Nursing Care of the Childbearing Family Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the nursing care of women, newborns, and families during the childbearing period. It emphasizes the physiological, psychological, and sociocultural aspects of pregnancy, childbirth, postpartum, and neonatal care. Students will develop the skills necessary to provide evidence-based nursing interventions that promote maternal and infant health, address common complications, and support family adaptation to pregnancy and parenting. The course also explores health promotion, patient education, and advocacy within diverse family structures and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based care
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are taking care of a couple postbirth who are very eager to learn about bathing techniques that they can use for their newborn. Which teaching technique could the nurse use to facilitate parents learning about giving a bath to their newborn infant?
A) Provide direct, step-by-step demonstration to each parent separately to foster individual retention and comprehension.
B) Present information to parents prior to discharge so that the information will be current.
C) Have each parent bathe the newborn each time the infant comes to the room and provide commentary after the skill repetition.
D) Demonstrate bathing techniques on the newborn infant with parents in attendance.
Answer: D
Q2) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in the area of labor and birth. Her assignment is to take care of a gravida 1 para 0 who presents in early labor at term. Vaginal exam reflects the following: 2 cm, cervix posterior, -1 station, and vertex with membranes intact. The client asks the nurse "if she can break her water so that her labor can go faster?" The nurse's response, based on the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, is which of the following?
A) Tell the client that she will have to wait until she has progressed further on the vaginal exam and then she will perform an amniotomy.
B) Have the client write down her request and then call the physician for an order to implement the amniotomy.
C) Instruct the client that only a physician or certified midwife can perform this procedure.
D) Give the client an enema to stimulate labor.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q2) To evaluate an individual's progression through puberty, which assessment tool would be used during the assessment phase of the nursing process?
A) Bishop score
B) Tanner staging
C) Braden score
D) SOFA score
Q3) Which describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
Q2) Autosomal recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
Q4) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q2) Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to the labor client who is delivering a premature infant?
A) Phytonadione (AquaMEPHYTON)
B) Betamethasone
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Newborn eye prophylaxis
Q3) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the:
A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.
B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.
C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.
D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gravida client at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q2) What is the best explanation that you can provide to a pregnant client who is concerned that she has "pseudoanemia" of pregnancy?
A) Have her write down her concerns and tell her that you will ask the physician to respond once the lab results have been evaluated.
B) Tell her that this is a benign self-limiting condition that can be easily corrected by switching to a high-iron diet.
C) Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.
D) Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition.
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant client asks the nurse about the behavior of "mimicry." Which is an example of mimicry that the nurse should relate to the client?
A) Daydreaming about the newborn
B) Imagining oneself as a good mother
C) Babysitting for a neighbor's children
D) Wearing maternity clothes before they are needed
Q2) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
Q3) Which comment made by a new mother to her own mother is most likely to encourage the grandmother's participation in the infant's care?
A) "Could you help me with the housework today?"
B) "The baby is spitting up a lot. What should I do?"
C) "I know you are busy, so I'll get John's mother to help me."
D) "The baby has a stomachache. I'll call the nurse to find out what to do."
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client comes to the OB clinic and informs you that she is very concerned about the amount of weight gain associated with pregnancy. She then tells you that she wants to switch to a low-fat diet during pregnancy. BMI measurements indicate a BMI of 22.7. What would be the best nursing response to this client's stated plan?
A) Tell the client that as long as she maintains a varied diet with regard to the other nutrients, there should be no problems.
B) Refer the client to a dietician for assistance in planning the low-fat diet.
C) Advise the client that it is important to maintain the intake of essential fatty acids during pregnancy.
D) Schedule the client for more frequent visits during the next few months to evaluate her weight pattern.
Q2) Which client would require additional calories and nutrients?
