Nursing Care of the Childbearing Family
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the principles and practices of nursing care for childbearing families, emphasizing both maternal and newborn health. Topics include prenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum care, as well as the assessment and management of common complications during pregnancy and childbirth. Students will explore family-centered care, cultural considerations, health promotion, patient education, and the roles of the nurse in supporting families throughout the childbearing process. Clinical experiences and case studies are incorporated to develop skills in critical thinking, communication, and evidence-based practice in maternity and newborn nursing.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
Answer: A
Q2) Evidence-based care
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection?
A) The client will not exhibit further signs of infection.
B) Maintain the client's fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hr.
C) The client will have a temperature of 98.6° F within 2 days.
D) Monitor the client to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy.
Answer: D
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse set as a priority for a laboring client?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
Q3) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse that she has not received any prenatal care because "I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect." What is the nurse's primary concern when developing the patient's plan of care?
A) Low birth weight
B) Oligohydramnios
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is teaching a homeless pregnant teenager about prenatal care. Which should the nurse emphasize in the teaching session?
A) The importance of naming the baby
B) Risk factors associated with pregnancy
C) Information about employment opportunities
D) Eating habits that will provide adequate nutrition
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Which are the actions of the estrogen hormone on the female body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Q2) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number. _____
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that which is true?
A) Both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) Types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) The baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) Type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) Which statement is true of multifactorial disorders?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Q3) Testing for the cause of anomalies in a stillborn infant is being done. The mother angrily asks the nurse how long these tests are going to take. The nurse should understand that the mother is:
A) exhibiting normal grief behavior.
B) trying to place blame on someone.
C) being impatient and unreasonable.
D) feeling guilty and blaming herself.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q2) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q4) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's last menstrual period was June 10. What is her estimated date of birth (EDD)?
A) April 7
B) March 17
C) March 27
D) April 17
Q2) A client in her third trimester of pregnancy is asking about safe travel. Which statement should the nurse give about safe travel during pregnancy?
A) "Only travel by car during pregnancy."
B) "Avoid use of the seat belt during the third trimester."
C) "You can travel by plane until your 38th week of gestation."
D) "If you are traveling by car stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours."
Q3) A client notices that the health care provider writes "positive Chadwick's sign" on her chart. She asks the nurse what this means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It means the cervix is softening."
B) "That refers to a positive sign of pregnancy."
C) "It refers to the bluish color of the cervix in pregnancy."
D) "The doctor was able to flex the uterus against the cervix."
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the step in maternal role attainment that relates to the woman giving up certain aspects of her previous life?
A) Fantasy
B) Grief work
C) Role-playing
D) Looking for a fit
Q2) A Vietnamese client who speaks little English is admitted to the labor and birth unit in early labor. The nurse plans to use an interpreter during an initial assessment. Which should the nurse plan to implement with regard to using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Face the interpreter when speaking.
B) Listen carefully to what the client says.
C) Speak slowly and smile when appropriate.
D) Plan to use a male interpreter, even if a female interpreter is available.
E) Ask the interpreter to explain exactly what is said as much as possible, instead of paraphrasing.
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zinc
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
Q2) A pregnant client would like to know a good food source of calcium other than dairy products. Which is the best answer that the nurse should give?
A) Legumes
B) Lean meat
C) Whole grains
D) Yellow vegetables
Q3) Which of the following is associated with inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Prolonged labor
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Low-birth-weight infant
Q4) Iodine
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a non-stress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q3) Which factor serves as a clinical indicator for a third trimester amniocentesis?
A) Sex of the fetus
B) Rh isoimmunization
C) Placenta previa
D) Placental abruption
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2122
Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primipara admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the option of childbirth classes with a patient in her second trimester. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has understood the teaching?
A) "My labor will likely be shorter if I go to classes."
B) "I will likely perceive less pain during labor if I go to classes."
C) "I will likely be more satisfied with my labor if I go to classes."
D) "I will likely use fewer medications during labor if I go to classes."
Q3) Lamaze childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a client who had delivered vaginally?
A) Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process
B) White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth
C) Client complains of fingers tingling
D) Client complains of thirst
Q2) Fetal lie
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
Q3) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as a potential complication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Soft boggy uterus
B) Maternal temperature of 99° F
C) High uterine fundus displaced to the right
D) Intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics
E) Half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth
Q2) During labor a vaginal examination should be performed only when necessary because of the risk of:
A) infection.
B) fetal injury.
C) discomfort.
D) perineal trauma.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to perform Leopold's maneuvers. Why are Leopold's maneuvers used by practitioners?
A) To determine the status of the membranes
B) To determine cervical dilation and effacement
C) To determine the best location to assess the fetal heart rate
D) To determine whether the fetus is in the posterior position
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic applications provides the most accurate information related to uterine contraction strength?
