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Nursing Theory and Practice Exam Preparation Guide - 2346 Verified Questions

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Nursing Theory and Practice Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Nursing Theory and Practice explores the foundational concepts, models, and theories that guide professional nursing practice, emphasizing the integration of theoretical knowledge with practical skills. Students examine the evolution of nursing theories, their application in diverse healthcare settings, and their role in enhancing patient care and outcomes. Through case studies, simulations, and clinical experiences, learners develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based decision-making skills. The course fosters an understanding of ethical and cultural considerations, interdisciplinary collaboration, and the importance of compassionate, patient-centered care in promoting health and well-being.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White

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61 Chapters

2346 Verified Questions

2346 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success

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Sample Questions

Q1) A disciplined intellectual process of applying skillful reasoning,imposing intellectual standards,and self-reflective thinking as a guide to belief or action is known as:

A)problem solving

B)metacognition

C)critical thinking

D)learning style

Answer: C

Q2) Which of these terms BEST describes a barrier to effective use of time caused by setting unrealistic goals?

A)delegation

B)perfectionism

C)learning disability

D)procrastination

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Holistic Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client has the ability to function as an independent person capable of making sound decisions,the client is demonstrating which level of wellness?

A)intellectual

B)psychological

C)sociocultural

D)spiritual

Answer: A

Q2) One of the most important roles of the nurse is provide nursing of the person as a whole.This is accomplished by assisting clients to:

A)view themselves and their health care as more than physical health

B)focus on overcoming poor health habits such as overeating

C)recognize their limitations in self-care

D)practice moderation in use of alcohol

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Goldmark Report identified which of the following as the major weakness of hospital-based nursing training programs?

A)failure to correlate theory with clinical practice

B)inadequate clinical facilities

C)limited number of clients consenting to student nursing care

D)putting the needs of the institution before the needs of the student

Answer: D

Q2) Which nursing advocate worked to encourage respect for cultural diversity and was America's first African American professional nurse?

A)Lavinia Dock

B)Mary Mahoney

C)Adelaide Nutting

D)Linda Richards

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are considered to be the client's rights in the health care setting? (Select all that apply. )

A)to review their medical records as desired

B)to decline any treatment or care

C)to be treated with respect and dignity

D)to be required to have advanced directives

E)to be treated upon arrival

F)to be included in the decision-making process

Q2) The administrators and staff of a health care facility determine that it will become "smoke free" in 2 weeks;if smokers among the staff wish to smoke,they must go to a designated area.This is an example of:

A)beneficence

B)client advocacy

C)nonmaleficence

D)utility

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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client participates in a prepaid health plan that provides primary health care services for a preset fee and that focuses on cost-effective treatment measures,this is considered to be:

A)an exclusive provider organization

B)a health maintenance organization

C)an independent practice

D)a preferred provider organization

Q2) Promotion of wellness and prevention of illness is the focus of which level of care?

A)managed

B)primary

C)subacute

D)tertiary

Q3) What term describes the entry into the health care system that occurs through a point designated by the health maintenance organization plan?

A)exclusive provider

B)preferred provider

C)primary health care plan

D)single point of entry

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7

Chapter 6: Arenas of Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rehabilitation nurse must have outstanding intervention skills in areas such as ambulation,transfers,and:

A)occupational retraining for job skills

B)therapeutic positioning

C)treating contractures

D)pain management

Q2) Criteria for admission to a rehabilitation program usually requires that the client be medically stable and able to:

A)pay for the services

B)learn

C)sit supported for 4 hours a day

D)have bowel and bladder control

Q3) When a specified state agency annually sends a team of surveyors to visit facilities and determine if they are in compliance with the rules and regulations of the state,the process is called:

A)accreditation

B)approval

C)certification

D)licensure

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Chapter 7: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these factors determines the amount of time spent in any of the three phases of nurse-client interaction?

A)purpose of the interaction

B)length of client appointment or hospitalization

C)skill and experience of nurse

D)presence of client's family members

Q2) Which of these approaches is MOST important when a nurse is explaining a procedure to an elderly client?

A)addressing the client as "Mr. ," "Mrs. ," or "Miss," unless he or she asks to be called by another name

B)discussing the procedure using abstract concepts to show respect for the client's higher education

C)removing any personal articles and turning off the TV,as these may be distracting

D)sitting as close as possible,on the bed if necessary,to facilitate an intimate,caring relationship

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Chapter 8: Client Teaching

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Sample Questions

Q1) The student nurse recognizes that according to the nurse practice acts of most states,nurses are required to perform which of these functions?

A)assist physicians

B)communicate with clients and peers

C)place intravenous lines

D)teach clients

Q2) A client verbalizes recognition that diabetes is a lifelong condition,but states she will continue to enjoy life.The nurse recognizes that this represents an example of which learning domain?

A)affective

B)cognitive

C)reflective

D)psychomotor

Q3) Which of these phrases BEST describes learning?

A)absorbing facts and concepts

B)sharing information with others

C)behavior change resulting from assimilation of information

D)acquisition of knowledge

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10

Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these nursing documentation methods take an unstructured approach to documenting on the client record and often present disorganized client information?