A) A 36-year-old female gravida 2, para 1, in her first trimester of pregnancy
B) An 18-year-old female who delivered a 7-lb baby and is bottle feeding
C) A 23-year-old female who had a cesarean section birth and is bottle feeding
D) A 20-year-old female who had a vaginal birth 5 months ago and is breastfeeding
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does nursing care after amniocentesis include?
A) Forcing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q2) Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q3) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q4) Which factor serves as a clinical indicator for a third trimester amniocentesis?
A) Sex of the fetus
B) Rh isoimmunization
C) Placenta previa
D) Placental abruption
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q2) A primipara client asks about possible support options for her during the labor process. She is apprehensive that her family members will not be prepared to assist her during this time. Which option would be most effective for this client?
A) Reassure the client that the labor and birth staff consists of highly trained nurses who are well educated to take care of laboring clients, so that should be sufficient.
B) Encourage the client to take prepared childbirth classes with her husband because that should provide the best support by a family member.
C) Provide information to the client about obtaining a doula during the labor process.
D) Tell the client that this is a normal feeling based on fear of the unknown and that it will subside once she starts the labor process.
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
Q2) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q3) An assessment finding that would indicate to the nurse that cervical dilation and/or effacement has occurred is:
A) onset of irregular contractions.
B) cephalic presentation at 0 station.
C) bloody mucus drainage from vagina.
D) fetal heart tones (FHTs) present in the lower right quadrant.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old primigravida client is in the first stage of labor. She and her husband have been holding hands and breathing together through each contraction. Suddenly, the client pushes her husband's hand away and shouts, "Don't touch me!" This behavior is most likely:
A) abnormal labor.
B) a sign that she needs analgesia.
C) normal and related to hyperventilation.
D) common during the transition phase of labor.
Q2) The nurse notes a concerning fetal heart rate pattern for a patient in active labor. The health care provider has prescribed the placement of a Foley catheter. What priority nursing action will the nurse implement when placing the catheter?
A) Place the catheter as quickly as possible.
B) Place a small pillow under the patient's left hip.
C) Omit the use of a cleansing agent, such as Betadine.
D) Set up the catheter tray before positioning the patient.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Q2) The nurse recognizes that fetal scalp stimulation may be prescribed to evaluate the response of the fetus to tactile stimulation. Which conditions contraindicate the use of fetal scalp stimulation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term fetus
B) Maternal fever
C) Placenta previa
D) Induction of labor
E) Prolonged rupture of membranes
Q3) Which of the following is the priority intervention for the client in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction?
A) Administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hr.
C) Reposition the ultrasound transducer.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents to the labor and birth area for emergent birth. Vaginal exam reveals that the client is fully dilated, vertex, +2 station, with ruptured membranes. The client is extremely apprehensive because this is her first childbirth experience and asks for an epidural to be administered now. What is the priority nursing response based on this client assessment?
A) Use contact anesthesia for an epidural and prepare the client per protocol.
B) Tell the client that she will not need any pain medication because the birth will be over in a matter of minutes and the pain will stop.
C) Assist the client with nonpharmacologic methods of pain distraction during this time as you prepare for vaginal birth.
D) Call the physician for admitting orders.
Q2) Acupressure
A)Pressure applied to specific pressure points using hands, rollers, balls, or other equipment
B)Contraction and then release of specific muscle groups until all muscles are relaxed
C)Concentrating on something outside the body
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately following the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, which action should the nurse implement?
A) Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
B) Apply a cold pack to the infant's scalp.
C) Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics.
D) Measure the circumference of the infant's head.
Q2) A client is scheduled for an external cephalic version (ECV). Which should the nurse prepare to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Initiation of an intravenous (IV) line
B) Obtaining a baseline fetal monitoring pattern
C) Administration of an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion as prescribed
D) Planning to observe the client and fetus for 1 hour after the procedure
E) Administration of an Rh immunoglobulin after the procedure to Rh-positive clients
Q3) The greatest risk to the newborn after an elective cesarean birth is:
A) tachypnea because of maternal anesthesia.
