Nutrition Across the Lifespan
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Nutrition Across the Lifespan explores the unique nutritional needs and challenges individuals face at each stage of life, from preconception and pregnancy through infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and into older age. The course examines the physiological changes, dietary requirements, and health concerns characteristic of each developmental period, providing students with an understanding of how nutrition influences growth, development, and disease prevention. Emphasis is placed on the role of cultural, environmental, and socioeconomic factors in shaping eating habits and nutritional status across generations.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Essentials of Nutrition and Diet Therapy 11th Edition by Eleanor Schlenker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A food choice equivalent to one serving from the Grains group of MyPlate is:
A) one slice of bread.
B) 2 cups of rice.
C) 3 cups of spaghetti.
D) 4 oz of ready-to-eat cereal.
Answer: A
Q2) Macronutrients include:
A) minerals.
B) proteins.
C) vitamins.
D) enzymes.
Answer: B
Q3) MyPlate food guidance is based on:
A) percentage of kcalories from each macronutrient.
B) Exchange Lists for Meal Planning.
C) appropriate amounts of food from each food group.
D) amounts of macronutrients and micronutrients.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Types of muscular movement that occur in the intestine are:
A) longitudinal and circular.
B) expulsion and traction.
C) tonus and clonus.
D) intermittent and continuous.
Answer: A
Q2) Synthesis of protein is governed by:
A) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the cell nucleus.
B) daily variations in protein intake.
C) blood glucose levels.
D) metabolism in the liver.
Answer: A
Q3) The hormone that acts to lower blood sugar levels is:
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) epinephrine.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whole-wheat bread, popcorn, baked beans, bananas, and pears are good sources of:
A) cellulose.
B) gums.
C) collagen.
D) psyllium.
Answer: A
Q2) An example of a food that contains functional fiber is:
A) applesauce.
B) oat bran muffin.
C) jam made with pectin.
D) carrot and raisin salad.
Answer: C
Q3) Good food sources of fiber include:
A) whole grains.
B) meats.
C) canned fruits.
D) tomato juice.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a sandwich high in saturated fatty acids is:
A) tuna salad.
B) grilled cheese.
C) turkey and sprouts.
D) peanut butter and jelly.
Q2) The digestive enzyme lecithinase acts in the small intestine to digest:
A) cholesterol.
B) lipids.
C) fatty acids.
D) lecithin.
Q3) A saturated fat that contains no cholesterol is:
A) butter.
B) coconut oil.
C) eggs.
D) fish.
Q4) Liquid oils can be changed to a solid fat by a process called: A) emulsification.
B) hydrogenation.
C) homogenization.
D) oxidation.
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Chapter 5: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a complete protein is:
A) milk.
B) soy.
C) sesame seeds.
D) sweet potato.
Q2) Protein catabolism is increased in health problems such as:
A) severe burns.
B) severe obesity.
C) hypothyroidism.
D) food allergies.
Q3) A plasma protein that helps maintain fluid balance is:
A) albumin.
B) fibrinogen.
C) hemoglobin.
D) collagen.
Q4) The number of different amino acids that make up human proteins is:
A) 9.
B) 13.
C) 15.
D) 20.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newborn babies treated with phototherapy for elevated bilirubin levels may develop a deficiency of:
A) riboflavin.
B) niacin.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin A.
Q2) The adult form of rickets is called:
A) osteoporosis.
B) osteopenia.
C) osteomalacia.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q3) A characteristic that is unique to vitamin B is that it requires:
A) lipids for absorption.
B) the mineral magnesium for full activity.
C) intrinsic factor for absorption.
D) an acidic intestinal environment for synthesis.
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Chapter 7: Minerals and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person experiences impairment of taste, the condition is known as:
A) hypogeusia.
B) hyposomia.
C) hypostasis.
D) hypothermia.
Q2) The hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium is called:
A) vitamin D.
B) thyroxine.
C) adrenaline.
D) aldosterone.
Q3) Factors that favor absorption of iron include:
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin C.
C) zinc.
D) intestinal flora.
Q4) A health problem that can lead to hypokalemia is:
A) dependence on vitamin supplements.
B) dependence on caffeinated beverages.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) diabetic acidosis.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important factor in determining whether a person is fat or lean is the person's:
A) weight.
B) body mass index.
C) body composition.
D) gender.
Q2) Someone may be considered overweight but not overfat if he or she has a high level of:
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B) muscle tissue.
C) adipose tissue.
D) dietary control.
Q3) Metabolically active tissues in the body include the heart, brain, and:
A) skin.
B) esophagus.
C) spleen.
D) kidney.
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Chapter 9: Food Selection and Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health claims on food labels:
A) must be approved by the FDA.
B) must be approved by the USDA.
C) do not require approval.
D) can only be used for fortified foods.
Q2) The term organic means the food ingredients were grown:
A) without the use of pesticides and herbicides.
B) using natural fertilizers.
C) in a hydroponic environment.
D) without the use of fertilizers.
Q3) The abbreviation GRAS stands for:
A) generally recognized additive substances.
B) greatly reduced additive substances.
