Nursing Concepts Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles that underpin the nursing profession. The course covers core topics such as the nursing process, ethical and legal issues in healthcare, patient-centered care, cultural competence, communication skills, and health promotion. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and professional behaviors necessary for safe and effective patient care. Learners explore the roles and responsibilities of nurses within interdisciplinary teams and examine current trends and challenges within the healthcare system. This course lays the foundation for further study and practical application in various nursing specialties.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing Active Learning for Collaborative Practice 1st Edition by Yoost
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42 Chapters
1050 Verified Questions
1050 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing student is writing a paper about the direct patient care role of advanced practice nurses. Which of the following advanced practice roles would the student include in the report?
A) Nurse Administrator
B) Clinical Nurse Leader
C) Clinical Nurse Specialist
D) Nurse Educator
Answer: C
Q2) During a staff meeting, the nurse manager announces that the hospital will be seeking Magnet status. In order to explain the requirements for this award, the nurse manager will contact the:
A) American Nurses Association (ANA).
B) American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC).
C) National League for Nursing (NLN).
D) Joint Commission.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Values, Beliefs, and Caring
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of students are discussing the history of nursing. A student states, "Yea, nurses used to be called the doctor's handmaiden." This type of comment is known as a:
A) prejudice.
B) generalization.
C) stereotype.
D) belief.
Answer: C
Q2) Which nursing theorist describes the nurse-patient relationship as interpersonal with a focus on compassion and empathy?
A) Kristen Swanson
B) Jean Watson
C) Madeleine Leininger
D) Joyce Travelbee
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several nurses on a medical-surgical unit have been asked by the nurse manager to form a group and gather data regarding patient complaints of late meals. The nurses meet and establish ground rules. This phase of group development is called:
A) forming.
B) storming.
C) norming.
D) performing.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is administering a bath to a hearing-impaired patient. The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A) speak very loudly into the patient's right ear.
B) control background noise as much as possible.
C) turn away when responding to a question.
D) adjust the lighting in the room.
E) be wary of consistent affirmative answers.
Answer: B, D, E
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Chapter 4: Critical Thinking in Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has finished her shift and is on her way home. During the shift, one of the patients attempted to climb out of bed and fell. On her way home the nurse is thinking about what she could have done differently to prevent the fall. This is an example of using:
A) evidence
B) standards
C) attributes or traits.
D) reflection
Q2) The nurse is taking an advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) recertification class. As part of that class, the nurse, and other nurses in the group, rotates responsibilities during multiple mock code exercises simulating cardiac arrest scenarios. The process of assigning nurses to different responsibilities is known as:
A) concept mapping.
B) simulation.
C) role playing.
D) literature review.
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to the Nursing Process
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Q1) The nursing process is the foundation of professional nursing practice. As such, the nursing process can be defined as:
A) The framework that nurses used to provide care.
B) A complex process during which nurses think about their thinking.
C) The process that allows nurses to collect essential data.
D) Thinking like a nurse in developing plans of care.
Q2) The nurse is admitting a patient experiencing chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The patient also has a history of stroke. The nurse documents the nursing diagnosis "Risk for stroke related to history of stroke." The risk factor for this patient is:
A) stroke.
B) history of stroke.
C) chest discomfort.
D) shortness of breath.
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Chapter 6: Assessment
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Q1) The nurse is performing a physical exam on a patient diagnosed with liver failure resulting from chronic alcoholism. The nurse notes that the abdomen is swollen and decides to assess for abdominal skin tenderness and temperature. Which of the following techniques would the nurse use to collect this data?
A) Inspection
B) Percussion
C) Palpation
D) Auscultation
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. The patient is a retired soldier who served in World War II. In light of this, the nurse should:
A) shake the patient's hand and allow the patient time to "warm up."
B) expect the patient to be optimistic and question everything.
C) allow the patient to multitask and talk in short "sound bites."
D) understand that the patient is probably technologically literate.
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Chapter 7: Nursing Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When creating a nursing diagnosis, the related factor:
A) should be based on the medical diagnosis.
B) in unrelated to the pathophysiology with which the patient is dealing.
C) is the underlying etiology of the patient's situation.
D) does not reflect the nurse's understanding of pathophysiology.
