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Nursing Theory and Practice explores foundational and contemporary theories that guide the nursing profession while integrating practical skills essential for effective patient care. This course examines major theoretical frameworks, such as those by Florence Nightingale, Jean Watson, and Dorothea Orem, emphasizing the relationship between theory, research, and practice. Students will develop competencies in applying evidence-based knowledge to real-world clinical scenarios, enhancing their critical thinking, decision-making, and communication skills. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on experiences, learners gain a holistic understanding of how theory informs practice, improves patient outcomes, and shapes the evolution of the nursing discipline.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 7th Edition by Kim Cooper
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40 Chapters
1496 Verified Questions
1496 Flashcards
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6580
Sample Questions
Q1) Where did Florence Nightingale's original nursing education take place?
A)Saint Thomas
B)Kings College Hospital
C)Crimean Hospital
D)Kaiserswerth School
Answer: D
Q2) What document identifies the roles and responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
A)NLN Accreditation Standards
B)Nurse Practice Act
C)NAPNE Code
D)American Nurses' Association Code
Answer: B
Q3) What is required by the health care team to identify the needs of a patient and to design care to meet those needs?
A)The Kardex
B)The physician's order sheet
C)An individualized care plan
D)The nurse's notes
Answer: C
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working on an acute care medical surgical unit is aware that his or her first duty is to the patient's health,safety,and well-being.Given this knowledge,which of the following is most necessary for the nurse to report?
A)Unethical behavior of other staff members
B)A worker who arrives late
C)Favoritism shown by nursing administration
D)Arguments among the staff
Answer: A
Q2) The new LPN/LVN is concerned regarding what should or should not be done for patients.What resource will best provide this information?
A)Nurse practice act
B)Standards of care
C)Scope of nursing practice
D)Professional organizations
Answer: B
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using electronic (or computerized)documentation,which process should the nurse use to ensure that no one alters the information the nurse has entered?
A)Charting in code
B)Logging off
C)Charting in privacy
D)Signing on with a password
Answer: B
Q2) A health care audit that evaluates services provided and the results achieved compared with accepted standards is known as ____________
Answer: quality assurance
quality assessment
quality improvement
Quality assurance/assessment/improvement is an audit in health care that evaluates services provided and the results achieved compared with accepted standards.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true about the use of silence in therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A)Maintaining silence is an effective therapeutic communication technique.
B)Maintaining silence is generally overused in therapeutic communication.
C)The sender often becomes uncomfortable when using silence.
D)The ability to use silence effectively requires skill and timing.
E)Prolonged periods of misunderstood silence can cause tension.
F) Purposeful use of silence often conveys lack of respect.
Q2) A grieving young widow cries out,"Why was my husband killed? Why wasn't it me?"
What is the nurse's best response?
A)Stating "You need to be strong for your children."
B)Silently placing her hand on the widow's arm.
C)Asking if there is anyone the widow needs to have notified.
D)Stating "You are feeling overwhelmed about your husband's death."
Q3) When a nurse lectures to a large group,the method of communication is usually in the form of ____________ communication.
Q4) A patient with aphasia who cannot understand a spoken or written message is said to have ___________ aphasia.
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an admission assessment,the nurse collects objective and subjective data.What is an example of objective data?
A)The patient is jaundiced.
B)The patient states, "I am nervous."
C)The patient complains of palpitations.
D)The patient denies dizziness when ambulating.
Q2) A health care system that provides control over health care services for a specific group of individuals in an attempt to control cost is known as ___________
Q3) Human responses to levels of wellness in an individual,family,or community that have a readiness for enhancement are known as a _____________ ____________
Q4) What subjective data does the nurse record following a head-to-toe examination?
A)Rash on back
B)Prolonged nausea
C)Blood pressure of 190/100
D)White blood cell count of 19,000
Q5) Human responses to health conditions and life processes that may develop in a vulnerable individual,family,or community are known as a(n)__________
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who fasts during daylight hours during Ramadan.The nurse recognizes that the patient is adhering to the cultural beliefs of which culture?
A)Muslims
B)African Americans
C)Chinese Americans
D)Mexican Americans
Q2) A nurse is caring for a female neonate born to observant Orthodox Jewish parents.What book does the nurse know will be used when naming this neonate?
A)Bible
B)Koran
C)Holy Torah
D)Book of Mormon
Q3) The nurse is caring for a Mexican American patient who is in labor.How can this nurse best demonstrate cultural sensitivity?