A)charting by exception and critical pathways

B)computerized documentation and point-of-care charting

C)narrative and source-oriented charting

D)SOAP (-IE,-IER)and PIE charting

Q2) A client who had hip replacement surgery yesterday has a nursing diagnosis Pain related to hip replacement surgery.Which of these would represent a long-term goal for this client?

A)"Client will verbalize relief of pain by the third postoperative day."

B)"Client will be pain-free by discharge."

C)"Client will request pain medication less frequently by the second postoperative day."

D)"Client will express desire to use alternative methods of pain relief as soon as possible."

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Chapter 10: Life Span Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these statements represents an established principle of growth and development?

A)Rate of growth and development is consistent throughout the life cycle.

B)Growth and development is often a haphazard process.

C)Certain stages of growth and development are more critical than others.

D)Characteristics of developmental stages are not fully established.

Q2) During the toddler stage,it is important to remember that behavior such as temper tantrums and frequent use of the word no are expressions of the child's:

A)bad behavior resulting from lack of consistent discipline

B)developing autonomy

C)fear and anxiety

D)mirroring behaviors witnessed in others

Q3) Factors that may influence an individual's growth and development include cultural expectations,health status,and:

A)adaptation

B)parental age

C)number of siblings

D)life experiences

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12

Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse should recognize the relevance of which of these factors when antihypertensive medication is prescribed for an African American client?

A)A higher dose must be given to produce the same effect as in European Americans.

B)The drug may need to be administered more frequently due to increased metabolism.

C)Lukewarm tap water is preferred when taking medications.

D)The drug may be refused because of belief that God will heal through prayer and faith.

Q2) A nurse must request an interpreter to provide important information to a client.Which of these nursing diagnoses for the client would be MOST appropriate in this situation?

A)Anxiety

B)Communication,verbal,impaired

C)Health maintenance,altered

D)Social interaction,impaired

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13

Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate in assisting a client deal with stress? (Select all that apply. )

A)teach relaxation exercises

B)plan care for client

C)minimize environmental stimuli

D)encourage verbalization of feelings

E)encourage increase in workload

F)establish a trusting relationship

Q2) A client has a nonspecific response to a situation,which places an added demand on the body.This is BEST described as:

A)anxiety

B)crisis

C)distress

D)stress

Q3) Which of the following are examples of maladaptive measures?

A)excessive eating

B)goal development

C)future-oriented planning

D)daydreaming

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death

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Sample Questions

Q1) When an individual continues to experience grief despite the fact that others feel the loss was insignificant,the grief is considered to be:

A)chronic

B)delayed

C)exaggerated

D)masked

Q2) When a client provides written instruction of their personal choices related to health care that is recognized under state law,the nurse recognizes that this is considered:

A)an advance directive

B)a health care provider's order

C)a durable power of attorney for health care

D)a living will

Q3) A client recently and unexpectedly lost a spouse.The period of time following this type of loss is commonly referred to as:

A)bereavement

B)externalization

C)maturation

D)mourning

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15

Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client verbalizes concern for hospitalization because he doesn't believe there are any health issues.The nurse explains to the client that health is:

A)a state of optimal wellness where the individual moves toward integration of human functioning

B)a state of complete physical,mental,and social well-being

C)promotion of wellness,including disease prevention

D)the absence of illness or disease

Q2) Which of the following statements about spiritual wellness is TRUE?

A)People who regularly attend religious services live no longer than those who do not.

B)The spiritually happy person has optimism,faith,and high self-esteem.

C)The spiritually well person associates primarily with like-minded persons.

D)Spiritual wellness can overcome deficits in other areas of wellness.

Q3) Prevention can BEST be defined as:

A)curing a disease or illness

B)promoting individual health

C)hindering,obstructing,or thwarting a disease or illness

D)maintaining current health status

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Self-Concept

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two factors that assist in the development of a healthy self-concept in adolescents are:

A)parental involvement and sense of self

B)parental involvement and support

C)parental involvement and individualism

D)parental involvement and friends

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a nursing intervention to promote a client's positive self-concept?

A)Listen to the client's self description.

B)Maintain realistic goals.

C)Refrain for taking risks.

D)Involve client in decision making.

Q3) The characteristics of a client with a positive self-concept include all of the following EXCEPT:

A)setting obtainable goals

B)self-confidence

C)willingness to take risks

D)being defensive with criticism

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17

Chapter 16: Spirituality

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Stoll's guidelines for spiritual assessment,the MOST appropriate question asked by the nurse would be:

A)"What is your source of strength?"

B)"Do you pray?"

C)"Do you attend religious services?"

D)"Does your family have the same beliefs?"

Q2) Providing spiritual care to a client requires the nurse to have a comfort level with this type of care and:

A)the use of touch

B)conscientious thought and personal reflection

C)knowledge of religions

D)prior spiritual experiences

Q3) When caring for a client's spiritual needs,the nurse faces challenges such as different values,beliefs,and:

A)dislike of different foods

B)different languages

C)different health care practices

D)different choices

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18

Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amino acids that are produced in the brain and other body sites and act as chemical communicators are called:

A)antioxidants

B)neuropeptides

C)neurotransmitters

D)phytochemicals

Q2) The client is using a measurement of physiologic responses to learn to manipulate the autonomic nervous system through mental activity.This is an example of:

A)biofeedback

B)imagery

C)meditation

D)relaxation

Q3) Folk healer-priests who have the power to heal by working with spirits to encourage their full return to an individual.These guardian of the spirits are known as:

A)Ayurvedic healers

B)medicine men

C)root doctors

D)shamans

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19

Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are major minerals required by the body? (Select all that apply. )

A)vitamin B12

B)sodium

C)magnesium

D)potassium

E)iodine

F)calcium

Q2) Which of these foods contains monounsaturated fatty acids?

