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Course Introduction
This course explores the changing nutritional needs and dietary considerations from preconception through older adulthood. Students will examine the physiological, psychological, and sociocultural factors that influence nutrient requirements and health outcomes at each stage of life, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging. Emphasis is placed on understanding the role of nutrition in growth, development, disease prevention, and health maintenance, as well as strategies for promoting optimal nutrition in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 15th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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20 Chapters
2185 Verified Questions
2185 Flashcards
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Q1) The lowest continuing intake of a nutrient that will maintain a specified criterion of adequacy is called a/an ____________________.
Answer: requirement
Q2) Which of the following terms is defined as the science of how nutrients affect the activities of genes and how genes affect the activities of nutrients?
A) Genetic counseling
B) Nutritional genomics
C) Genetic metabolomics
D) Nutritional genetics
E) Biochemical nutrition
Answer: B
Q3) What is the best source of nutrition information?
A) Reputable news outlets
B) Medical doctor
C) Registered dietitian
D) Health food store manager
E) Internet
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) With food lists,to what group are olives assigned?
A) Fat
B) Meat
C) Carbohydrate
D) Meat substitute
E) Fruit
Answer: A
Q2) On the updated Nutrition Facts panel,the content of which of these vitamins must be provided?
A) Vitamins A and C
B) Vitamin D
C) Thiamin and riboflavin
D) Vitamin B6 and niacin
E) Vitamins E and K
Answer: B
Q3) The kcalories remaining in a person's energy allowance after consuming enough nutrient-dense foods to meet all nutrient needs for a day are called ____________________ kcalories.
Answer: discretionary
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Q1) The hepatic portal vein collects blood from the GI tract and conducts it to the ____.
A) liver
B) heart
C) pancreas
D) hepatic vein
E) spleen
Answer: A
Q2) The acidity of gastric juice registers ________ on the pH scale.
A) above 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
E) below 2
Answer: E
Q3) The washing of the large intestine with a powerful enema machine is known as colonic hydrotherapy or ________.
Answer: colonic irrigation
Q4) ________ are small vessels that connect arteries to veins.
Answer: Capillaries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protein provides about 20 grams of carbohydrate in a ½-cup serving?
A) Nuts
B) Chicken
C) Red meat
D) Legumes
E) Pork
Q2) Which fasting blood glucose level would be in the normal range?
A) 57 mg/dL
B) 77 mg/dL
C) 107 mg/dL
D) 127 mg/dL
E) 170 mg/dL
Q3) Simple carbohydrates composed of monosaccharides,disaccharides,or both are called ________.
Q4) A lack of the enzyme required to digest the disaccharide lactose into its component monosaccharides is called ________.
Q5) The feeling of fullness and satisfaction that occurs after a meal and inhibits eating until the next meal is called ________.
Q6) The decay of teeth is ________.

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Sample Questions
Q1) An ounce of mixed nuts provides about ________ kcalories.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 100
D) 200
E) 300
Q2) Which term describes the spherical complexes of emulsified fats that arise during digestion?
A) Micelles
B) Chylomicrons
C) Lipoproteins
D) Eicosanoids
E) Adiponectin
Q3) Which of these foods has the highest amount of omega-3 fatty acids per 3.5 oz serving?
A) Chilean sea bass
B) Farmed catfish
C) Monkfish
D) Grouper
E) Shrimp
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ provides a standard against which to measure the quality of other proteins.
Q2) Viruses,bacteria,and toxins are examples of ________.
A) antigens
B) antibodies
C) buffers
D) acidosis
E) alkalosis
Q3) What is the average daily protein intake in U.S.?
A) 50 g
B) 65 g
C) 80 g
D) 125 g
E) 175 g
Q4) Which protein,acting as a hormone,regulates blood glucose?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Thyroxine
D) Antidiuretic
E) Insulin

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Q1) How many electrons are released in each turn of the TCA cycle?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
E) 32
Q2) Which of these statements about the electron transport chain is true?
A) It occurs simultaneously with the TCA cycle.
B) It also is known as the Krebs cycle.
C) It captures energy in the ATP bonds.
D) It releases energy into the ATP bonds.
E) It helps make acetyl CoA
Q3) In the Cori cycle,lactate is converted to glucose in the ____.
A) liver
B) muscles
C) bloodstream
D) pancreas
E) gall bladder
Q4) Discuss the consequences of caffeinated alcoholic beverages.
Q5) Describe the Cori cycle in three steps.
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Q1) Satiety determines ________.