A)Encouraging female family members to be present for the delivery
B)Encouraging the patient's spouse to be present for the delivery
C)Asking the patient's spouse to see his baby before cutting the umbilical cord
D)Asking the patient's spouse to hold the neonate before bathing the neonate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recognizing the stages of an infection assists the nurse in identifying the progression of an infection.What is the nonspecific to specific symptom stage of an infection?
A)Convalescent
B)Illness
C)Prodromal
D)Incubation
Q2) What additional complication does a disease caused by a virus have compared to a disease caused by bacteria?
A)Multiplies rapidly
B)Returns frequently
C)Is not killed by antibiotics
D)Is unable to be cultured
Q3) The nurse is concerned when a patient admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia suddenly develops a urinary tract infection (UTI).What type of infection is this UTI considered?
A)Viral infection
B)Bacterial infection
C)Health care-associated infection
D)Spore infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly hired group of graduate practical/vocational nurses are attending orientation at a long-term care facility.What information will be included regarding considerations of mobility and the older adult? (Select all that apply.)
A)The skin of older adults is more fragile and susceptible to injury.
B)Always support older adults under the soft tissue when moving them in bed.
C)Weakness and hypertension are common signs and symptoms noted in an older adult on bed rest.
D)Aging tends to result in loss of flexibility and joint mobility.
E)Older adults sometimes become fearful when hydraulic lifts are used for transfers.
Q2) The nurse receives a patient from the recovery room following total hip replacement surgery.What will the nurse include when assessing neurovascular status on this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pupils
B)Pain
C)Sensation
D)Color
E)Skin temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should the nurse cleanse the meatal-catheter junction of a patient with an indwelling catheter?
A)At least once a day
B)At least twice a day
C)At bedtime
D)Each shift
Q2) What should the water temperature be when preparing a tepid bath for a patient?
A)98.6° F
B)100.2° F
C)104.8° F
D)110.4° F
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient's skin for signs of impaired skin integrity.Which finding by the nurse is considered a major manifestation?
A)Burn
B)Laceration
C)Pressure ulcer
D)Infection
Q4) As a safety precaution against breakage of dentures,the nurse should place __________ in the emesis basin before cleaning the dentures.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A)Vacuum the spill
B)Open interior doors
C)Close all outside windows
D)Open any outside windows
Q2) What type of fire extinguisher should the nurse use when the oxygen concentrator machine malfunctions and causes an electrical fire?
A)Type A
B)Type B
C)Type C
D)Type D
Q3) A disaster situation occurs and involves an explosion in a hospital laundry.What would this be classified as ?
A)Active
B)External
C)Life-threatening
D)Internal
Q4) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2° F,the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.
Q2) A nurse assesses a patient's dorsalis pedis pulse.The pulse is not palpable when light pressure is applied.How should the nurse document this finding?
A)Weak pulse
B)Normal pulse
C)Thready pulse
D)Bounding pulse
Q3) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86,noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
Q4) The emergency department nurse quickly assesses the temperature of an unconscious patient who has been outside all night in below-freezing temperatures.What temperature is the nurse aware of that can lead to death?
A)95.2° F
B)93.0° F
C)93.2° F
D)90.8° F
Q5) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign,which is______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which there is a lack of appetite resulting in the inability to eat is known as _______________.
Q2) A circulatory condition in which the myocardium contracts steadily but at a rate of less than 60 contractions per minute is known as _________________.
Q3) The nurse is discussing the origin of diabetes with a diabetic patient.What will the nurse discuss as the most appropriate explanation for the cause of this disease?
A)Pituitary
B)Adrenals
C)Pancreas
D)Thyroid
Q4) When assessing a patient,the nurse notes a yellow tinge to the patient's skin.How should the nurse document this finding?
A)Dyspnea
B)Cyanosis
C)Jaundice
D)Ecchymosis
Q5) Symptoms that are perceived by the patient are known as _____________ ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse completes thorough documentation before,during,and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
Q2) How can the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity to a Haitian American patient?
A)By providing a well-lit room 24 hours a day
B)By writing out all instructions given to the patient
C)By allowing the patient to keep leaves in her room
D)By asking the physician to provide all directions to the patient
Q3) Before the actual discharge occurs,what must the nurse ensure ?
A)The patient is well enough to go home.
B)The patient has not been overly medicated.
C)The patient understands the discharge instructions.
D)The patient has adequate transportation.
Q4) When a patient demands to be discharged without a physician's order and is leaving the unit with his belongings,what should the nurse ask the patient to sign?