A)nuts

B)eggs

C)corn

D)potatoes

Q3) When the secretion of insulin is impaired or absent,which of these responses occurs?

A)euglycemia

B)glycogenolysis

C)hyperglycemia

D)hypoglycemia

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Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who has periods of nonbreathing following a period of loud snoring is experiencing which of these sleep disorders?

A)hypersomnia

B)narcolepsy

C)parasomnia

D)sleep apnea

Q2) Somnambulism and bruxism are the MOST common manifestations of which sleep disorder?

A)hypersomnia

B)narcolepsy

C)parasomnia

D)periodic limb movement disorder

Q3) When a person's sleep cycle is broken,which of the following occurs?

A)A new sleep cycle starts with non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep.

B)A new sleep cycle starts with rapid eye movement (REM)sleep.

C)The new sleep cycle involves more vivid dreaming.

D)The new sleep cycle is more restorative than the one that was interrupted.

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21

Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these nursing activities can protect the nurse from radiation exposure?

A)washing hands before applying gloves

B)wearing fluid-repellant cover gowns

C)covering the client with a lead apron

D)reducing the amount of time spent in client contact

Q2) An 82-year-old client who is recovering from a fractured pelvis requires a walker to move about the room.The client is also frequently disoriented,and the family has expressed displeasure that restraints are applied when the client is put to bed at night.Which of these responses by the nurse would be MOST therapeutic?

A)"Do you want the client to fall again?"

B)"Restraints are a temporary measure to be used while the client heals."

C)"Restraints are necessary to prevent the client from harm."

D)"I can make arrangements for a family member to stay in the room with the client."

Q3) Which of the following would pose a safety hazard in a hospital environment?

A)Side rails are raised for clients of all ages.

B)An incontinent client has urinated on the floor.

C)A dietary tray is left on a bedside table.

D)The door to a client bathroom is open.

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Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) To prevent the transmission of microorganisms,nurses must do which of the following?

A)Break the chain of infection.

B)Discourage client contact with susceptible individuals.

C)Identify colonized individuals.

D)Recognize modes of transmission.

Q2) Microorganisms that cause influenza,chickenpox,and hepatitis B are:

A)bacteria

B)fungi

C)protozoa

D)viruses

Q3) During which stage of the infectious process does a client with chickenpox see the first skin eruptions of the disease?

A)convalescent

B)illness

C)incubation

D)prodromal

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Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client is admitted to a health care facility,the client will automatically be placed on which type of isolation precautions?

A)airborne

B)contact

C)none

D)standard

Q2) A nurse observes a certified nursing assistant (CNA)wearing one pair of gloves when taking vital signs on all assigned clients.What action should the nurse take immediately?

A)Ask the CNA to explain the rationale for this in a private conference.

B)Ignore the behavior because the CNA is following agency procedure.

C)Report the CNA to the charge nurse.

D)Teach the CNA the correct procedure,stressing the rationale.

Q3) A client with pneumonia has a repeat chest X-ray in the radiology department.The nurse places which of the following on the client for transport?

A)a face shield

B)a surgical mask

C)an N-95 respirator

D)gloves and a gown

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24

Chapter 23: Bioterrorism

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Q1) Which priority actions would the first responder take when suspecting a victim has had exposure to ricin? (Place in order,starting with the highest priority. )

____ remove from exposed area or get outside

____ seek medical attention

____ do not remove clothing over head,cut off and double bag

____ wash the entire body with large amounts of soap and lukewarm water

____ remove contacts or glasses and rinse eyes

Q2) One function of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)is:

A)manage chemical agents for military agencies

B)manage the Strategic National Stockpile

C)manage the National Emergency Stockpile

D)manage the Emergency Relief Program

Q3) The three factors that determine the amount of poisoning caused by exposure to sarin are:

A)the amount of sarin,the amount of time,the type of sarin used

B)the amount of sarin,the route of exposure,and the time exposed

C)the amount of time,the route of exposure,and the type of sarin used

D)the amount of time,the type of sarin used,and the time exposed

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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these organs plays the major role in maintaining the body's fluid and electrolyte balance?

A)kidneys

B)colon

C)lungs

D)skin

Q2) The movement of substances across cell membranes using chemical energy and carrier molecules is called:

A)active transport

B)diffusion

C)filtration

D)osmosis

Q3) Decreased magnesium levels can be associated with which of the following?

A)chronic alcoholism

B)renal failure

C)Addison's disease

D)uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

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26

Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who has difficulty swallowing a large tablet of a prescribed drug.What action should the nurse take FIRST?

A)Crush the tablet before administration.

B)Administer the liquid form of the drug.

C)Administer the parenteral form of the drug.

D)Consult with the client's health care provider.

Q2) Which route of drug administration provides immediate bioavailability?

A)intravenous

B)oral

C)rectal

D)topical

Q3) A nurse has prepared the 9:00 A.M.client medications for administration but is called off the unit briefly.Who can distribute these medications to clients?

