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Nutrition and Diet Therapy explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition, focusing on the relationship between diet, health, and disease prevention. Students examine the digestion, absorption, and utilization of nutrients, the role of dietary requirements through the lifespan, and the impact of nutritional choices on overall wellness. The course emphasizes the therapeutic application of nutrition, including dietary modifications for various medical conditions, the development of nutrition care plans, and strategies for promoting healthy eating habits in diverse populations. Practical case studies and evidence-based approaches are used to connect theory with real-world dietary management and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Q1) List the methods, or means of data collection, used to complete an accurate nutritional assessment that is the framework for a dietary treatment plan.
Answer: Social history, 24-hour diet recall, food diary for 3 to 4 days, computer analysis of the diet, review for any food-drug interactions, review of medical records, clinical examinations, and review of results of any biochemical tests and anthropometrical measurements.
Q2) Which mineral is needed to prevent osteoporosis from occurring?
A)iron
B)magnesium
C)zinc
D)calcium
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following diseases is related to vitamin C deficiency?
A)anemia
B)goiter
C)scurvy
D)xerophthalmia
Answer: C
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Q1) Prepare a diet plan with alternate food sources to meet the recommended amounts of calcium for this age group. Include food choices that are appropriate for this age and that supply all recommended vitamins, minerals, and nutrients.
Answer: Students could include any diet plan with alternate food choices for calcium, such as sunflower seeds (an excellent choice for a young child), raisins, carrots, pinto beans, salmon, brown rice, ground beef, tofu, nuts. Plans will vary.
Q2) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is the lack of _____________. It is more prevalent among four specific population groups. List them and describe why those population groups are more at risk. Describe how their diets can be altered to prevent the deficiency.
Answer: Iron: Children under age 2 consume more milk instead of eating other food sources with iron. Adolescents lack a nutritional diet because they eat more junk food than regular meals. Pregnant women need increased iron because the developing fetus depletes their blood cells. Women with heavy menstrual flow are at risk for decreased iron levels. Diet plans may vary, but clients should be encouraged to eat foods high in iron such as lean meats, poultry, fish, enriched breads, legumes, leafy green vegetables, dried fruits, and nuts.
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Q1) What additional symptoms that may occur should the client be made aware of? What are the complications of a hiatal hernia?
Answer: Chronic irritation from the acids may result in cancer. If the hernia is unmanageable with medical treatment, surgery may be performed.
Q2) _____________ is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of fats.
A)Pancreatic amylase
B)Pancreatic lipase
C)Salivary amylase
D)Trypsin
Answer: B
Q3) What term is used to describe the movement caused by rhythmic contractions of the muscular wall of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mechanical
B)chemical
C)peristalsis
D)hydrolysis
Answer: C
Q4) Determine her current recommended body weight based on her height and sex. Answer: 111-146 pounds
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Q1) Jill and Henry both have difficulty with constipation. What food sources provide fiber in the diet? What food sources can you recommend to aid this problem? Why have they limited the fiber in their diet? What is the dietary requirement for fiber?
Q2) What is another term for glucose?
A)dextrin
B)dextrose
C)table sugar
D)saccharine
Q3) Discuss the metabolism of glucose. What is the function of glucose in the body? Which food sources are needed to obtain glucose? What controls the process of glucose metabolism? What does the body do with the glucose that is not needed?
Q4) Carbohydrates are required by the body to furnish adequate fiber needed. A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the consequences of consuming too much fiber.
Q6) Discuss the protein-sparing action of carbohydrates.
Q7) What is the minimum amount of carbohydrates needed each day?
Q8) What is the recommended weight loss per week?
Page 6
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Q1) Which of the following plant foods contains a considerable amount of fat?
A)potatoes
B)tomatoes
C)olives
D)cucumbers
Q2) What factors could have contributed to his weight?
Q3) Ms. Jared is very concerned and has voiced to you that she will do whatever is necessary to "prevent Reinay from becoming sick, and maybe even worse." Schedule an appointment with the dietitian to develop a dietary plan for Reinay. Considering that you are a new graduate, what would be your recommendations?
Q4) Discuss the functions of fat in the body.
Q5) Which lipoprotein is termed as "bad" cholesterol?
A)chylomicrons
B)VLDL
C)LDL
D)HDL
Q6) Describe the pathology that occurs within the cardiovascular system with the ingestion of coffee, nicotine, and fats.
Q7) What impact does the lack of fiber in the diet have on cholesterol in the body?
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Q1) There are factors that determine the protein requirement an individual needs. List them.
Q2) The average adult daily requirement is 0.8 g of protein per kilogram of body weight. Ariel weighs 110 pounds. What is the adult daily requirement of protein for her?
Q3) Positive nitrogen balance occurs during pregnancy because ____.
A)the amount of nitrogen excreted rises at that time
B)new tissue is being created
C)there is no catabolism occurring then
D)more nitrogen is lost during pregnancy than during other times
Q4) What is tofu made from?