A)A form exercising the patient's rights
B)A discharge against medical advice form
C)An informed consent
D)An advanced directive
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6593
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is removing every other staple from a surgical wound,which has been closed with 15 staples.The wound begins to separate after removal of 3 of the 15.What nursing action should be implemented?
A)Remove 7 more alternate staples and securely tape with Steri-Strips
B)Cover with moist dressing and apply a binder
C)Continue to remove staples as ordered because this is an expected outcome
D)Leave the 12 staples in place and record the separation
Q2) The nurse observes a loop of bowel protruding from the surgical incision.What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?
A)Call the RN
B)Cover the bowel with a sterile saline dressing
C)Turn the patient to the side of the evisceration
D)Raise the patient up to a high Fowler position
Q3) What technique will the nurse implement to assist the postoperative patient to cough?
A)Support the patient's back
B)Offer an antitussive
C)Splint the abdomen with a pillow
D)Lean patient against the bedside table
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6594
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is unable to obtain a sputum specimen by coughing and expectorating.What is the best way for the nurse to collect this specimen?
A)Ask the patient to spit
B)Direct the patient to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
C)Perform tracheal suctioning
D)Perform a bronchoscopy
Q2) The process for collecting a blood specimen for measuring blood glucose levels begins by asking the patient to hold the selected arm at his or her side for 30 seconds.From what anatomic location is the specimen obtained?
A)Tip of the finger
B)Cubital fossa
C)Side of the finger
D)Center of the thumb
Q3) When initiating a 24-hour urine collection,the nurse asks the patient to void.The nurse then _______ the specimen.
Q4) Following an intravenous pyelogram,the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye,usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure.
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6595
Sample Questions
Q1) When two nurses perform two-person CPR,there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
Q2) While on break in the hospital cafeteria a nurse witnesses her pregnant co-worker start to choke.The co-worker is conscious,but unable to breathe.Where should the nurse administer thrusts?
A)Below the navel
B)The chest
C)At the xiphoid process
D)The upper back
Q3) When other methods have failed to stop the bleeding and the victim's life is in danger,the rescuer at the scene applies a tourniquet to a young woman's leg above the knee.What is another step that is essential for the rescuer to follow?
A)Never release the tourniquet
B)Wrap the tourniquet around the limb twice
C)Mark the patient with a "T"
D)Leave the limb elevated
Q4) When performing CPR on an infant,the breastbone is depressed approximately ____ to ____ inch(es).
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6596
Sample Questions
Q1) Herbal remedies vary from pharmaceutical remedies in what way(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Herbal remedies use the whole plant.
B)Herbal remedies have no quality control.
C)Herbal remedies have no standard dose.
D)Herbal remedies are sold as food supplements.
E)Herbal remedies are always safe and effective.
Q2) What is true regarding manufacturers of herbal remedy products?
A)They do extensive field testing on the products.
B)They must show dosage equivalents.
C)They must adhere to standards of strength.
D)They do not have to demonstrate their safety.
Q3) Herbs have not been approved for use as drugs.How are herbs allowed to be sold?
A)For pain relief
B)To improve body strength
C)To prolong life
D)As diet supplements
Q4) People with fractures,rheumatoid arthritis,and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is trying to establish an effective relationship with a patient in pain.What is the best statement for the nurse to make when beginning the assessment?
A)"I'll check to see if you can have anything."
B)"Let me give you a backrub and see if it helps."
C)"I believe you are in pain."
D)"When was your last medication for pain?"
Q2) What action should the nurse take when evaluating the effectiveness of new or revised therapies for pain relief?
A)Observe the patient performing activities of daily living
B)Observe the patient's facial expressions
C)Frequently assess subjective data
D)Perform evaluation of outcome goals
Q3) Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
A)The physician has ordered it
B)It is an efficient use of time
C)Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
D)It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
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39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/6598
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking a diuretic is assessed by the nurse as having an erratic pulse and muscle weakness.What should the nurse suspect is deficient?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Chloride
D)Iron
Q2) What eating disorder is characterized by body image distortion,excessive exercise,and vicarious enjoyment of food?
A)Self-fasting
B)Anorexia nervosa
C)Bulimia nervosa
D)Binge eating
Q3) A nurse caring for a patient who is prescribed a full-liquid diet recognizes that this diet lacks some nutrients.What nutrients are lacking?
A)Fat-soluble vitamins
B)Potassium
C)Iron and fiber
D)Water-soluble vitamins
Q4) The body mass index (BMI)of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of an adult's body weight consists of water?