A)any licensed nurse (LP/VN or RN)assigned to the unit

B)a pharmacy technician

C)the nurse who prepared them

D)the head nurse

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Chapter 26: Assessment

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Sample

Questions

Q1) A client complains of numbness,tingling,and coldness of the left leg.The nurse observes that the skin appears pale and is cool to touch.What assessment should be obtained next?

A)Ask the client when symptoms were noted and during what type of activity.

B)Notify health care provider of the findings immediately.

C)Obtain a detailed nursing health history while conducting the initial comprehensive physical examination.

D)Palpate and record the femoral,popliteal,posterior tibial,and dorsalis pedis pulses.

Q2) A nurse observes a client's lips and nail beds are cyanotic,which means that there is:

A)pale skin coloration

B)buildup of bile pigment in the skin

C)decreased oxygen supply to the area

D)increased redness to the skin

Q3) Convert between Fahrenheit and Celsius temperatures.

36.5 degrees Celsius

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Chapter 27: Pain Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who is the MOST consistent health team member involved in client pain management?

A)anesthesiologist

B)nurse

C)pharmacist

D)physician

Q2) Which of these statements about chronic pain is TRUE?

A)It is accompanied by elevated heart rate,respiratory rate,and blood pressure.

B)It occurs for at least 6 months.

C)It is usually described as sharp but is difficult to pinpoint.

D)Its signs and symptoms are often similar to depression.

Q3) Which route of pain medication administration provides the MOST rapid onset of pain relief?

A)intramuscular

B)intravenous

C)oral

D)transdermal

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29

Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has just completed a respiratory aerosol treatment.When should a prescribed arterial blood gas specimen be obtained?

A)immediately

B)30 minutes after completion of administration

C)prior to the administration of such a treatment

D)15 minutes after completion of administration

Q2) Which of these tests locates a tumor marker present in ovarian cancer?

A)alpha-fetoprotein

B)CA 125

C)HCG

D)PSA

Q3) A client suspected of having an acute myocardial infarction (MI)has cardiac enzymes drawn about 5 hours after symptoms presented.Which of these values would confirm the client had an MI?

A)elevated CPK

B)elevated CK-BB

C)elevated LDH 5

D)LDH,less than LDH 2

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Chapter 29: Basic Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a nurse is providing perineal care to a client,regardless of gender,it is essential that the nurse do which of the following?

A)Use plenty of soap and water to cleanse the area.

B)Apply a barrier ointment to the area.

C)Place the client at ease with a professional approach.

D)Wear two pairs of gloves during the procedure.

Q2) When a nurse is teaching assistive personnel to perform routine catheter care,they should be instructed to do which of the following?

A)Wear sterile gloves for the procedure.

B)Cleanse the catheter from the end toward the meatus.

C)Repeat catheter care at least three times per shift.

D)Perform perineal care before cleansing the meatus.

Q3) When a male client is unable to shave himself,the nurse should prepare to shave the client by first:

A)applying shaving cream

B)placing a warm,wet washcloth over the face

C)using short,firm strokes to begin

D)pulling the skin taut

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Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) To insert a rectal suppository in an adult client,the nurse should position the client in the Sims' left position and insert the suppository:

A)into the anal canal

B)past the internal sphincter and against the rectal wall

C)approximately 8 inches

D)until the client experiences the urge to defecate

Q2) When a nurse is replacing a client's tracheostomy ties,which of these steps is correct?

A)Hold the neck plate firmly with one hand while untying and removing soiled tapes.

B)Remove soiled tapes,cleanse the neck plate,and replace with clean tapes.

C)Suction the tracheostomy,perform tracheostomy cleaning,cut the soiled tapes,and replace with clean tapes.

D)Sedate the client,remove soiled tapes,perform tracheostomy cleaning,and apply clean tapes.

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Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44563

Sample Questions

Q1) After a client's nasogastric (NG)tube is inserted,what is the BEST way for the nurse to confirm the tube is correctly placed?

A)Inject air and auscultate for a "whoosh."

B)Aspirate for gastric contents and measure pH.

C)Ask the client if the tube can be felt in the stomach.

D)Ask the health care provider to check the placement.

Q2) A client is to receive 3,000 mL of 5% dextrose in normal saline over a 24-hour period.The infusion set delivers 15 drops per mL.What is the flow rate in drops per minute?

A)15

B)31

C)45

D)62

Q3) Which of these steps describes the correct way for a nurse to cleanse the site selected for a client's venipuncture?

A)Cleanse the site back and forth using a povidone-iodine swab.

B)Use a crisscross motion at the site and extending 4 inches beyond.

C)Cleanse the site back and forth using an alcohol pad.

D)Use a circular motion at the site and extending 2 inches beyond.

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Chapter 32: Anesthesia

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44564

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is receiving postsurgical analgesia via epidural block.It is essential that the nurse monitor the client for which of these side effects?

A)bladder distention

B)headache

C)pressure necrosis

D)respiratory depression

Q2) Before surgery the nurse would do which of the following?

A)Administer preoperative medications as ordered.

B)Document what the client ate for dinner the night before.

C)Give the client water up until the time of surgery.

D)See that the client's family is available.