A) what kinds of foods are consumed at meals
B) how much food is consumed during a meal
C) how much time passes between meals
D) how long it takes digestion to begin
E) protein versus carbohydrate intake
Q2) An immunological response to cellular injury characterized by an increase in white blood cells is referred to as ________.
Q3) What is thermogenesis?
A) A fat metabolizing enzyme
B) A fat synthesizing hormone
C) The generation of heat
D) The generation of water
E) A release of oxygen, similar to oxygenation
Q4) Which of the following is not a metabolic activity?
A) Inhaling and exhaling air
B) Making new red blood cells via bone marrow
C) Chewing food
D) Filtering wastes through the kidneys
E) The heart beating 100,000 times each day
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Q1) Ghrelin is secreted by cells in the ________.
A) pancreas
B) stomach
C) liver
D) hypothalamus
E) hippocampus
Q2) Of the following,which is the best advice for lowering energy intake for weight loss?
A) Drink 8 ounces of water after each meal
B) Select fewer energy-dense foods
C) Restrict fiber intake as a means to reduce excess water retention
D) Consume a small high-fat snack before each meal to reduce appetite
E) Consume an alcoholic beverage with lunch and dinner
Q3) Which of the following reflects a SMART goal?
A) I want to live to see my grandchildren grow up.
B) I want to be at my healthiest weight by my next doctor's appointment.
C) I will eat only healthy foods.
D) I will eat a healthy breakfast and run three miles every day.
E) I will start running 2 miles every morning and then run a marathon next month.
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Q1) Which of the following is symptom of scurvy?
A) Purplish tongue
B) Poor wound healing
C) Edema
D) Hair loss
E) Oily skin
Q2) Discuss the groups of people most at risk for vitamin B12 deficiency and why they are at risk.
Q3) The bioavailability of vitamins in food ____.
A) depends on many factors, such as how the food was prepared
B) is easy to determine
C) refers to a vitamin's molecular structure
D) refers to the number of neutrons in the cells of vitamins
E) is the ratio of vitamin intake to calorie intake
Q4) Riboflavin is similar to thiamin in that _____.
A) both are found in abundant amounts in pork.
B) both serve as coenzymes in energy metabolism.
C) both are easily destroyed by heat.
D) both are easily destroyed by ultraviolet light.
E) though rare, both can be toxic when consumed in high amounts.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about vitamin A's role in the body is FALSE?
A) Only one-thousandth of the body's vitamin A is in the retina.
B) Vitamin A and beta-carotene protect the skin from sun damage.
C) Vitamin A maintains healthy cells in the mucous membranes.
D) Vitamin A supports normal fetal development during pregnancy.
E) Lycopene serves as a vitamin A precursor and acts as an antioxidant.
Q2) Retinol-binding protein picks up vitamin A from the ________ and carries it to the blood.
A) intestines
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) pancreas
E) gallbladder
Q3) What is the RDA of vitamin E for adults?
A) 5 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 15 mg
D) 30 mg
E) 60 mg
Q4) The bacteria-produced form of vitamin K,also called K2 is
13
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Q1) Which of the following is not regulated by the FDA as water?
A) Soft water
B) Public water
C) Natural water
D) Distilled water
E) Carbonated water
Q2) About how many people never walk or live independently again after sustaining an osteoporosis-related hip fracture?
A) 2%
B) 6%
C) 20%
D) 33%
E) 50%
Q3) Compounds that keep a solution's pH constant when acids or bases are added are called ________.
Q4) What accounts for the liberal sodium intake in the U.S.diet? List five ways an individual can reduce the sodium in his diet.
Q5) The highest attainable bone density for an individual,developed during the first three decades of life is termed ________.
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Q1) Discuss the pros and cons of iron supplementation for people who are iron deficient.What are some recommendations on how to get the most from them?
Q2) How is iron used in the bone marrow?
A) It is converted to myoglobin and sent to the muscle for storage.
B) It is used to produce transferrin.
C) It is used to make hemoglobin.
D) It is used to convert hemoglobin to myoglobin.
E) It becomes a cofactor and used during energy metabolism.
Q3) The iodization of salt _____.
A) began in the United States in the 1880s
B) has helped eradicate most cases of cretinism in the United States
C) is mandatory in the United States
D) is available to only about 10 percent of households in developing countries
E) has no benefit except for children
Q4) Explain heme and nonheme iron,and discuss the factors that influence their absorption in the body.
Q5) What are the concerns about lead? What effect does it have on the body,specifically nutrition status.
Q6) Describe zinc's role in the body? What are significant sources of zinc?