C) generally restricted additive substances.
D) generally recognized as safe.
Q4) Factors contributing to changing food patterns of Americans include:
A) shorter work hours creating more time for food preparation.
B) a greater desire for consumer participation in food preparation.
C) more people eating a cooked breakfast most mornings.
D) greater concern about the origin of food ingredients.
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Chapter 10: Community Nutrition: Promoting Healthy Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factor that is likely to contribute most to improving a client's motivation to learn is:
A) previous experiences with the content.
B) perceived usefulness of the information.
C) amount of formal education.
D) length of the clinic visit.
Q2) The eligibility requirement that must be met to participate in a congregate meals program or a home-delivered meals program is:
A) living alone.
B) 60 years of age or older.
C) diagnosed health problem or disability.
D) income below the federal poverty level.
Q3) Older adults may have limited access to reasonably priced food because they:
A) refuse to shop in modern supermarkets.
B) may not be able to drive to a larger grocery store.
C) have limited time for food shopping.
D) tend to prefer more expensive foods.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure responsible for providing fetal nourishment is called the:
A) endometrium.
B) placenta.
C) intestines.
D) amniotic fluid.
Q2) Nutritional treatment of pregnancy-induced hypertension should focus on:
A) sodium restriction.
B) fluid restriction.
C) optimal nutrition.
D) increased calories.
Q3) A factor that contributes to development of constipation during pregnancy is:
A) increased fluid intake.
B) tension and anxiety.
C) placental hormones and uterine enlargement.
D) eating more high-fiber foods.
Q4) Ankle edema during pregnancy is:
A) a normal occurrence in most women.
B) a sign of a serious complication in most women.
C) the result of drinking too much fluid.
D) most likely to occur during the first trimester.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition for Normal Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms such as anorexia, slow growth, cracking skin, and enlargement of the spleen and liver are associated with toxicity of vitamin:
A) A.
B) C.
C) D.
D) E.
Q2) The first milk secreted by a new mother is called:
A) chyme.
B) chyle.
C) colostrum.
D) prolactin.
Q3) The nutrient that provides building material for tissue growth is:
A) carbohydrates.
B) protein.
C) fats.
D) vitamins.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition for Adults: Early, Middle, and Later
Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent research data indicate that older adults may enjoy maximum life expectancy if they are:
A) greatly underweight.
B) somewhat underweight.
C) slightly overweight.
D) greatly overweight.
Q2) Health messages that encourage reducing fat intake and portion sizes and selecting low-calorie snacks may be inappropriate for:
A) young adults.
B) middle adults.
C) older adults.
D) all adults.
Q3) A major reason that dehydration can develop rapidly in older adults is because:
A) they tend to consume more sodium.
B) their thirst mechanism diminishes.
C) their ability to regulate water balance diminishes.
D) they lose more water through perspiration.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that refers to maximum oxygen uptake or aerobic capacity is:
A) hitting the wall.
B) VO2 max.
C) muscle fatigue.
D) CO2 max.
Q2) The ion that enters myofibrils and stimulates actin and myosin to shorten the cell (contract) is:
A) iron.
B) calcium.
C) sodium.
D) potassium.
Q3) Foods and drugs used to enhance athletic performance are known as:
A) aerobic aids.
B) ergogenic aids.
C) megadose supplements.
D) stimulants.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Complexity of Obesity: Beyond Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factor during fetal development that is associated with overweight during young adulthood is maternal:
A) alcohol intake.
B) caffeine intake.
C) smoking.
D) fever.
Q2) One factor that enhances the release of peptides that produce hunger is:
A) caffeine intake.
B) ambient temperature.
C) blood cholesterol level.
D) sleep deprivation.
Q3) To promote weight loss, diet plans should be:
A) less than 1200 kcal/day.
B) individualized for each client.
C) low in fat.
D) low in high-fructose corn syrup.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition Assessment and Nutrition Therapy in Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a client weighs 135 lb (61 kg) and is 5 ft 6 in (1.67 m) tall, the body mass index (BMI) would be about:
A) 17.
B) 20.
C) 22.
D) 36.
Q2) If a client weighed 150 lb 6 months ago and now weighs 130 lb, the weight loss should be interpreted as:
A) normal.
B) marginal.
C) healthy.
D) severe.
Q3) Normal serum albumin level is:
A) 2.0 to 3.5 mg/dL.
B) 2.5 to 4.0 mg/dL.
C) 3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL.
D) 3.5 to 5.0 mg/dL.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Metabolic Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the first 24 to 48 hours after the burn injury, patients with second- or third-degree burns that cover 15% to 20% or more of their total body surface usually require:
A) enteral nutrition.
B) total parenteral nutrition.
C) small frequent meals.
D) IV fluid and electrolytes.
Q2) Preoperative or postoperative blood losses may result in a deficiency of: A) calcium.
B) vitamin C.
C) iron.
D) zinc.
Q3) Gastric bypass is recommended only for patients who need to lose more than:
A) 20 lb.
B) 50 lb.
C) 100 lb.
D) 150 lb.