Q3) A client's preanesthetic preparation for surgery in which general anesthesia will be administered includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )

A)being admitted to the hospital the day prior to the surgery

B)withholding of food and fluids for at least 8 hours before the procedure

C)signing a form indicating informed consent for administration of anesthesia

D)taking regularly scheduled medications on the day of surgery with a minimal amount of water

E)limiting visitors to reduce stress and anxiety prior to surgery

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Surgery

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before beginning to implement preoperative medical orders for a surgical client,it is MOST important that the nurse:

A)ask the visitors to leave the client's room

B)be sure that the surgical consent form has been signed

C)complete the preoperative checklist

D)verify the identity of the client verbally and by viewing the name band

Q2) A client who is 24 hours postoperative has an oral temperature of 101.8 degrees Fahrenheit.Which of these actions is indicated FIRST?

A)administering antipyretics as ordered

B)lowering the room temperature and providing cool washcloths

C)notifying the surgeon

D)providing light covers and clothing

Q3) Which of these postoperative complications is MORE likely to occur in older adult clients?

A)deep vein thrombosis

B)dehydration

C)pneumonia

D)unpredictable responses to medications and anesthetics

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Chapter 34: Oncology

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64 Verified Questions

64 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44566

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with cancer who has developed a low white blood cell count and is placed on neutropenic precautions.Which of the following menu selections would be the BEST selection for this client?

A)meatloaf

B)apple

C)salad with tomatoes

D)gelatin

E)medium-well hamburger

F)strawberries

G)mashed potatoes

H)Baked potato

Q2) While caring for a client,the client asks the nurse,"What is the primary cause of lung cancer?" The MOST appropriate response for the nurse to provide is:

A)"Cigarette smoking."

B)"Environmental hazards such as asbestos exposure."

C)"Familial predisposition."

D)"Metastasis of other primary cancers to the lung."

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Chapter 35: Respiratory System

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74 Verified Questions

74 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44567

Sample Questions

Q1) Exchange of gases at the cellular level between tissue cells and blood is an example of:

A)diffusion

B)internal respiration

C)osmosis

D)perfusion

Q2) Which of these factors can cause a closed pneumothorax?

A)mechanical ventilation

B)gunshot wound

C)blunt trauma

D)emphysema

Q3) Which of the following measures should the nurse take when caring for the hospitalized client with TB?

A)Double-bag and dispose of client secretions as infectious waste.

B)Wear gown,gloves,goggles,head cover,particulate respiratory mask,and shoe covers when entering the client's room.

C)Instruct the client to wear a surgical mask at all times.

D)Select reusable care items and keep them in the client's room.

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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cardioversion should be done during which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)wave?

A)P wave

B)R wave

C)ST segment

D)T wave

Q2) The nurse notes a client's neck veins are distended when sitting upright.This finding is indicative of which of these conditions?

A)ascites

B)decreased renal output

C)pulmonary hypertension

D)right-sided heart failure

Q3) Which of the following statements about Buerger's disease is TRUE?

A)It affects women between 20 and 40 years old of Asian descent.

B)It can be cured by large doses of corticosteroids given early in the disease process.

C)It is an inflammatory disease of small and medium blood vessels,leading to vascular obstruction.

D)It is closely associated with thrombophlebitis.

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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44569

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to the client that red blood cells (RBCs)assist the respiratory and circulatory systems to:

A)destroy dead and injured cells and bacteria

B)disperse surfactants within lung tissue

C)fight infection and assist with immunity

D)provide oxygen to body tissues

Q2) Persons with which type of blood are considered universal donors?

A)A

B)B

C)AB

D)O

Q3) A client is diagnosed with a rare lymphoma that reveals Reed-Sternberg cells.The nurse notes a painless swelling in a lymph node and suspects this client's condition is:

A)acute myelocytic leukemia

B)chronic lymphocytic leukemia

C)Hodgkin's lymphoma

D)non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44570

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these statements about the treatment of cholelithiasis is TRUE?

A)Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the surgery of choice.

B)Abdominal cholecystectomy is the surgery of choice.

C)Analgesics and antiemetics will control the disease.

D)Activity is encouraged before and after surgery.

Q2) A client develops stomatitis as a complication of cancer chemotherapy.Which of these approaches should be included in the client's nursing care?

A)oral care q.d.

B)high-calorie liquid diet

C)diet as tolerated

D)intravenous (IV)morphine

Q3) When caring for a client who is obese,which of the following are risk factors for increased complications? (Select all that apply. )

A)immobility

B)skin breakdown

C)hypocoagulopathy

D)increased dietary needs

E)difficulty breathing

F)safety

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Urinary System

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44571

Sample Questions

Q1) A client who has cystitis complains of extreme dysuria,and Pyridium has been prescribed.Which of these aspects should the nurse include in client teaching?

A)"Drink at least 3 liters of water and 3 liters of cranberry juice per day."

B)"Reduce the amount of whole grains and meats in your diet."

C)"Expect your urine to appear more concentrated."

D)"This medicine turns your urine red-orange and can stain clothes and toilets."

Q2) A client is to be treated for suspected cystitis.Which of these orders should the nurse implement first?

A)Administer urinary antimicrobial medication.

B)Administer urinary tract analgesics.

C)Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (C&S).

D)Start an IV fluid at 100 mL/h.

Q3) A client with urinary retention may be treated by all of the following methods.Which method is preferred when the client is in acute distress?