Q2) The nurse in an outpatient clinic obtains a blood pressure of 190/88 mm Hg on a patient diagnosed with high blood pressure. The patient tells the nurse, "My blood pressure medicine is really expensive. Do you think I really need it?" The nurse assumes the patient is not taking the medication based on the blood pressure result and the patient's statement and chooses noncompliance as a diagnostic label. The action by the nurse is an example of:
A) clustering unrelated data in the diagnostic statement.
B) selecting erroneous data for use in the diagnostic statement.
C) using medical diagnoses in the diagnostic statement.
D) identifying multiple problems within one diagnostic statement.
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Chapter 8: Planning
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Q1) Medication administration is what type of nursing intervention?
A) Independent
B) Dependent
C) Collaborative
D) Interdisciplinary
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery. The patient stated prior to surgery that "I don't think I'll be able to handle this if I get a colostomy. I wouldn't know how to manage it." There is no "next of kin" listed in the patient's record. The patient is complaining of severe surgical pain. The nurse is correct when addressing which nursing diagnosis first?
A) Pain
B) Alteration in body image
C) Knowledge deficit
D) Risk for falls
Q3) Which should the nurse address first?
A) Pain
B) Hunger
C) Decreased self-esteem
D) Absence of pulse
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Implementation and Evaluation
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Q1) Of the following skills, which is considered an invasive procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administering oral medications
B) Starting an intravenous (IV) line
C) Repositioning the patient.
D) Inserting a urinary catheter.
Q2) The nurse is learning to identify readiness to learn in patients. Which one of the following patients would the nurse identify correctly as ready to learn?
A) The patient requesting pain medication for treatment of severe discomfort
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient who learned 30 minutes ago that she has cancer of the pancreas
D) The patient who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and is scheduled to be discharged in 2 days
Q3) The nurse correctly identifies which one of the following referrals as an inappropriate nursing referral?
A) Music therapist
B) Community agencies
C) Adaptive care services
D) Dermatologist
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Documentation, Electronic Health Records, and Reporting
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Q1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) mandates that health information can be shared: (Select all that apply.)
A) In order to provide treatment for the patient.
B) To determine billing and payment issues.
C) To enhance health care operations related to the patient.
D) In public areas such as the cafeteria or elevator.
E) Over the telephone with any family member
Q2) Accurate documentation by the nurse is necessary since proper documentation:
A) is needed for proper reimbursement.
B) must be electronically generated.
C) does not involve e-mails or faxes.
D) is only legal if written by hand.
Q3) PIE, APIE, SOAP, and SOAPIE are:
A) chronologic.
B) examples of problem-oriented charting.
C) narrative charting.
D) forms of "charting by exception."
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ethical and Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Code of Ethics for Nurses is:
A) like the Constitution and not revisable.
B) a succinct statement of ethical obligations.
C) required by entry level nurses only.
D) a negotiable document dependent on individual conscience.
Q2) Practicing nursing without a license is a:
A) misdemeanor.
B) statute.
C) felony.
D) tort.
Q3) The nurse realizes that a medication error has been made. The nurse then reports the error and takes responsibility to ensure patient safety despite personal consequences. This nurse has exhibited:
A) autonomy.
B) accountability.
C) justice.
D) advocacy.
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Chapter 12: Leadership and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is acting as a leader in the role of charge nurse and notes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on the floor are stressed related to their increased workload. The nurse changes the original planned approach based on the presenting situation. What theory of leadership is being implemented?
A) Situational
B) Transactional
C) Transformational
D) Autocratic
Q2) Upon entering a patient's room, the nurse notes that the patient is unresponsive. The nurse takes control and begins to direct other members of the health care team during this crisis. This style of leadership is:
A) autocratic.
B) democratic.
C) laissez-faire.
D) bureaucratic.
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Chapter 13: Evidence-Based Practice and Nursing Research
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Q1) Testing the application of theories in different situations with different populations is considered to be:
A) applied research.
B) clinical research.
C) basic research.
D) quantitative research.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to conduct a study involving the "post-prandial" blood sugars in patients who have received intensive diabetic rehabilitation versus diabetics undergoing "usual care." In order for the consent to be valid, the nurse would have to:
A) change the language of the consent.
B) keep explanations to a minimum to reduce stress.
C) keep potential risks undisclosed.
D) insist that the participant sign the consent right away.
Q3) The nurse correctly devises a dissemination plan at what point during the research process?
A) Conclusion of the study
B) After the literature review
C) The beginning of the research process
D) While conducting research
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Health Literacy and Patient Education
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Q1) When teaching children, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A) exclude the children from teaching.