B) tachycardia because of maternal narcotics.
C) trauma because of manipulation during birth.
D) prematurity because of miscalculation of gestation.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the A of the acronym REEDA, the nurse should assess the:
A) skin color.
B) degree of edema.
C) edges of the episiotomy.
D) episiotomy for discharge.
Q2) If the client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day, which action should the nurse take?
A) Document the finding.
B) Tell the health care provider.
C) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
D) Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
Q3) Vaginal exam findings reveal a slitlike opening of the cervix. What is the correct interpretation of this finding with regard to obstetric history?
A) Client has not been pregnant.
B) Client has had a C section as a method of birth.
C) Client has been treated for an STD with resultant scarring of the cervix.
D) Client has a history of pregnancy.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old gravida 1, para 1, who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As you prepare her for discharge, she begins to cry. Which should be your initial action?
A) Assess her for pain.
B) Allow her time to express her feelings.
C) Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby.
D) Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues.
Q2) Which action should the nurse do to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum client?
A) Recount how she solved her own problems.
B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.
C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.
D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.
Q3) Taking-hold
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least at risk to develop?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Respiratory distress
C) Infection
D) Jaundice
Q2) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the:
A) left atrium.
B) right atrium.
C) hepatic system.
D) pulmonary veins.
Q3) A multiparous patient arrives to the labor unit and urgently states, "The baby is coming RIGHT NOW!" The nurse assists the patient into a comfortable position and delivers the infant. To prevent infant heat loss from conduction, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Dry the baby off.
B) Turn up the temperature in the patient's room.
C) Pour warmed water over the baby immediately after birth.
D) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen after the cord is cut.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?
A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths/min
B) Cyanosis of the extremities
C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds
D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the purpose of state-required newborn screening?
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Document the number of births.
C) Allow for accurate statistical information.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
Q2) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean section and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
Q3) When an infant's temperature drops from 98.7° to 97.4° F (37° to 36.3° C), the nurse should:
A) instruct parents on cold stress.
B) determine time and amount of last feeding.
C) increase the temperature in the mother's room.
D) evaluate infant for the presence of a blood sugar level higher than 50 mg/dL.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) A new mother is concerned because her 1-day-old newborn is taking only 1 oz at each feeding. What should the nurse explain?
A) The infant is probably having difficulty adjusting to the formula.
B) An infant does not require as much formula in the first few days of life.
C) The infant's stomach capacity is small at birth but will expand within a few days.
D) The infant tires easily during the first few days but will gradually take more formula.
Q2) What should the nurse explain when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
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24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the first 6 months of life, the infant should have well-baby checkups at which interval?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 2 months
D) 3 to 4 months
Q2) During a prenatal education class about infant home care, the nurse is reviewing the simulated setting created by new mothers for putting the baby to bed. Which observation indicates to the nurse that the new mothers understood the nurse's teaching about infant safety?
A) The crib is lined with a bumper pad.
B) Stuffed animals are placed in the crib.
C) The baby mannequin is in the supine position.
D) The baby mannequin is covered with a handmade quilt.
Q3) Which is a sign of illness in the newborn?
A) A yellow scaly lesion on the scalp
B) More than two soft stools per day
C) Regurgitating a small amount of feeding
D) An axillary temperature greater than 100.4° F (38° C)
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a client who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q2) Which antidepressant is no longer recommended for use during pregnancy?
A) Sertraline (Zoloft)
B) Paroxetine (Paxil)
C) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
D) Citalopram (Celexa)
Q3) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding in the exam of a client with a diagnosis of threatened abortion would change the diagnosis to inevitable abortion?
A) Presence of backache
B) Rise in hCG level
C) Clear fluid from vagina
D) Pelvic pressure
Q2) A laboratory finding indicative of DIC is:
A) decreased fibrinogen.
B) increased platelets.
C) increased hematocrit.
D) decreased thromboplastin time.
Q3) A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.