A)antispasmodics

B)surgery

C)urinary analgesics

D)urinary catheterization

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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44572

Sample Questions

Q1) Client education for crutch walking for the client with a full left leg cast includes which of the following?

A)The tripod position is the basic stance.

B)Place crutch tips 12 to 15 inches in front of and lateral to the client's foot.

C)Change crutch tips frequently.

D)Place weight equally on the axilla pieces when moving the affected leg.

Q2) The health care provider orders a window to be cut over the abdomen of a client in a hip spica cast for which of these purposes?

A)to dress a wound

B)to observe the skin

C)to relieve pressure from abdominal distention

D)to take a pulse

Q3) In comparison to other types of fractures,a client who has sustained a compound fracture stands a greater chance of developing which complication?

A)compartment syndrome

B)fat embolism

C)infection

D)nonunion

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Chapter 41: Neurological System

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)has a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective breathing patterns related to weakness of respiratory muscles and fatigue.Which goal is appropriate for this diagnosis?

A)Client will experience less fatigue.

B)Client will maintain highest functional ability within limitations of the disease.

C)Client will maintain adequate PaO levels.

D)Client will swallow with minimal choking and coughing,and no aspiration.

Q2) What is the primary method of controlling seizures?

A)electric shock therapy

B)pharmacological therapy

C)no primary method

D)surgical intervention

Q3) Which neurological movement disorder has prominent behavioral manifestations,including motor tics,repetitive involuntary vocalizations,and copropraxia?

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Guillain-Barré syndrome

C)Huntington's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

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43

Chapter 42: Sensory System

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44574

Sample Questions

Q1) In which type of hearing loss is the inner ear or cochlear portion of the eighth cranial nerve abnormal or diseased?

A)common

B)conductive

C)mixed

D)sensorineural

Q2) The main objective of the medical management of glaucoma is to:

A)correct visual abnormalities

B)prevent postsurgical infection

C)reduce intraocular pressure

D)relieve pain

Q3) A person is considered legally blind when central visual acuity is:

A)between 20/70 and 20/200 in the better eye without corrective lenses

B)20/200 or less in either eye without corrective lenses

C)20/200 or less in the better eye with corrective lenses

D)absent

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44

Chapter 43: Endocrine System

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46 Verified Questions

46 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The MOST appropriate nursing goal for a client with hypoparathyroidism would be:

A)to prevent infections

B)to maintain adequate calcium intake

C)to monitor fluid intake

D)to verbalize feelings about changed appearance

Q2) When a client's glucose level drops below 70 mg/dL,often before meals or when insulin action is peaking,the client is experiencing:

A)diabetic ketoacidosis

B)diabetic neuropathy

C)hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

D)hypoglycemia

Q3) The nurse caring for a client monitors for the classic clinical manifestation of Addison's disease,which include:

A)a bronze coloration of the skin resembling a deep suntan

B)moon-shaped face and buffalo hump

C)hoarseness and vocal stridor

D)tetany

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Chapter 44: Reproductive System

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44576

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with possible cervical cancer who wants to know about what can cause this condition.The nurse's reply should include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )

A)smoking

B)oral contraceptives

C)history of negative Pap smears

D)history of vegetarian diet

E)history of long-term steroid use

F)history of sexually transmitted diseases (STIs)

Q2) If a client has a third-degree uterine prolapse,what does this mean?

A)The cervix extends beyond the vaginal opening to the perineum.

B)The uterus is displaced to the rectum.

C)The cervix is visible at the vaginal opening.

D)The uterus protrudes outside the vagina.

Q3) A client who has bilateral epididymitis can result with which condition?

A)impotence

B)premature ejaculation

C)sexual dysfunction

D)sterility

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Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44577

Sample Questions

Q1) Which sexually transmitted infection (STI)is known as the "silent STI" because 50% of cases are asymptomatic?

A)chlamydia

B)herpes genitalis virus

C)HIV

D)syphilis

Q2) What is the preferred treatment of human papillomavirus (HPV)infection?

A)topical antibiotics

B)cryosurgery

C)chemotherapy

D)surgical removal under general anesthesia

Q3) In addition to sexual contact,client teaching should include that the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)virus can be transmitted by which mode?

A)respiratory

B)from baby to mother

C)blood

D)fecal

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Chapter 46: Integumentary System

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44578

Sample Questions

Q1) In addition to malignant melanoma,which of these skin disorders may metastasize to other body tissues and cause death?

A)squamous cell carcinoma

B)basal cell carcinoma

C)lipoma

D)angioma

Q2) Immediately after sustaining a severe burn wound,the nurse would anticipate the client's nutritional needs would usually be met by which of these methods?

A)intravenous (IV)fluids only

B)nasogastric tube feedings

C)six to eight small feedings daily with supplemental milk shakes

D)total parenteral nutrition

Q3) Which of these therapies is used in the medical treatment of squamous cell carcinoma?

A)chemosurgery

B)chemotherapy

C)electrosurgery

D)radiation therapy

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Chapter 47: Immune System

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44579

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is usually responsible for which of the following actions prior to a client being tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A)explaining venipuncture to client and obtaining specimen for testing

B)obtaining a signed consent only

C)pretest counseling and ensuring a signed consent is completed

D)pretest counseling only

Q2) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)initially infects which system in persons who have AIDS?