B) encourage parents or caregivers to be present.
C) use age-specific strategies.
D) consider the stages of development.
E) remember that parents are not the targets of the teaching.
Q2) On completion of assessment, a nursing diagnosis relevant to the educational needs of the patient or caregiver can be determined. Diagnoses specifically related to patient education include: (Select all that apply.)
A) deficient knowledge.
B) readiness for enhanced knowledge.
C) noncompliance.
D) pain.
E) alteration in elimination.
Q3) The unique ability of the patient to understand and integrate health-related knowledge is known as:
A) health literacy.
B) formal patient education.
C) informal patient education.
D) primary education.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Informatics
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computerized provider order entry (CPOE):
A) allows orders to be communicated to the appropriate department.
B) creates an intermediary for order transcription.
C) slows documentation and provider communication.
D) may lead to increased ordering and transcription errors.
Q2) One classification system for nursing informatics competencies uses technical, utility, and leadership categories. Leadership competencies involve:
A) maintaining privacy and confidentiality.
B) using computers and other technological equipment.
C) using a variety of software programs.
D) addressing critical thinking applications.
Q3) The director of nursing on a medical-surgical floor has met education and experience requirements in nursing informatics. The nurse might expect administration to request that he/she pursue:
A) technical competencies.
B) utility competencies.
C) certification from ANCC.
D) leadership competencies.
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Chapter 16: Health and Wellness
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Q1) The patient is asking about using the Internet for resources regarding lifestyle behaviors and benefits of modification. The nurse's should tell the patient that:
A) information on lifestyle behaviors is not available on the Internet.
B) the patient should use websites that are easy to understand.
C) ,most websites are designed for health care providers only.
D) only negative outcomes are evaluated on the Internet.
Q2) Several models exist that describe the relationship between health and wellness. The model used to understand the interrelationship between elements of basic requirements for survival and the desires that drive personal growth and development and is represented as a pyramid is:
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
B) Health Belief Model.
C) Health Promotion Model.
D) Holistic Health Model.
Q3) The World Health Organization defines health as
A) the absence of disease.
B) the lack of infirmity.
C) complete well-being.
D) being independent of fiscal responsibility.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Human Development: Conception through Adolescence
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Q1) A pregnant woman in her second trimester is scheduled for quad testing. What conditions does the nurse explain are screened for in this assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood clotting abnormalities
B) Neural tube defects
C) Heart abnormalities
D) Trisomy 18
E) Trisomy 21
Q2) The pediatric nurse is treating a patient who has questions about safer sexual practices. The patient states, "I think I should wait until marriage to be sexually active because I'm not sure sex is OK outside of marriage." The nurse understands the student is acting with which component of Freud's theory?
A) Id
B) Ego
C) Superego
D) Anal
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Chapter 18: Human Development Young Adult to Older Adult
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Q1) A young adult tells the nurse he has quit smoking cigarettes and now "vapes" (uses electronic cigarettes [e-cigarettes]). What response by the nurse is best?
A) "Excellent! That is so much better for you than tobacco."
B) "The health consequences of e-cigarettes are not known."
C) "Using e-cigarettes actually is much worse for your health."
D) "Tobacco or e-cigarettes doesn't matter. You need to quit."
Q2) The nurse tells the student that which disorders are related to the presence of free radicals? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cancer
B) Cataracts
C) Glaucoma
D) Arthritis
E) Liver disease
Q3) A nurse reads on a patient's chart that she has sarcopenia. What assessment does the nurse perform to confirm this?
A) Mini-mental state exam
B) Tests of muscle strength
C) Gait and balance
D) Vision and hearing
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Q1) The nurse assessing respirations understands that problems in what organs can directly affect the process of respiration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Heart
D) Liver
E) Skeletal muscle
Q2) The nurse understands that which factors can increase blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Head injury
B) Decreased fluid volume
C) Increasing age
D) Recent food intake
E) Pain
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21
Chapter 20: Health History and Physical Assessment
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Q1) A new nurse is conducting a patient interview. What behaviors observed by the experienced nurse require education on this process? (Select all that apply.)
A) Typing intently on a keyboard when asking questions.
B) Allowing family to accompany the patient as requested.
C) Using gestures and eye contact to demonstrate interest.
D) Closing the door to the room to ensure privacy.
E) Providing non-verbal cues to negative thoughts.