A) External fetal monitoring (EFM)
B) Internal fetal monitoring
C) Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)
D) Maternal comments based on perception
Q2) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:
A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.
D) position client in a knee-chest position.
Q3) Observation of a fetal heart rate pattern indicates an increase in heart rate from the prior baseline rate of 152 bpm. Which physiologic mechanisms would account for this situation?
A) Inhibition of epinephrine
B) Inhibition of norepinephrine
C) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
D) Sympathetic stimulation
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient in the active phase of the first stage of labor. The patient is crying out loudly with each contraction. What is the nurse's priority action for this patient?
A) Ask the patient's labor coach if this is a usual expression of pain for her.
B) Refer to the patient's chart to determine any orders for pain medication.
C) Tell the patient that she is disturbing the other laboring patients on the unit.
D) Encourage the patient to try to suppress her noisiness during contractions.
Q2) The best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to an unprepared laboring client is during which stage?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Transition phase
Q3) Childbirth pain is different from other types of pain in that it is:
A) less intense.
B) associated with a physiologic process.
C) more responsive to pharmacologic management.
D) designed to make one withdraw from the stimulus.
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q2) The labor nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of the membranes 6 hours prior to admission with clear fluid. On admission, vital signs were as follows: maternal heart rate (HR) 92 bpm; fetal rate (FHR) baseline, 150 to 160 bpm; blood pressure, 124/76 mm Hg; temperature
C]. What is the priority nursing action for this patient?
A) Fetal acoustic stimulation
B) Assess temperature every 2 hours
C) Change absorption pads under her hips every 2 hours
D) Review white blood cell count (WBC) drawn at admission
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?
A) Pulse rate of 50
B) Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F)
C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia
D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position
Q2) A postpartum client asks, "Will these stretch marks go away?" Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "No, never."
B) "Yes, eventually."
C) "They will fade to silvery lines but won't disappear completely."
D) "They will continue to fade and should be gone by your 6-week checkup."
Q3) The nurse has completed a postpartum assessment on a client who delivered an hour ago. Which amount of lochia consists of a moderate amount?
A) Saturated peripad
B) 4- to 6-inch stain on the peripad
C) 1- to 4-inch stain on the peripad
D) Less than a 1-inch stain on the peripad
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A husband calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He says, "She was never like this before the baby was born." Which should be the nurse's initial response?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q2) Which are nursing measures that can promote parent-infant bonding and attachment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide comfort and ample time for rest.
B) Keep the baby wrapped to avoid cold stress.
C) Position the infant face to face with the mother.
D) Point out the characteristics of the infant in a positive way.
E) Limit the amount of modeling so the mother doesn't feel insecure.
Q3) Taking-hold
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2130
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organs are nonfunctional during fetal life?
A) Eyes and ears
B) Lungs and liver
C) Kidneys and adrenals
D) Gastrointestinal system
Q2) The postpartum nurse is administering vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn. The prescribed order is to administer one dose of 0.5 mg of vitamin K via the intramuscular (IM) route within 1 hour after birth. The ampule of vitamin K sent from the pharmacy is 1 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters does the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to two decimal points.
_____ mL
Q3) Which newborn is at higher risk for developing hypoglycemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term newborn
B) 38 weeks' gestation newborn
C) Small-for-gestational-age newborn
D) Large-for-gestational-age newborn
E) Term newborn born by cesarean birth
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caput succedaneum
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
Q2) Which action should the nurse take if a discrepancy is found between the measurements of a newborn and the normative criteria?
A) Remeasure the infant.
B) Consider this a normal deviation.
C) Perform an expanded assessment.
D) Inform the parents so that they can follow the infant's growth.
Q3) Which explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q4) Cephalohematoma
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a newborn for a circumcision. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement to alleviate pain? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral sucrose during the procedure
B) Bright lights after the procedure
C) Adequate stimulation before and after the procedure
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) postprocedure, as needed
E) EMLA cream (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) before the procedure
Q2) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site. The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital 5 days after her son was circumcised. She is very concerned. On which rationale should the nurse base a reply?
A) The yellow crust should not be removed.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
D) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client should be taught that when her infant falls asleep after feeding for only a few minutes, she should do which of the following?
A) Unwrap and gently arouse the infant.
B) Wait an hour and attempt to feed again.
C) Try offering a bottle at the next feeding.
D) Put the infant in the crib and try again later.
Q2) A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum because it is not real milk. The nurse's best answer includes which information?
A) Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.
B) Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals.
C) Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula.
D) Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breast-feed before she goes home.
Q3) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
A) Triplet birth
B) Flat or inverted nipples
C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis
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24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is calling a new mother to schedule a routine home visit planned for 48 to 72 hours after discharge. What is the nurse's priority question to help determine the best time for the visit?