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Chapter 18: Drug-Nutrient Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of coordinating food service, pharmacy, and clinical nutrition in hospital settings is to:
A) ensure that patients are not prescribed unnecessary drugs.
B) minimize adverse drug-nutrient interactions.
C) prevent malpractice lawsuits due to food and medication errors.
D) treat patients with diet rather than drugs whenever possible.
Q2) An example of a cruciferous vegetable is:
A) broccoli.
B) carrots.
C) peas.
D) lettuce.
Q3) Use of oral hypoglycemic agents in combination with alcohol may cause:
A) loss of potassium.
B) chronic blood loss.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nutrition Support: Enteral and Parenteral
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a client requires parenteral nutrition for the next 4 months, the route of choice for feeding will probably be via a:
A) nasogastric tube.
B) central vein.
C) nasoenteric tube.
D) peripheral vein.
Q2) Osmotic pressure (osmolality) of an enteral nutrition formula is determined by the:
A) amount of fat in the solution.
B) size of particles in the solution.
C) viscosity of the solution.
D) number of particles in the solution.
Q3) A problem associated with use of blenderized formulas is:
A) lack of flavor.
B) lack of viscosity.
C) bacterial contamination.
D) nutrient density.
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Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition support for the client who has cirrhosis includes a:
A) low-sodium, high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
B) soft-texture, low-energy, high-fluid diet.
C) high-protein, high-carbohydrate, high-fat diet.
D) low-sodium, soft-texture, high-energy diet.
Q2) When mouth tissues become inflamed, initial nutritional recommendations include:
A) citrus juices high in vitamin C.
B) high-protein, high-kilocalorie liquids.
C) low-sodium, low-sugar foods.
D) hot soups and beverages.
Q3) A good meal for someone with xerostomia would be:
A) stew, mashed potatoes, and pudding.
B) sandwich, pretzels, and an apple.
C) tacos and cookies.
D) baked chicken, broccoli, and rice.
Q4) Nonsurgical treatment for gallstones may include:
A) antibiotic therapy.
B) a low-cholesterol diet.
C) chemical dissolution of gallstones.
D) drugs to relax the bile duct.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several types of blood lipoproteins are synthesized in the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) pancreas.
D) adrenal glands.
Q2) The layer of the artery in which atherosclerotic plaque forms is the:
A) media.
B) intima.
C) adventitia.
D) ectoderm.
Q3) The amount of fluid recommended for clients with pneumonia (who do not need fluid restrictions) is:
A) 1.5 to 2.0 L/day.
B) 2.0 to 2.5 L/day.
C) 2.5 to 3.0 L/day.
D) 3.0 to 3.5 L/day.
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Chapter 22: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 2 diabetes in children and adolescents is related to:
A) frequency of snacking.
B) consumption of fast food.
C) overweight and obesity.
D) stress and depression.
Q2) One of the most common tools used for meal planning for clients with type 1 diabetes, based on the primary nutrient affecting postprandial blood glucose levels and insulin requirements, is:
A) carbohydrate counting.
B) the standard American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet.
C) personalization and individualization.
D) the Food Guide Pyramid.
Q3) The pancreatic sensors of blood glucose levels are located in the:
A) alpha cells.
B) beta cells.
C) delta cells.
D) juncture points of the alpha, beta, and delta cells.
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Chapter 23: Renal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone disease osteodystrophy often occurs in patients with:
A) kidney stones.
B) acute renal failure.
C) chronic renal failure.
D) recurrent urinary tract infections.
Q2) A client with GFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m² has:
A) stage 2 CKD.
B) stage 3 CKD.
C) stage 4 CKD.
D) stage 5 CKD.
Q3) The laboratory test result that is generally used to predict glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in clinical practice is:
A) serum creatinine level.
B) blood urea level.
C) serum albumin level.
D) C-reactive protein level.
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Chapter 24: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV is a:
A) retrovirus.
B) drug-resistant virus.
C) waterborne virus.
D) cellular virus.
Q2) Antiretroviral drugs currently being used to treat HIV infection include reverse transcriptase inhibitors and:
A) lipase inhibitors.
B) protease inhibitors.
C) antiviral inhibitors.
D) lipodystrophy inhibitors.
Q3) If taken correctly, the effect of ART is to:
A) reduce malnutrition and opportunistic infections.
B) effectively cure HIV/AIDS.
C) prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS to uninfected sexual partners.
D) improve the patient's sense of well-being.
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26
Chapter 25: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The population that has the highest overall rate of cancer-related deaths is:
A) Caucasians.
B) African Americans.
C) Hispanics and Latinos.
D) Asians.
Q2) The type of cancer therapy that can involve the use of radioactive isotopes is:
A) surgery.
B) radiation.
C) endoscopy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q3) Biologic therapies for cancer treatment include:
A) vaccines.
B) megadose supplements.
C) antibiotics.
D) macrobiotic diets.
Q4) The surgical approach to treatment of cancer is used primarily to: A) alleviate symptoms.
B) remove operable tumors.
C) retard rapid tumor growth.
D) remove multiple tumors only.
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