Q2) A clinic nurse is examining an older, confused patient on an examination table and realizes a piece of needed equipment was left outside in the hall. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Tell the patient to lie still and go get the equipment.
B) Call for another staff member to bring the equipment.
C) Have the patient get into a chair and get the equipment.
D) Finish the rest of the exam, get the equipment, and use it.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerve III. What technique is best?
A) Have patient identify a common scent with closed eyes.
B) Shine a light into the patient's eyes to assess pupil response.
C) Have the patient read a newspaper or use the Snellen chart.
D) Assess if patient can hear both spoken and whispered words.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Ethnicity and Cultural Assessment
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Q1) The student learns that which item is the most important symbolic aspect of culture?
A) Flags
B) Language
C) Art
D) Music
Q2) A nurse has been told he has many obvious stereotypes about a specific cultural group. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask to not care for members of this cultural group.
B) Ask to take care of as many members of this group as possible.
C) Begin to educate himself on aspects of this cultural group.
D) Vow to not allow his stereotypes to show when providing care.
Q3) A patient in the emergency department needs an emergency operation. The patient refuses to consent and wants the nurse to call a respected elder in the community for consent. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Explain that this violates privacy laws.
B) Call the elder to get consent for the operation.
C) Tell the woman she has the right to consent.
D) Arrange for admission without the operation.
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Chapter 22: Spiritual Health
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Q1) When does the nurse assess patients' spirituality? (Select all that apply.)
A) Upon admission
B) New diagnosis
C) Life-changing diagnosis
D) When the chaplain makes rounds
E) When facing treatment decisions
Q2) A patient is considering a life-saving procedure that is not accepted by his faith community. What nursing diagnosis is a priority as the nurse plans care?
A) Spiritual distress
B) Impaired religiosity
C) Moral distress
D) Decisional conflict
Q3) The nurse who incorporates the HOPE framework assesses a Native-American patient for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Desire for shaman to be present
B) Personal use of herbs and prayers
C) Desire to create a living will
D) Power of storytelling for healing
E) Involvement in church activities
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Public Health, Community Base, and Home
Health Care
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Q1) When planning interventions for a community, what action by the nurse is best?
A) Involve community leaders in planning.
B) Create a plan of action addressing priorities.
C) Determine what resources are available.
D) Attempt to find funding for the plan.
Q2) The public health nurse volunteers for a missionary group caring for Ebola patients in Africa. The nurse is reviewing the data using analytic epidemiology methods. What information does the nurse collect as the priority?
A) Cultural norms in burial practices
B) Genetic variables in disease acquisition
C) Statistics related to incidence and prevalence
D) Autopsy data on direct cause of death
Q3) A nurse is studying intrinsic factors that influence the development of asthma in a community. What factors does the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Socioeconomic status
B) Genetics
C) Pollution in the area
D) Water cleanliness
E) Immunization status
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Chapter 24: Human Sexuality
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Q1) The nursing student learns that the function of the hypothalamus is to do which of the following?
A) Cause lactation to begin
B) Produce spermatozoa
C) Release follicle-stimulating hormone
D) Release gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Q2) A nurse is working with a patient using the PLISSIT model. In the LI phase, what is an appropriate activity?
A) Educate the patient on water-based lubricants.
B) Ask the patient for permission to discuss sexuality.
C) Instruct the patient on positions acceptable after knee replacement.
D) Refer the patient and partner to a licensed therapist.
Q3) A nurse is working with a patient after the patient had a heart attack and is using the PLISSIT model to address sexuality needs. For the SS phase, what action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask the patient if he wants to discuss sexuality.
B) Teach the patient positions that require less stress.
C) Offer the patient a referral to a sex therapist.
D) Direct the patient to speak with the doctor about sex.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Safety
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient is using a portable generator in the house as a power source. What source of poisoning does the nurse appropriately identify?
A) Lead
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Antifreeze
D) Pesticide
Q2) The nurse is concerned about helping the patient find resources to obtain assistive equipment to be used in the home. Which team member should the nurse contact first?
A) Occupational therapist
B) Physical therapist
C) Physician
D) Social worker
Q3) The nurse displays an understanding of high-risk populations for MRSA when identifying which group as the lowest risk?
A) Prison inmates
B) College dorm residents
C) Team athletes
D) Food service workers
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Chapter 26: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) The patient is on protective precautions. Which is true regarding these precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A) A positive-pressure room with a HEPA filtration system is required.
B) Special respirator masks should be available and one size fits all.