A)10% to 20%
B)30% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)70% to 80%
Q2) The nurse uses a diagram to show that fluids in the interstitial and intravascular compartments are combined.What do they combine to form?
A)Intercellular compartment
B)Circulating compartment
C)Vertical compartment
D)Extracellular compartment
Q3) What should the nurse expect when assessing a patient with respiratory alkalosis?
A)Slow respirations
B)Muscle weakness
C)Strong, even heart rate
D)Flushed face
Q4) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average adult dose of Phenergan is 50 mg.Using the Young rule for a 10-year-old,what is the correct dosage for the child?
A)23 mg
B)25 mg
C)30 mg
D)35 mg
Q2) Atropine 0.4 mg is to be given.Ampule is labeled gr 1/150/mL.What dose should the nurse administer?
A)1.5 mL
B)0.25 mL
C)0.5 mL
D)1 mL
Q3) The nurse who was going off shift had prepared the medications for the nurse who was going to relieve her to save the oncoming nurse time.What would be the correct action of the oncoming nurse?
A)Give the medications when ordered
B)Recheck the medications
C)Never give medications another person has prepared
D)Identify each medication as it is given
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a Foley catheter has been removed, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A)hemorrhage.
B)constipation.
C)urinary retention.
D)bladder spasm.
Q2) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A)95° F
B)110° F
C)115° F
D)120° F
Q3) When a patient complains of progressive hearing loss,crackling and ringing noises in his ear,and progressive ear pain,what should the nurse assess for?
A)A dead battery in the patient's hearing aid
B)Cerumen impaction
C)Sinus congestion
D)A middle ear infection
Q4) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the stage of family development that begins at the birth or adoption of the first child?
A)Expectant stage
B)Parenthood stage
C)Establishment stage
D)Engagement/commitment stage
Q2) A 58-year-old male is concerned about some hearing loss he is experiencing.The nurse recognizes that this might be due to a sensory change of this age group known as which of the following?
A)Presbycusis
B)Otitis externa
C)Presbyopia
D)Otitis media
Q3) A mother asks the nurse when she should introduce solid foods into her infant's diet.What would be the most correct response?
A)Introduce fruits and vegetables first.
B)Mix foods to allow the infant variety.
C)Introduce only one new food at a time.
D)Introduce new foods at 24-hour intervals.
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Q1) How is a durable power of attorney helpful to an incapacitated patient?
A)It directs treatment in accordance with the patient's wishes.
B)It directs an agent to make health care decisions.
C)It gives power to an agent to make decisions regarding health, property, and other assets.
D)It can only be executed by an attorney.
Q2) After a physician in the emergency department has pronounced a 2-year-old dead following a swimming pool accident,the mother tearfully says to the father,"I am so sorry.I am so sorry." What is the mother expressing?
A)Fear
B)Guilt
C)Hostility
D)Grief
Q3) What is the final stage of human growth and development?
A)Integrity
B)Death
C)Despair
D)Resolution
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Q1) A woman who has just discovered she is pregnant states that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 10.What will be her expected date of birth (EDB)?
A)April 10
B)April 17
C)May 10
D)October 17
Q2) Where does implantation of the fertilized ovum usually occur?
A)Lower uterine wall
B)Side of the uterus
C)Fundus of the uterus
D)Body of the uterus
Q3) Which of the following discomforts of a pregnant woman should be reported to the physician at the first occurrence?
A)Leg cramps
B)Pelvic discomfort
C)Vaginal bleeding
D)Urinary frequency
Q4) The nurse assesses a reactive result to a nonstress test when the fetal heart rate increases _____ beats per minute.
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Q1) A nurse is assessing the printout from the fetal monitor.What is the legal responsibility of the nurse?
A)Correctly identifying abnormal FHR patterns and prescribing medication
B)Correctly identifying abnormal FHR patterns and notifying the health care provider
C)The nurse is not legally responsible for fetal monitoring
D)Providing technical assessment to the monitor technicians
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of primigravidas that during delivery,pressure on the fetal skull may produce changes in the shape of the skull.What is the reshaping of the skull called?
A)Pressure response
B)Overlapping
C)Molding
D)Spacing
Q3) A mother has entered the second stage of labor.When does the second stage of labor end?
A)When the mother begins to push
B)When the baby's head crowns
C)With delivery of the baby
D)With delivery of the placenta
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a newborn who was circumcised earlier in the day.What should be included in the plan of care?
