase pressure in the colon.
Q3) For patients with ostomies,a lower amount of output occurs
A) if the ostomy is closer to the rectum.
B) if the ostomy is closer to the rectum.,
C) with high fiber intake..
D) with high fat intake.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nutrition for Disorders of the Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an otherwise healthy patient with normal body weight develops fatty liver disease,it would be especially important to evaluate their A) blood glucose level.
B) alcohol intake.
C) total fat intake.
D) use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Q2) If a patient with cirrhosis of the liver becomes confused and apathetic,he or she may be developing
A) fatty liver disease.
B) hepatitis D.
C) secondary depression.
D) hepatic encephalopathy.
Q3) If a patient with cirrhosis of the liver has a "soft" diet order,he or she probably has A) lethargy.
B) cholelithiasis.
C) esophageal varices.
D) hepatic encephalopathy.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nutrition for Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient with type 2 diabetes shows early signs of kidney disease,the first priority in nutrition management is
A) restricting dietary protein intake.
B) normalizing blood glucose levels.
C) limiting dietary sodium intake.
D) increasing fluid intake.
Q2) Patients with type 1 diabetes should be taught to regulate the _____ in meals and snacks.
A) kilocalorie content
B) total amount of sugars
C) total amount of dietary fiber
D) total amount of carbohydrates
Q3) In a patient with type 2 diabetes,a glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA c)level of 7.9% would be considered
A) too low.
B) normal.
C) indicative of prediabetes.
D) indicative of poor blood glucose control.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic Stress: Burns, Trauma and Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During starvation or fasting,the body adapts so that it can obtain as much energy as possible from
A) glycogen.
B) glucose.
C) protein.
D) fat.
Q2) If a malnourished patient undergoes an emergency appendectomy and develops pneumonia during the recovery,he or she probably A) has a history of smoking.
B) used protein from the intercostal muscles for energy.
C) had bronchitis before undergoing surgery.
D) needs evaluation for dysphagia.
Q3) After surgery,once bowel sounds return,the most appropriate first meal should be A) clear liquids.
B) soft and low in fiber.
C) chosen by the physician.
D) chosen by the patient.
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Chapter 17: Nutrition for Cardiopulmonary Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using parenteral nutrition support for patients with acute respiratory failure,it is important to avoid use of high glucose concentrations because
A) glucose tolerance is often impaired.
B) they may cause hypersecretion of insulin.
C) they increase RQ.
D) they may lead to development of diabetes mellitus.
Q2) If a patient has an initial LDL cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and implements TLC dietary changes,and if after 6 weeks the serum LDL cholesterol level has decreased only to 165 mg/dL,the patient should
A) continue TLC dietary changes for a total of 3 months.
B) follow the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH)diet pattern.
C) begin drug therapy with a bile acid sequestrant.
D) begin drug therapy with statins.
Q3) The patient who benefit most from a sodium restriction of 2000 mg/day is one with A) severe heart failure.
B) stage 1 hypertension.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition for Diseases of the Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison with patients treated with hemodialysis,patients treated with peritoneal dialysis have
A) similar energy needs.
B) higher energy needs.
C) lower energy needs.
D) more variable energy needs,depending on activity level.
Q2) If a patient wishes to continue working and be active during the day,the best kind of peritoneal dialysis would be
A) intermittent.
B) manual.
C) mechanical.
D) continuous ambulatory.
Q3) It would be most challenging to design a diet for chronic renal failure for
A) a patient with elevated levels of serum low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol.
B) a patient with hypertension.
C) someone who follows a vegan eating pattern.
D) someone who adheres to strict kosher food laws.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition for Neuro Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best diet for prevention of stroke is
A) low in sodium and fat.
B) rich in dietary fiber and olive oil.
C) high in low-fat dairy products.
D) mostly plant foods and fish.
Q2) If a client is suddenly unable to speak,seems confused,and has trouble walking,it is most likely that he or she has A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA),or stroke.
D) had myocardial infarction,or heart attack.
Q3) When you evaluate a patient with multiple sclerosis,your greatest nutrition-related concern would be
A) reliance on a caregiver to prepare and serve food.
B) the patient's frustration with loss of independence.
C) reliance on preprepared processed foods.
D) food's being one of the few things the patient still enjoys.
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21
Chapter 20: Nutrition in Cancer and HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in whom cancer has been newly diagnosed is about to begin intense chemotherapy.She tells you that the only good thing about this diagnosis is that she will now be able to lose weight without even trying.The most appropriate nursing response would be to
A) encourage the patient to celebrate the positive aspects of the disease.
B) encourage adequate nutrient intake to maximize tolerance of chemotherapy.
C) reinforce the need to achieve and maintain ideal body weight.
D) emphasize eating the right types of foods rather than an amount of food.
Q2) If a patient with HIV/AIDS has been feeling very weak and whose weight has dropped from 180 lb to 160 lb in 4 weeks,he or she would be considered to have
A) opportunistic infections.
B) lipodystrophy or HALS.
C) AIDS-related wasting syndrome.
D) AIDS-related depression.
Q3) The factor that contributes most to malnutrition in patients with HIV/AIDS is A) opportunistic infections.
B) fear of weight gain.
C) use of antiretroviral therapy.
D) increase in physical activity.
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