C) No live plants are allowed in the room.
D) The patient may eat any foods desired.
Q2) The nurse has placed her sterile gloved hands below her waist. Her hands are now considered:
A) sterile.
B) aseptic.
C) non-sterile.
D) free of disease-causing organisms.
Q3) The nurse is providing education to a patient who is being discharged home on antibiotic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) by the patient indicates further education is needed? (Select all that apply.)
A) "I should take antibiotics every time I am sick."
B) "I should take all antibiotics as prescribed."
C) "I should save all unused antibiotics."
D) "I should stop taking antibiotics when I feel better."
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Hygiene and Personal Care
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Q1) The nurse is demonstrating cultural sensitivity in performing perineal care when he/she does the following: (Select all that apply.)
A) The male nurse delegates perineal care of a female patient to the female UAP.
B) The male nurse asks a female patient if she would prefer a female to perform care.
C) The nurse approaches the care in a sensitive, professional manner.
D) The nurse assesses cultural preferences of the patient prior to care.
Q2) Which tool is used to determine risk for impaired skin integrity?
A) Braden scale
B) Glasgow scale
C) Vanderbilt scale
D) MMSE scale
Q3) The nurse knows that routine hygienic care does not include:
A) massage with lotion.
B) oral care with a toothbrush.
C) shaving with a disposable razor.
D) ear hygiene with cotton-tipped applicators.
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Chapter 28: Activity, Immobility, and Safe Movement
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Q1) The nurse knows the knee-high SCD sleeves are correctly placed on the patient when the following conditions are met: (Select all that apply.)
A) Both sleeves are connected to the SCD device.
B) Two fingers fit inside when the SCDs are inflated.
C) There are no kinks in the tubing.
D) The ankle pressure is 55 to 65 mm Hg.
E) The cooling control is on.
Q2) The nurse is providing education to the patient about isometric exercises. Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding?
A) "An example of this type of exercise is walking."
B) "An example of this type of exercise is running."
C) "An example of this type of exercise is Kegels."
D) "An example of this type of exercise is weight lifting."
Q3) The nurse correctly selects which intervention to avoid causing shear or friction when moving a patient in bed?
A) Using an airflow bed
B) Using a slide board
C) Using a trochanter roll
D) Using a gel mattress
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Skin Integrity and Wound Care
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has had abdominal surgery and whose wound has completely eviscerated when she walks into the room. In addition to notifying the physician, what should the nurse do?
A) Cover the wound with a sterile gauze pad.
B) Cover the wound with a transparent dressing.
C) Put pressure on the wound with a sterile gauze pad.
D) Cover the wound with gauze soaked with normal saline.
Q2) The nurse knows that the following factors contribute to the development of wounds and lead to delays in wound healing: (Select all that apply.)
A) A patient who has diabetes
B) A patient with COPD on long-term steroid therapy
C) A patient with on bed rest who is repositioned
D) A patient who is obese and sweats excessively
E) None of the above
Q3) The nurse knows a stage III pressure ulcer is:
A) a pressure ulcer that involves exposure of bone and connective tissue.
B) a pressure ulcer that does not extend through the fascia.
C) a pressure ulcer that does not include tunneling.
D) a partial-thick wound that involves the epidermis.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Nutrition
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2205
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube in her patient. Which of the following steps in the process indicates a need for further education?
A) The nurse lubricates 4 inches of the tube prior to insertion.
B) The nurse marks the length of the tube with a marker for insertion.
C) The nurse measures the length of tube needed using the nose-earlobe-xiphoid process.
D) The nurse applies clean gloves for the procedure.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient about including more omega-3 fatty acids in her diet. Which of the following food sources should be included? (Select all that apply.)
A) Salmon
B) Flaxseed
C) Mackerel
D) Steak
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Chapter 31: Cognitive and Sensory Alterations
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Q1) You are providing education to the family of a patient being discharged with dementia. Which statement by the family indicates a good level of understanding of dementia? (Select all that apply.)
A) "The condition is permanent and has an acute onset."
B) "Alzheimer's is the most common type of dementia."
C) "The condition worsens over time."
D) "I should observe for wandering behavior."
E) "Agitation can be worse in the evening."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a stroke on the right side of the brain. The nurse is careful to implement what safety measures? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Make sure to put a picture board in the room to communicate with the patient."
B) "Place the call light on the patient's left side."
C) "Leave on a light in the bathroom at night for good visibility."