A)bone marrow

B)central nervous system

C)gastrointestinal (GI)tract

D)lymphatic

Q3) The nurse caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)understands that a client is considered to have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)when which of the following occurs?

A)appearance of flulike symptoms

B)CD4 T cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 and one defined clinical condition

C)enlarged lymph nodes for more than 3 months

D)one positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)test

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Mental Illness

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44580

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following nursing behaviors is appropriate when interacting with a client who may have been the victim of interpersonal abuse?

A)Ask permission to call the client's family or friends.

B)Leave the client alone to sort out thoughts.

C)Place the client in a group setting.

D)React with surprise at the details the client reveals.

Q2) What change,if any,should the nurse expect in the dietary patterns of a client who is clinically depressed?

A)either overeating or eating little to nothing

B)intake is decreased

C)intake is increased

D)none

Q3) A client admitted with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is having a flashback.What is MOST important for the nurse to remember to do during this episode?

A)Avoid touching the client during the flashback.

B)Note and record the episode's length of time and any key ideas expressed.

C)Restrain the client as soon as possible,and administer sedation as ordered.

D)Speak to the client in a soft,calm voice.

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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a person makes up information to fill in memory gaps as a result of abusing or depending on alcohol,what term describes this process?

A)confabulation

B)impaired thinking

C)lying

D)moral deterioration

Q2) During detoxification,an alcoholic client becomes hypoglycemic.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?

A)Administer dextrose.

B)Encourage the client to eat to minimize withdrawal symptoms.

C)Give the client thiamine prior to dextrose administration.

D)Administer oxygen before starting an IV.

Q3) The teratogenic effects of alcohol may cause which of these conditions?

A)cirrhosis

B)fetal alcohol syndrome

C)Korsakoff's psychosis

D)Wernicke's encephalopathy

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Chapter 50: The Older Adult

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44582

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the MOST common disorder related to aging and the endocrine system?

A)type 1 diabetes mellitus

B)type 2 diabetes mellitus

C)gallstones

D)incontinence

Q2) Which of these changes in the female reproductive system is the result of normal aging?

A)Estrogen production remains constant.

B)Libido diminishes.

C)Risk for breast cancer increases.

D)Vaginal secretions become more acidic.

Q3) Which of these changes in the gastrointestinal system of an older adult client place the client at risk?

A)Alcohol is absorbed faster.

B)Saliva production decreases.

C)Gag reflex is less effective.

D)Liver size increases.

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Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following hospice services are covered by Medicare? (Select all that apply. )

A)physician and nursing care

B)dental care

C)counseling services

D)medical equipment and supplies

E)housekeeping services

Q2) When choosing housing for the older adult,which of the following is the main factor for determining the needs?

A)dietary needs of the client

B)types of activity programs available

C)facility's floor plan

D)functional perimeters

Q3) A family member is caring for a client with advanced Alzheimer's and is complaining of fatigue,weakness,and apathy.The nurse recognizes the need for which of the following:

A)restorative care

B)rehabilitative care

C)respite care

D)placement in long-term care

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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female client comes to the emergency department saying she was sexually assaulted in her apartment.The nurse's focus in this situation should be to:

A)provide accurate,methodical care to the client

B)notify the client's family of the attack

C)refer the client for psychological counseling

D)administer antipregnancy medication when prescribed

Q2) A client who is a victim of a penetrating trauma has bowel loops protruding through the abdominal wall.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?

A)Administer narcotics if indicated by pain level expressed by the client.

B)Cover the exposed intestine with saline-soaked gauze.

C)Insert a large-bore intravenous (IV)access.

D)Prepare the client for a peritoneal lavage procedure.

Q3) Treatment of clients who have any type of eye trauma should include:

A)antibiotic eye medication

B)application of a warm saline dressing

C)patching of the affected eye

D)patching of the opposite eye

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Chapter 53: Integration

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44585

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing the health records of assigned clients.The nurse plans care knowing that which client is likely at risk for the development of third-spacing? (Select all that apply. )

A)the client with cirrhosis

B)the client with diabetes mellitus

C)the client with sepsis

D)the client with renal failure

E)the client with pneumonia

Q2) A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis.The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic,and crackles are heard on the auscultation of the lungs.The nurse suspects fluid volume excess secondary to congestive heart failure (CHF).What additional signs would the nurse expect to see if the cardiovascular system is being affected?

A)flat hand and neck veins

B)a weak and thready pulse

C)an increase in blood pressure

D)an increased urine output

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Chapter 54: Prenatal Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant client expresses concern that she will develop varicose veins toward the end of her pregnancy.The nurse should recognize that varicose veins are the result of:

A)a genetic defect in the valves of lymph ducts in the lower extremities

B)compression of the abdominal veins by the progressively enlarging uterus

C)increased cardiac volume that normally occurs in the last half of the pregnancy

D)increased fluid volume resulting from the placental filtering of maturing fetal systems

Q2) A client's fundal height has increased 4 centimeters since her last prenatal exam 1 month ago.The nurse should recognize that this measurement indicates:

A)excessive amniotic fluid

B)fetal growth retardation

C)need for further examination because of the possibility of twins

D)normal fetal growth

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Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a pregnant woman with phenylketonuria (PKU)has a poorly regulated phenylalanine level,it causes an increase in the incidence of which condition in the fetus or neonate?