A)Administration of a topical anesthetic to the site
B)Application of ice to stop bleeding
C)Retraction of any remaining foreskin
D)Observation for bleeding for the first 12 hours
Q2) Within the first hour following a vaginal delivery,the nurse assesses the mother and finds the fundus is firm and there is a trickle of bright red blood.What should be the nurse's reaction to the assessment?
A)This is a normal occurrence.
B)This is abnormal and should be reported.
C)The patient should be administered a blood thinner.
D)The patient should be restricted to bed rest.
Q3) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
Q4) After delivery of a 9-lb baby,the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum.The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the gestational age of the infant be determined?
A)Within 5 to 10 minutes of delivery
B)Within 1 to 2 hours of delivery
C)Within 2 to 8 hours of delivery
D)Within 12 to 24 hours of delivery
Q2) The nurse is assessing a "kick count" for a patient with gestational hypertension.What result should be a cause for concern?
A)Less than three kicks per hour
B)Less than five kicks per hour
C)Less than seven kicks per hour
D)Less than nine kicks per hour
Q3) A patient presents with symptoms of abruptio placentae.To facilitate uterine-placental perfusion,in what position would the nurse place the patient?
A)Prone position
B)Trendelenburg position
C)Supine position
D)Modified side-lying position
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child,where should medications be placed in the home?
A)In a dresser drawer
B)In the medicine cabinet
C)In a locked cupboard
D)On a high shelf
Q2) Which are physical risks associated with excess weight? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poor eyesight
B)Heart disease
C)Arthritis
D)Stroke
E)Appendicitis
Q3) Which of the following interventions should be included when teaching a healthy behaviors class for parents of adolescents? (Select all that apply.)
A)Always monitor the child's telephone conversations
B)Insist on seatbelt use at all times
C)Encourage tanning bed use versus exposure to the sun
D)Maintain recommended immunization schedule
E)Encourage good dental care
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Q1) What should the nurse do to minimize an unpleasant-tasting drug?
A)Pour the drug over ice
B)Squirt the drug in the mouth with a syringe
C)Administer the drug through a straw
D)Enlist the parent's assistance
Q2) What is the best time to bathe an infant?
A)At bedtime
B)Early in the morning
C)After a feeding
D)Before a feeding
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the family-centered care approach terminates which policies? (Select all that apply.)
A)Rigid visiting hours
B)Freedom to choose which medications to take
C)Exclusion of family during procedures
D)Discouraging family to stay overnight
E)Restricting parents from reading the chart
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Q1) When performing an assessment of a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP),the nurse recognizes the child will most likely experience what symptom?
A)Increased temperature
B)Constipation
C)Right quadrant pain
D)Exercise-associated pain
Q2) A newborn has talipes and is wearing casts.How often should the casts be changed?
A)Daily
B)Weekly
C)Bi-weekly
D)Monthly
Q3) The nurse reassures the anxious mother of a child with pyloric stenosis who is to have surgery that the surgical procedure,called a __________,is quickly done and the child recovers almost immediately.
Q4) The nurse anticipates that the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)taken from a child with bacterial meningitis would have a low __________ level.
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Q1) A change of aging related to the circulatory system includes decreased blood vessel elasticity.For what should the nurse assess?
A)Confusion
B)Tachycardia
C)Hypertension
D)Retained secretions
Q2) The nurse recognizes that an older adult patient with COPD has a higher incidence of developing which age-related skeletal change that will alter the ability to exchange air effectively?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Arthritis
C)Kyphosis
D)Osteomyelitis
Q3) What is a major difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?
A)Rheumatoid arthritis is degenerative.
B)Rheumatoid arthritis only affects patients over 40 years of age.
C)Rheumatoid arthritis is inflammatory.
D)Rheumatoid arthritis is curable.
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Q1) What action consistently done by a patient should indicate to a nurse that the patient has a poor self-concept?
A)Wears bright-colored clothing
B)Demands the attention of staff
C)Apologizes to others repeatedly
D)Becomes angry when frustrated
Q2) Why is it important for the nurse to be observant of patient behavior?
A)Behavior is preformed
B)Behavior is important
C)Behavior is learned
D)Behavior is repeated
Q3) The majority of people function in a relatively healthy manner.What can diminish their functional capacity?
A)Lack of a support system
B)Periods of crisis
C)Nutritional deficits
D)A physical disease process
Q4) In the movie Gone with the Wind,Scarlett O'Hara says,"I'll think about that tomorrow.Tomorrow is another day." The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that researchers have identified that hereditary factors account for what percentage of mood disorders?