D) "Place the call light on the patient's right side."
E) "Make sure there are no trip hazards in the patient's room."
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33
Chapter 32: Stress and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that the coping strategies that are more frequently seen in older adults are: (Select all that apply.)
A) anger.
B) withdrawal.
C) information gathering.
D) avoidance.
E) problem focused.
Q2) The nurse is seeing a patient during a follow-up visit after discharge in which the patient had a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective coping. Which statement by the patient would be a cause for concern?
A) "I am sleeping better most nights."
B) "I feel less anxious."
C) "I do not need to do the relaxation exercises anymore."
D) "I am continuing my exercises every day."
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Chapter 33: Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, the following occur: (Select all that apply.)
A) Memories are stored
B) Increase in cerebral blood flow
C) Slow rhythmic scanning eye movements
D) Release of epinephrine
E) Repair of brain cells
Q2) The nurse knows that polysomnograpy is:
A) the recording of brain waves and other variables.
B) the relay of motor impulse to the hypothalamus.
C) the patterns of biological functioning.
D) the recording of seizure activity in the brain.
Q3) The nurse manager is concerned about her staff who are working the night shift. What interventions can she suggest to assist nurses in overcoming shift related sleep disturbances? (Select all that apply.)
A) Power nap before leaving for the first night shift.
B) Get a minimum of 4 hours of sleep.
C) Wear dark glasses when driving home from work.
D) Seek exposure to bright light when waking.
E) Maintain a regular sleeping schedule when working and on nights off.
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Chapter 34: Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone bronchoscopy. The patient states that she is thirsty and requests a drink of water. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Provide ice chips.
B) Check the patient for a gag reflex.
C) Provide a small cup of ice water with a straw.
D) Keep the patient NPO.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a bleeding gastric ulcer. How will the nurse expect the patient's stool to appear?
A) Soft and formed with bright red streaks
B) Watery with particles of undigested food
C) Sticky and black with strong foul odor
D) Hard lumps that are difficult to pass
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. Which test will indicate which antibiotics will be effective to treat the infection?
A) Complete blood count (CBC)
B) Culture and sensitivity (C&S)
C) Renal scan and angiography
D) Radioreceptor assay for HCG
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36
Chapter 35: Medication Administration
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Q1) The nurse carefully reviews the patient's medication list. Which observation about the list indicates the highest risk for serious drug-drug interactions?
A) The patient has been taking the same medications for a long time.
B) The patient is taking a large number of medications.
C) Most of the drugs on the list are prescribed at high doses.
D) The patient takes oral, injected, and inhaled medications.
Q2) Which of the following medication orders is to be administered PRN?
A) Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg PO tonight if the patient cannot sleep
B) Prednisone 10 mg PO today, then taper down 1 mg each day for the next 10 days
C) Humulin R 10 units subcutaneously before each meal and at bedtime
D) Kefzol (Ancef) 1 g IVPB 30 minutes prior to surgery
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin) to treat a severe infection. The next vancomycin dose is due to be administered at 10:00 A.M. What time will the nurse draw the vancomycin serum trough level?
A) 7:30 A.M.
B) 9:30 A.M.
C) 11:30 A.M.
D) 1:30 P.M.
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Chapter 36: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment question helps the nurse determine the character of the patient's pain?
A) "What does the pain feel like, i.e. stabbing, burning or throbbing?"
B) "When did the pain first start?"
C) "What interventions make the pain better?"
D) "Is there any pattern to when the pain occurs?"
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who will be using a hydromorphone (Dilaudid) PCA analgesia pump following surgery. Which intervention is the highest priority for the nurse to include in the patient's care plan for the diagnosis: Readiness for enhanced knowledge r/t appropriate management of PCA pump?
A) Assess the patient's respiratory status every 30 minutes after PCA pump started.
B) Review patient's medication profile to check for interactions with hydromorphone.
C) Teach the patient how to use PCA pump when awake and aware and pain level is tolerable.
D) Keep naloxone (Narcan) available at the bedside in case of respiratory suppression.
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Chapter 37: Perioperative Nursing Care
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is about to have surgery. Which intervention will be included in the patient's care to meet the goals for Risk for perioperative positioning injury r/t immobilization during surgical procedure?
A) Orient the patient to the OR environment and place the call light within reach.
B) Watch for early signs of hypovolemia caused by patient's NPO status since midnight.
C) Use therapeutic touch and guided imagery to allay patient's fears of surgery.