Nursing care is based on which of the following?
A) Hemorrhage is the major concern.
B) She will be unable to conceive in the future.
C) Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
D) A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important instruction to include in a teaching plan for a client in early pregnancy who has Class I heart disease is she:
A) must report any nausea or vomiting.
B) may experience mild fatigue in early pregnancy.
C) must report any chest discomfort or productive cough.
D) should plan to increase her daily exercise gradually throughout pregnancy.
Q2) A pregnant patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is reviewing infant care instructions with the prenatal nurse. Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A) "I will bathe my baby twice a day."
B) "I will use premixed formula to feed my baby."
C) "I will use gloves to change my baby's diapers."
D) "I will use alcohol wipes six times a day on the baby's cord until it falls off."
Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obstetric client has been identified as being high risk and so has had activities restrictions (placed on bed rest) placed on her until the end of the pregnancy. Currently, she is at 32 weeks' gestation and has two other children at home, ages 3 and 6. The client's husband works at home. A nursing diagnosis of Impaired home maintenance is noted. Which statement potentially identifies a long-term goal?
A) The client and husband will be able to adapt their schedules accordingly to meet activities of daily living until the client's next scheduled antepartum visit the following week.
B) The client and husband will hire a nanny to act as an additional caregiver for the next month.
C) The client will continue to take care of her children at home, taking frequent rest periods.
D) The client and husband will make arrangements for child care routine activity assistance for the rest of the pregnancy.
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a difficult vaginal birth of a singleton pregnancy, the client starts bleeding heavily. Clots are expressed and a Foley catheter is inserted to empty the bladder because the uterine fundus is soft and displaced laterally from midline. Vital signs are 99.8° F, pulse 90 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, and BP 130/90 mm Hg. Which pharmacologic intervention is indicated?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin) to be administered in a piggyback solution
B) Administration of methylergonovine (Methergine)
C) Administration of prostaglandin analogue
D) Increase in parenteral fluids
Q2) Following a vaginal birth, a client has lost a significant amount of blood and is starting to experience signs of hypovolemic shock. Which clinical signs would be consistent with this clinical diagnosis?
A) Decrease in blood pressure, with an increase in pulse pressure
B) Compensatory response of tachycardia and decreased pulse pressure
C) Decrease in heart rate and an increase in respiratory effort
D) Flushed skin
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Q2) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 97°, 96°, and 97° F.
Q3) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?
A) Promote bonding.
B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.
C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q2) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of:
A) a lack of surfactant.
B) hypoinflation of the lungs.
C) delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid.
D) a slow vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.
Q3) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hb 18 g/dL, Hct 50%
B) Hb 25/dL, Hct 55%
C) Hb 20/dL, Hct 65%
D) Hb 30 g/dL, Hct 70%
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has had a prior history of endometriosis and comes to the clinic asking about which method of birth control might be helpful to alleviate her symptoms. Which birth control method should the client use?
A) Withdrawal method
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Depo-Provera
D) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Q2) A nurse is leading a discussion regarding birth control measures. Which method is considered the most reliable method?
A) Coitus interruptus
B) Breastfeeding
C) Natural family planning
D) Intrauterine device
Q3) Which client is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q2) A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's best response is:
A) "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
B) "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
C) "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
D) "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap smear?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
Q2) Which administration concern is included in the plan of care for the HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in liquid form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The individual should sit down for 15 minutes following the injection.
Q3) A 45-year-old client asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is:
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse teach to assist a client to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Do Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
Q2) A client states, "I'm sure that I am suffering from PMS. How can I get my doctor to take this seriously?" The nurse's best response is:
A) "Men are not usually sympathetic to PMS sufferers."
B) "You are probably right. You should remind your doctor of your symptoms every time you visit."
C) "Since you feel certain you are right, you should just treat yourself with over-the-counter medications."
D) "You should keep a daily record of the occurrence and severity of your symptoms for 3 months."
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