A)corn
B)legumes
C)chickpeas
D)soy milk
Q5) Proteins may contain _____in addition to carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.
A)potassium
B)calcium
C)sulfur
D)sodium
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Q1) Describe the relationship between vitamin A and cancer prevention.
Q2) How can one avoid the loss of vitamins during cooking?
A)cook vegetables slowly for 1 hour on stovetop
B)steam vegetables
C)use dressing with mineral oils
D)cook vegetables in an oven in lots of water
Q3) An example of a fat-soluble vitamin is ____.
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin B12
C)niacin
D)vitamin K
Q4) What is the best source of vitamin D?
A)milk
B)fortified milk
C)sunlight
D)cheese
Q5) The deficiency of vitamin D in young children may cause night blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the types of people who are prone to vitamin deficiencies.
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Q1) Bone mass is acquired until one is approximately _____ years old.
A)18
B)30
C)50
D)65
Q2) Explain how mineral salts are related to the concept of electroneutrality.
Q3) Which mineral's absorption is affected by an excessive use of antacids?
A)sodium
B)potassium
C)phosphorus
D)calcium
Q4) Discuss factors that impact the absorption of iron.
Q5) The adequate intake of fluoride remains the same from infancy throughout the life cycle because the bones and teeth are fully developed by early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What conditions could cause a potassium deficiency, and what conditions could cause an excess potassium level?
Q7) What are the symptoms of potassium deficiency?
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Q1) What condition can occur when the body has suffered a loss of hydrochloric acid?
A)acidosis
B)alkalosis
C)renal failure
D)hypertension
Q2) Identify nursing goals.
Q3) Describe the steps in planning nursing care.
Q4) The fluid found between cells is called intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the pH of blood plasma in a healthy person?
A)pH 6.8-7.1
B)pH 7.35-7.45
C)pH 7
D)below pH 7
Q6) List expected outcomes:
Q7) The cerebrum regulates thirst.
A)True
B)False
Q8) List conditions when the need for fluids is increased.
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Q1) "If I breastfeed, will I have to be on a special diet?"
Q2) It is recommended that pregnant women should always drink an additional 6 oz of fortified milk per day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the role of the nurse versus that of the registered dietitian in prenatal dietary education.
Q4) Discuss four priority nutritional concerns for the pregnant woman. Include nursing interventions to relieve the symptoms.
Q5) What is the approximate number of calories in an ounce of human milk?
A)10 calories
B)20 calories
C)30 calories
D)40 calories
Q6) Which vitamin, in excess, can cause birth defects?
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin E
C)vitamin A
D)vitamin D
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Q1) It is recommended that infants up to 6 months of age have _____ of protein per kilogram of weight per day.
A)0.8 g
B)2.2 g
C)1.56 g
D)2.0 g
Q2) How is an infant's readiness for solid foods demonstrated?
Q3) The PKU test was positive and the physician diagnosed the infant with PKU. Ms. Newby states, "If the protein is only in milk products, it should not be too hard to watch the diet."
Q4) When introducing solid foods to an infant's diet, _____ is usually introduced first.
A)soft fruits
B)pureed vegetables
C)finely ground meat
D)cereal
Q5) How can you account for the underweight condition and the psychosocial withdrawal of Lucia?
Q6) List three goals to be used for planning care for Lucia and her family.
Q7) What factors for Maryanne have contributed to Lucia's failure to thrive?
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Q1) Generally speaking, fast foods are not high in _____.
A)fat
B)sodium
C)calories
D)fiber
Q2) What steps can you take to aid this family in planning a lifestyle for Chandra?
Children with childhood type 2 diabetes and their parents will gain useful insight and increased nutritional knowledge with referral to additional health professionals. Acquaint them with those that will be of value.
Q3) Nerissa's mother asks about the treatment for anorexia.
Q4) List evaluation measures to determine if the nursing interventions are effective.
Q5) The Academy of Pediatrics states that energy drinks are safe for children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q6) From ages 1 to 10, as a child grows, calorie needs decrease but nutrient needs increase.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) An individual who overeats by 200 calories per day will gain one pound per month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A woman's need for adequate sources of iron or iron supplements continues throughout the life span.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most Americans ingest _____ the amount of salt needed each day.
A)half
B)one-fourth
C)10 times
D)2-6 times
Q4) Describe some common food-drug interactions.
Q5) Mary tells you she does not like milk, so she will plan on purchasing some calcium supplements from the grocery store. How do you respond?
Q6) What are the three basic components of an assessment?
Q7) List assessment data to determine defining characteristics for validating the nursing problem.
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Q1) List nursing interventions in order of priority.
Q2) The primary assessment goal is ______________.
Q3) Discuss recommendations for healthy weight loss. Include calorie requirements and nutrient requirements.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a core principle of motivational interviewing?
A)expressing empathy
B)rolling with resistance
C)mandating progress
D)developing discrepancy
Q5) The most immediate consequence of overweight as perceived by the children themselves is social discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which hormone receives signals from fat and the intestine to make you feel full so eating will stop?