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Q1) Explain what it means to be physically fit,and then list the components that it includes.
Q2) What type of diet does research suggest can provide endurance athletes with ability to go longer without fatigue?
A) Mixed diet
B) Low carbohydrate diet
C) No-carbohydrate diet
D) Low-fat diet
E) High-carbohydrate diet
Q3) Consuming a sports beverage to obtain carbohydrates is recommended _______.
A) during all vigorous-training activities
B) during exhausting endurance activities lasting more than 1 hour
C) only during competition
D) once activities continue past 40 minutes
E) just before an athlete "hits the wall"
Q4) A substance or treatment that purportedly improves athletic performance above and beyond what is possible through training is called a(n)________.
Q5) What affects the amount of glycogen that the muscles can store?
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic associated with adolescent pregnancy?
A) Labor is typically shorter due to the baby being smaller.
B) Maternal death is highest for those younger than age 20.
C) Socioeconomic status has little effect on pregnancy health and complications.
D) Young mothers are less likely to smoke.
E) They are more likely to deliver a baby that weighs 5 ½ pounds or less.
Q2) What is the recommendation regarding alcohol intake during pregnancy?
A) They should drink absolutely no alcohol.
B) They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only.
C) They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day.
D) They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the last trimester.
E) Organic beer and wine is acceptable.
Q3) Explain why normal development is so crucial during critical periods,and give an example of what can happen if normal development does not occur.
Q4) _________ are strong desires to avoid particular foods and are thought to be due to hormonal changes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "failure to thrive" sometimes is used to describe infants and children with
A) carbohydrate deficiency
B) carbohydrate toxicity
C) protein deficiency
D) protein toxicity
E) vitamin D deficiency
Q2) A life-threatening,whole-body allergic reaction to an offending substance is called
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes the link between lead exposure and nutrition?
A) Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach.
B) Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty.
C) Federal regulations have successfully prevented widespread lead toxicity.
D) The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet.
E) Lead exposure is extremely rare in the United States.
Q4) The iron-deficiency anemia that develops when an excessive milk intake displaces iron-rich foods from the diet is called ________.
Q5) The period from the beginning of puberty until maturity is called ________.
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Q1) Longevity is defined as ________.
A) long duration of life
B) a person's age in years from date of birth
C) maximum number of years of life attainable by a species
D) average number of years lived by people in a given society
E) a person's perceived mental well-being
Q2) The brain degeneration of an overweight 60-year-old person is comparable to that of a ________-year-old adult.
A) 62
B) 65
C) 67
D) 70
E) 72
Q3) What is the average life expectancy in the United States today?
A) 79 years
B) 81 years
C) 86 years
D) 89 years
E) 93 years
Q4) What are five strategies for growing old healthfully?
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Q1) What is a characteristic of an atherogenic diet?
A) Low saturated fat
B) High trans fat
C) Plant based
D) Moderate calcium
E) High fiber
Q2) With which of these factors is high blood triglycerides known to be associated?
A) High alcohol intake
B) Smoking
C) Type 2 diabetes
D) Underweight
E) Postmenopausal estrogen therapy
Q3) The A1C is a test to measure _____.
A) fasting plasma glucose
B) non-fasting blood glucose
C) percentage of hemoglobin with glucose attached
D) cumulative values for hemoglobin, hematocrit, and blood glucose
E) the amount of glucose in the urine
Q4) What is carbohydrate counting?
Q5) How does hypertension develop? How does obesity aggravate it?
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Q1) To prevent foodborne illnesses,all foods should be served at a minimum of ________ °F.
A) 140
B) 152
C) 165
D) 180
E) 212
Q2) People who travel to other countries have a ________ chance of contracting travelers' diarrhea.
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 75%
Q3) What percentage of all the earth's water is potable?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
E) 20
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Q1) Olivia works two part-time jobs to support her three children.Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and provide healthy food and medical necessities for herself and the children.On the day before payday,when the food is running low,Olivia sometimes eats a small evening meal to leave more food for her children.Olivia is experiencing which of the following?
A) High Food security
B) Marginal food security
C) Low food security
D) Very low food security
E) Food poverty
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes aquaculture?
A) Farmed fish need not be fed to sustain the practice.
B) It provides about 50 percent of the world's fish for consumption.
C) It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters.
D) Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable.
E) As a practice, it little energy.
Q3) A form of food recovery that involves collecting prepared foods from commercial kitchens is termed ________.
Q4) How does eating a plant-based diet lower one's ecological footprint?
Q5) Discuss three causes of worldwide food shortages,which could lead to famine.
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