A)pulmonary defects

B)intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)

C)hydrocephalus

D)PKU

Q2) The contraction stress test (CST)is MOST often performed on the pregnant client who has:

A)sickle-cell anemia

B)heart disease

C)pregnancy-induced hypertension

D)diabetes

Q3) A pregnant client is admitted at 36 weeks' gestation with documented uterine contractions,ruptured membranes,and a 5-centimeter cervical dilation.The nurse should anticipate the health care provider will:

A)attempt to stop labor by ordering tocolytics

B)make no attempt to stop labor

C)order complete bed rest in the Trendelenburg position

D)start an oxytocin IV to facilitate delivery

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Chapter 56: The Birth Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) Clients in labor are encouraged to walk in which of these circumstances?

A)when the membranes are intact

B)after pain medication has been given

C)when crowning has occurred

D)before the presenting part is engaged

Q2) The nurse should take the blood pressure of a client in labor between contractions,because during a contraction the client's:

A)blood pressure increases

B)blood pressure is erratic

C)concentration is disrupted

D)cooperation is unpredictable

Q3) The client asks the nurse,"When does the first stage of labor end?" The MOST appropriate response by the nurse would be when the:

A)cervical dilation is 4 centimeters

B)cervical dilation is 10 centimeters

C)crowning occurs

D)uterine contractions occur every 5 to 7 minutes

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Chapter 57: Postpartum Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act of 1995 mandates that all health care plans require a minimal postpartum hospital stay of how many hours for vaginal and cesarean births?

A)vaginal,24;Cesarean,48

B)vaginal,48;Cesarean,96

C)vaginal,72;Cesarean,72

D)vaginal,72;Cesarean,96

Q2) When the nurse is caring for a postpartum client,assessment would be focused on which priority areas? (Select all that apply. )

A)cervical enlargement

B)episiotomy or incision

C)bladder distention

D)depression

E)lochia

F)breasts

Q3) What are the usual causes of maternal afterpains?

A)cesarean delivery and prolonged labor

B)multiparity and breastfeeding

C)postpartal hemorrhage and puerperal infection

D)uterine involution and breast engorgement

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Chapter 58: Newborn Care

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25 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse instills erythromycin ointment into the eyes of all newborns just after birth to prevent:

A)nystagmus

B)ophthalmia neonatorum

C)retinopathy

D)strabismus

Q2) The nurse uses the new Ballard score to estimate a newborn's gestational age.Which of the following characteristics would indicate that the infant is at 37 weeks' gestational age?

A)a 30-degree square window of the wrist

B)creases on two-thirds of the soles of the feet

C)descended testes with few rugae present

D)a soft pinna that stays folded

Q3) A newborn admitted to the nursery has these vital signs: rectal temperature,99.2 degrees Fahrenheit;pulse,130;respirations,45.The nurse should recognize that this baby's vital signs indicate:

A)a temperature elevation that should be investigated for possible sepsis

B)essentially normal vital signs for a newborn

C)tachycardia,which should be reported to the health care provider

D)tachypnea,which should be monitored for possible oxygen administration

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Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care

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25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591

Sample Questions

Q1) In which of these situations should the nurse allow the side rails on a toddler's crib to be lowered?

A)when direct care is being provided

B)when the caregivers are with the child

C)when additional supplies are required for a procedure

D)when a member of the housekeeping staff is in the room

Q2) During the hospitalization of infants and toddlers,the nurse should recognize the importance of the caregiver in a child's life by:

A)recommending they limit their time at their child's bedside because it may upset the child

B)acknowledging their presence while making clear the staff are in charge of their child's care

C)including the caregiver's contributions and involvement in planning and delivering care

D)teaching them to deliver most of their child's care

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Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these is thought to be a causative factor of spina bifida?

A)maternal rubella infection

B)fetal prematurity

C)maternal folic-acid deficiency

D)fetal infection

Q2) An infant exhibiting a bluish discoloration surrounding the mouth would be experiencing:

A)acrocyanosis

B)central cyanosis

C)circumoral cyanosis

D)peripheral cyanosis

Q3) To assist parents of an infant who has atopic dermatitis to realistically reduce the number of causative factors in their child's environment,which of these suggestions should the nurse offer?

A)removal of all actual or potential allergens from the home environment

B)frequent bathing in mild baby soap to remove sebaceous secretions from the scalp

C)frequent diaper changes,exposing affected areas to air,and use of a barrier ointment or cream

D)moving the family pet outside of the home

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 62

Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding suicide is TRUE?

A)Adolescents who have attempted suicide once are at greatest risk for attempting it again.

B)Boys attempt suicide more often than girls.

C)Girls commit suicide five times more often than do boys.

D)Suicide often has no warning signs.

Q2) When assessing a child with suspected tonsillitis,the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply. )

A)sore throat

B)nose breathing

C)snoring

D)inability to speak

E)enlarged white tonsils

F)halitosis

Q3) Which of these statements about Duchenne muscular dystrophy is TRUE?

A)It is X-linked dominant and occurs equally in males and females.

B)It is X-linked dominant and occurs primarily in females.

C)It is X-linked recessive and can be carried by either males or females.

D)It is X-linked recessive and occurs almost exclusively in males.

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