A)leptin
B)ghrelin
C)insulin
D)lecithin
Q7) Describe the distribution of fat as an indicator of possible health problems.
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Q1) Which of the following may be more helpful for a client with type 1 diabetes?
A)limit fat intake to less than 10% of daily calories
B)eat small meals plus two or three snacks per day
C)exercise 2 days a week for 35 minutes
D)increase carbohydrate intake to 70% of daily calories
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Type 1 diabetes clients are advised not to exercise.
B)Clients with type 2 diabetes must have injections daily to control blood glucose levels.
C)For type 1 diabetes, insulin is often given in two or more injections daily.
D)A hypoglycemic episode can lead to a high blood glucose level.
Q3) A symptom of diabetes mellitus is polydipsia, or excessive thirst. Why does this occur?
Q4) List the most common symptoms of diabetes.
Q5) Which method of diet therapy is most commonly used for diabetic clients?
A)carbohydrate counting
B)exchange lists
C)diet modification
D)meal planning
Q6) Describe why hyperglycemia occurs.
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Q1) Discuss the use of sodium and salt by the general population. Include consumption, recommended dietary amount (RDA), and food sources.
Q2) All of the following statements about atherosclerosis are true EXCEPT ________.
A)arteries become thickened
B)begins in adulthood
C)caused by an inflammatory process
D)plaques develop within the artery walls
Q3) List and define the four blood pressure categories.
Q4) _____ tend to reduce serum cholesterol.
A)Unsaturated fats
B)Saturated fats
C)Triglycerides
D)Lipids
Q5) In severe cases of edema, it is possible for a client to adhere to a diet that is totally salt-free.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compile a list of foods or condiments that are high in sodium.
Q7) What predisposing factors have increased Ed's risk for hypertension?
Q8) Discuss the formation of plaque.
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Q1) Energy needs for the client with renal disease should be fulfilled with _____.
A)carbohydrates and proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)proteins
D)carbohydrates and fats
Q2) _____refers to the hardening of the renal arteries.
A)Nephritis
B)Glomerulonephritis
C)Nephrosclerosis
D)Nephrolithiasis
Q3) Renal disease is a lifelong struggle and a challenge. Describe some of the feelings that may complicate management of the condition.
Q4) Name two end products of protein metabolism.
A)urea and uric acid
B)vitamin D and vitamin K
C)lecithin and uremia
D)creatinine and aldosterone
Q5) Polycystic kidney disease is a relatively rare, hereditary disease.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Hepatitis has become a social disease, as all forms are transmitted by blood, blood products, body fluids, or sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is a condition in which a part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
A)Esophagitis
B)Hiatal hernia
C)Dyspepsia
D)Peptic ulcer
Q3) What pathology results in edema and ascites in the late stages of cirrhosis?
Q4) Celiac disease is a disorder characterized by malabsorption of virtually all nutrients and is caused by recurrent diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the incidence of cholecystitis.
Q6) State food sources of fiber, and state the purpose of fiber in the diet.
Q7) What type of diet will Jessie be on?
Q8) How can the nurse determine if Laura is ready to begin to eat food?
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Q1) What is the term for abnormally low amounts of protein in the blood?
A)hypoalbuminemia
B)proteinemia
C)hypoglycemia
D)marasmus
Q2) What is one of the first indicators of cancer?
A) cough
B) weight loss
C) headaches
D) nausea
Q3) Phytochemicals are substances that occur naturally in plant foods and are thought to be anticarcinogenic agents. Give examples and food sources.
Q4) Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Malnourished clients need how much protein per kilogram of bodyweight?
A) 0.8-1.0
B) 1.0-1.2
C) 1.3-2.0
D) 2.0-2.5

21
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Q1) Which microorganism produces toxins?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Shigella
C) Salmonella
D) Escherichia coli
Q2) The toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum can be produced in sealed containers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the generalized term for a substance that causes hypersensitivity?
A)pollen
B)allergen
C)urticaria
D)pathogen
Q4) The primary treatment needed for most foodborne illness is replacing lost fluids and electrolytes to prevent dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the reason for the resistance of pathogens with spores.
Q6) State the goal of the elimination diet and describe the process.
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Q1) Rosa has developed anemia. State causes and dietary recommendations.
Q2) In general, what is the only thing given to most clients during the first 24 hours after major surgery?
A)intravenous solutions
B)high-protein foods
C)high-fat foods
D)vitamin supplements and fluids
Q3) What complication can develop in bedridden clients?
A) peptic ulcer
B) gastric ulcer
C) pressure ulcer
D) stomach ulcer
Q4) Why is it recommended to clients to lose weight prior to surgery?
Q5) If the client begins to choke while being fed, what is the first action to take?
A)help the client sit up straighter
B)offer water to wash down the food
C)go look for help
D)suction the client
Q6) Describe symptoms and pathology of the dumping syndrome.
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