A) "When will the baby's father be home?"
B) "Do you plan on having any visitors in the day or two?"
C) "At approximately what time do you think you will be nursing your baby?"
D) "When will your home be presentable enough for me to come and visit?"
Q2) A new mother asks, "Why should I bring my baby in for a checkup? He isn't sick." Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "Please ask your pediatrician to explain this to you."
B) "He may have a problem that you haven't identified."
C) "These visits are required by law to identify communicable diseases."
D) "Well-baby visits allow the doctor to determine whether your baby is growing and developing normally."
Q3) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.8° F (37.7° C)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths/min
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is alone with a battered client, the client seems extremely anxious and says, "It was all my fault. The house was so messy when he got home and I know he hates that." Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"
B) "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?"
C) "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you."
D) "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry, so he takes it out on you."
Q2) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
Q3) Marijuana
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding indicates an adverse response to magnesium sulfate?
A) Urine output of 30 mL/hr
B) Respiratory rate of 11 breaths/min
C) Hypoactive patellar reflex
D) Blood pressure reading of 110/80 mm Hg
Q2) A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient's magnesium level is 7.6 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Stop the infusion of magnesium.
B) Assess the patient's respiratory rate.
C) Assess the patient's deep tendon reflexes.
D) Notify the health care provider of the magnesium level.
Q3) The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant client at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign is not included as a symptom of preeclampsia?
A) Edema
B) Proteinuria
C) Glucosuria
D) Hypertension
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning intrapartum care for a client with heart disease, the nurse should include:
A) taking vital signs according to standard protocols.
B) continuously monitoring cardiac rhythm with telemetry.
C) massaging the uterus to hasten birth of the placenta.
D) maintaining the infusion of intravenous fluids to avoid dehydration.
Q2) A client has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. Which action is appropriate?
A) Practice respiratory isolation.
B) Plan for retesting during the third trimester.
C) Discuss the recommendation to bottle feed her baby.
D) Anticipate administering the vaccination for hepatitis B as soon as possible.
Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
Q2) Which intervention should be incorporated in a plan of care for a labor client who is experiencing hypertonic labor? Vaginal exam is unchanged from prior exam-3 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station presenting part vertex.
A) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) AROM
C) Performing a vaginal exam to denote progress
D) Preparing the client for epidural administration as ordered by the physician
Q3) Which is (are) the priority nursing assessment(s) for the client having tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Intake and output
B) Maternal blood glucose level
C) Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
D) Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Q1) If nonsurgical treatment for subinvolution is ineffective, which surgical procedure is appropriate to correct the cause of this condition?
A) Hysterectomy
B) Laparoscopy
C) Laparotomy
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
Q2) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a client who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred:
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
Q3) A client with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed to the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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Q1) Which preterm infant should receive gavage feedings instead of bottle feedings?
A) Sucks on a pacifier during gavage feedings
B) Sometimes gags when a feeding tube is inserted
C) Has a sustained respiratory rate of 70 breaths/min
D) Has an axillary temperature of 98.4° F, an apical pulse of 149 beats/min, and respirations of 54 breaths/min
Q2) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q3) Which is true about newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA)?
A) They weigh less than 2500g.
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.
D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
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31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Q1) The nurse present at the birth is reporting to the nurse who will be caring for the neonate after birth. Which information should be included for an infant who had thick meconium in the amniotic fluid?
A) The parents spent an hour bonding with the baby after birth.
B) An IV was started immediately after birth to treat dehydration.
C) There was no meconium below the vocal cords when they were visualized.
D) The infant needed vigorous stimulation immediately after birth to initiate crying.
Q2) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q3) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of:
A) a lack of surfactant.
B) hypoinflation of the lungs.
C) delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid.
D) a slow vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Q1) Which of the statements is correct regarding use of contraception and the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) As long as the oral contraception method is used correctly, there is no transmission of STDs during sexual activity.
B) Oral contraceptives provide the greatest protection against getting STDs.
C) Barrier methods, if used correctly, are more likely to protect individuals from STDs as compared with other contraceptive methods.
D) It is less likely to see transmission of STDs if clients engage in oral sex as opposed to vaginal penetration.
Q2) The role of the nurse in family planning is to:
A) refer the couple to a reliable physician.
B) decide on the best method for the couple.
C) advise couples on which contraceptive to use.
D) educate couples on the various methods of contraception.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
Q3) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is:
A) in vitro fertilization.
B) tubal embryo transfer.
C) therapeutic insemination.
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer.
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34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Q1) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a client who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q2) You are taking care of a client who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
A) Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
B) Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
C) Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
D) Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
Q3) Which should the nurse stress in teaching a client to deal with the symptoms of PMS?
A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.
B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.
C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.
D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.
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