A)10% to 15%
B)20% to 30%
C)35% to 50%
D)60% to 80%
Q2) What is the term used for the beginning stage of schizophrenia,characterized by a lack of energy and complaints of multiple physical problems?
A)Prepsychotic
B)Residual
C)Acute
D)Prodromal
Q3) The patient talks with his dead brother and arranges furniture so that his brother will have a place to sit.How should the nurse document this behavior?
A)Disordered thinking
B)Anhedonia
C)Hallucination
D)Alogia
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Q1) A college student has brought his hallucinating roommate to the college clinic.The young man says his roommate has been experimenting with phencyclidine (PCP).How long should the nurse expect the hallucinations to last?
A)30 to 60 minutes
B)1 to 4 hours
C)4 to 6 hours
D)6 to 12 hours
Q2) When a patient denies any problems related to addiction,what is the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A)"What do you call this hospitalization?"
B)"How can anybody help you if you don't see a problem?"
C)"Would your family agree that you have no problems?"
D)"Can you think of any time your behavior created an unpleasant situation in your life?"
Q3) What must a patient in the late stages of dependence do in order to recover?
A)Gain insight into the addiction
B)Receive treatment for substance abuse
C)Pledge to lead a completely different lifestyle
D)Seek a nondrug-oriented support system
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Q1) When the decision is made with the family to place the patient on hospice care,the home health nurse explains that the reimbursement changes from "fee per visit" to "fee per _________."
Q2) Nurses who work in home settings rather than a hospital setting require a different level of ability to be technically proficient,self-motivated,and innovative.This requires a higher level of what quality?
A)Knowledge
B)Performance
C)Independence
D)Cooperation
Q3) What has been influenced by the increase in home health providers supporting healthy living and illness prevention,and a movement toward deinstitutionalization of technology-dependent children and adults?
A)Criteria for admission
B)Age of eligibility
C)Reimbursement criteria
D)Length of financial support
Q4) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
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Q1) The LPN/LVN suggests to the RN that the nursing care plan be modified to include referral to an adult day care center.What benefits should the client expect to receive?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Overnight care
B)Respite care for the family
C)Social interaction for the patient
D)Mental stimulation for the patient
E)Supporting maintenance of the ADLs
Q2) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A)Skilled nursing care
B)Personal care services
C)Weekly visits by the staff physician
D)Intensive rehabilitation services
Q3) What is included when the LVN/LPN completes the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
A)Minimum Data Set (MDS) and the signature of the physician
B)Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs) and the drug list
C)Minimum Data Set, Resident Assessment Protocols, and the RN's signature
D)Resident Assessment Protocols and the signature of the administrator
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Q1) The nurse takes special care to be gentle in caring for patients with spinal cord injuries to avoid stimulating the autonomic nervous system and triggering which condition?
A)Paresis
B)Heterotopic ossification
C)Postural hypotension
D)Autonomic dysreflexia
Q2) What should the nurse do to decrease the potential for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)in a patient who is a paraplegic from a spinal cord injury?
A)Massage the patient's legs daily
B)Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
C)Encourage frequent warm baths
D)Allow the patient's legs to dangle for a period of 10 minutes several times a day
Q3) What is the best way to define a handicap?
A)Any loss of function
B)A disability that interferes with one's normal functioning
C)Any loss of ability to perform activities of daily living
D)An irreversible lifelong impairment
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Q1) The nurse warns that nausea is a common side effect with opioid treatment.What is the best treatment for nausea caused by opioids?
A)Antiemetics
B)Ice chips
C)Dry crackers
D)Ginger ale
Q2) The patient informs the hospice nurse,"I'm not sold on this hospice thing.I'm not looking for Jesus,I'm just dying." What would be the most therapeutic response by the nurse?
A)"Spiritualism is as you define it."
B)"Rejecting the spiritual aspect of yourself may not be in your best interest."
C)"Hospice service is about how to make your remaining time meaningful."
D)"Based on what you say, hospice service may not answer your needs."
Q3) What is the most common problem of the terminally ill patient that is caused by narcotics?
A)Malnutrition
B)Constipation
C)Fluid retention
D)Dehydration
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Q1) What is the physical,emotional,and spiritual exhaustion that can occur among caregivers?
A)Excessiveness
B)Burnout
C)Fatigue
D)Weariness
Q2) In what setting can the LPN/LVN's management and leadership skills be developed best?
A)Acute care hospital
B)Rehabilitation hospital
C)Trauma center
D)Long-term care facility
Q3) After transcribing each order in a list of orders,the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
Q4) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n)________________.
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