D) Pad all bony prominences and avoid hyperextension of extremities.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a history of COPD. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Ineffective airway clearance
B) Readiness for enhanced knowledge
C) Risk for delayed surgical recovery
D) Activity intolerance
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Chapter 38: Oxygenation and Tissue Perfusion
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has just been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the right leg. Which focused assessment question has the highest priority for this patient?
A) "Do you have a headache or any dizziness?"
B) "Do you have any chest pain or shortness of breath?"
C) "When did you first notice the swelling and redness in your leg?"
D) "Do you have any cramping or muscle spasms in your leg?"
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who developed a pulmonary embolism after surgery. Which goal statement is the highest priority for the nurse to include in the patient's care plan for the diagnosis Impaired gas exchange r/t impaired pulmonary blood flow from embolus?
A) The patient will maintain pulse oximetry values of at least 95% on room air.
B) The patient will verbalize understanding of ordered anticoagulants.
C) The patient will report chest pain of no greater than 3 on a 1-10 scale.
D) The patient will ambulate 50 feet in hallway without shortness of breath.
Q3) Which of the following patients would benefit from postural drainage?
A) A patient with a heart murmur and jugular venous distention
B) A patient with asthma and audible wheezing
C) A patient with right-sided heart failure and pitting edema
D) A patient with chronic bronchitis and congested cough
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Chapter 39: Fluid, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with renal failure who has a serum potassium level of 7.1 mEq/L and serum magnesium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to administer 10 units of insulin and an ampule of 50% dextrose to the patient. The patient asks why he will be receiving insulin when he is not diabetic. What is the nurse's best answer?
A) "The doctor has prescribed these medications for you to help heal your kidneys."
B) "These medications will lower your potassium level and prevent an irregular heart rate."
C) "These medications will prevent you from having a seizure from too little magnesium."
D) "These medications will increase your urine output until your kidneys recover."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the patient's laboratory results. Which result must be communicated to the physician immediately?
A) Serum chloride level 85 mEq/L
B) Serum sodium level 134 mEq/L
C) Serum potassium level 6.8 mEq/L
D) Serum magnesium level 2.3 mEq/L
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Chapter 40: Bowel Elimination
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just completed 2 weeks of IV antibiotics for a severe infection. The patient now has frequent loose watery stools and a low-grade temperature. What is the most likely cause of the patient's new symptoms?
A) C. difficile infection
B) Paralytic ileus
C) Fecal impaction
D) Salmonella food poisoning
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to have a cleansing enema. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates a need to contact the prescriber and question the order?
A) The patient is recovering from a traumatic brain injury.
B) The patient has not had a bowel movement for 3 days.
C) The patient is to have a lower GI series the following morning.
D) The patient had an upper GI series performed the previous day.
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Chapter 41: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with the nursing diagnosis of Urge urinary incontinence related to urinary tract infection. Which statement is appropriate for the "as evidenced by" portion of the patient's diagnosis?
A) Sudden leakage of urine when patient is unable to get to the toilet in time.
B) Continuous urine flow from the bladder regardless of attempts to use the toilet
C) Leakage of urine from the bladder when the patient coughs, sneezes, or laughs
D) Leakage of urine because the patient is unable to indicate need to use the toilet
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing stress incontinence. Which goal is the most important for this patient?
A) The patient will carefully complete a voiding diary for the duration of 2 weeks.
B) The patient will not experience involuntary urination during coughing or sneezing.
C) The patient will be able to recognize and effectively manage perineal dermatitis.
D) The patient will demonstrate how to appropriately use urinary incontinence products.
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43
Chapter 42: Death and Loss
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who will probably die within the next hour or two. The patient's daughter is keeping a vigil by the bedside and asks what she can do to help her father at this time. What is the appropriate response of the nurse?
A) "Just let him know you are here, talk to him, and let him know that you love him."
B) "You can try to feed him a few bites of ice cream to keep his mouth from getting dry."
C) "You can take this time to ensure that arrangements are set with the funeral home."
D) "You should let me know when your father's breathing pattern changes."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just died. Which assessment findings by the physician and nurse are used to confirm that death has occurred? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient was incontinent of bowel and bladder.
B) The patient's pupils are fixed and dilated.
C) The physician does not hear a heartbeat.
D) The patient's extremities are cool and mottled.
E) The patient has no palpable peripheral pulses.
F) The patient's face is relaxed and the mouth is open.
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