Nursing Sciences Study
Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Sciences explores the foundational theories, principles, and evidence-based practices that underpin professional nursing care. The course examines the physical, biological, behavioral, and social sciences as they relate to patient assessment, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, ethical decision-making, and compassionate patient-centered care. Students are introduced to the roles and responsibilities of nurses within multidisciplinary healthcare teams, legal and ethical frameworks, and current issues and trends shaping the nursing profession.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old man who was on renal dialysis was admitted to the hospital for evaluation of nausea and vomiting. A gastric biopsy was performed. The gastric mucosa contained foci of amorphous, bluish (basophilic) material forming aggregates 10-20 mm in diameter. These aggregates were seen mostly in the stroma between the foveolar cells. No other abnormalities were seen, and the pathologist concluded that these changes represent evidence of
A) Helicobacter pylori infection
B) peptic ulcer formation
C) dystrophic calcification
D) metastatic calcification
E) apoptosis
Answer: D
Q2) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called
A) Autophagocytosis
B) heterophagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
E) involution
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which growth factor is the most potent promotor of angiogenesis in the granulation tissue?
A) Angiotensin
B) Platelet-derived growth factor
C) Tumor growth factor ß
D) Vascular endothelial growth factor
E) Epidermal growth factor
Answer: D
Q2) Aspirin lowers the body temperature by inhibiting the synthesis of which regulator of the central thermostat in the hypothalamus?
A) Leukotriene B<sub>4</sub>
B) Lipoxin
C) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
D) Prostacyclin
E) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of septic shock are caused by endotoxin-producing bacteria, which are classified as
A) pyogenic
B) gram-positive
C) gram-negative
D) encapsulated
E) acid fast
Answer: C
Q2) A 63-year-old woman died 2 days after the onset of severe myocardial ischemia caused by coronary thrombosis. At autopsy, the lungs were heavy. Upon sectioning of the lungs, frothy fluid was seen oozing from the cut surface of the parenchyma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Pulmonary infarction
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Atelectasis
E) Lobar pneumonia
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169
Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to centromere are found in patients who have
A) systemic sclerosis
B) CREST syndrome
C) Sjögren syndrome
D) polymyositis
E) dermatomyositis
Q2) Mutation of the gene encoding the enzyme that is essential for the maturation of pre-B cells to mature B lymphocytes is the cause of
A) common variable immunodeficiency
B) isolated IgA deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) severe combined immunodeficiency
E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Q3) Deposition of AL amyloid in the kidneys of patients with multiple myeloma usually results in
A) acute renal failure
B) tubular necrosis
C) nephrotic syndrome
D) chronic pyelonephritis
E) nephrocalcinosis
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Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helicobacter pylori infection predisposes to formation of gastric tumors, but the association between the bacterial infection and a gastric tumor is the strongest for A) adenocarcinoma of the stomach
B) gastrointestinal stromal tumors
C) marginal zone lymphomas
D) T-cell lymphoma
E) Burkitt lymphoma
Q2) Clubbing of the digits, periosteal new bone formation on the metatarsals, metacarpals, and proximal phalanges, and arthritis of adjacent joints is a paraneoplastic syndrome most often associated with carcinoma of the A) thyroid
B) larynx
C) bronchi
D) liver
E) stomach
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following parameters portends a good prognosis in patients with neuroblastoma?
A) Young age (less than 1 year)
B) Near-diploid, rather than hyperdiploid or near-tetraploid, karyotype
C) Chromosome 1 deletion
D) Amplification of n-myc
E) Presence of double minutes or homogenously staining regions on chromosome 1
Q2) In which of the following Mendelian disorders is the age of onset delayed and the symptoms of the disease do not appear before adulthood?
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Niemann-Pick disease
C) Huntington disease
D) Marfan syndrome
E) Turner syndrome
Q3) Most teratomas in infants are located in the
A) cranium
B) mediastinum
C) gonads
D) retroperitoneum
E) sacrococcygeal region
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ingestion of aflatoxin, a toxin from Aspergillus flavus fungi, is accompanied by development of cancer in which organ?
A) Thyroid
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Colon
E) Endometrium
Q2) Leptin is a hormone that acts on the hypothalamic centers for satiety and energy expenditure. Where is leptin synthesized?
A) Liver
B) Thyroid
C) Peripheral fat cells
D) Skeletal muscle cells
E) Nervous system
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a preventable cause of blindness in Africa?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
Q2) During a mini-epidemic of Shigella, a 5-year-old child from India became infected and died 3 days after the onset of diarrhea. The most prominent changes seen at autopsy were
A) dilatation of the entire small intestine
B) ulceration of the proximal small intestine
C) ulcerations of the distal ileum
D) multiple ulcerations partially covered with pseudomembranes
E) perforation of the rectum
Q3) Which African disease is complicated by elephantiasis of the legs?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin
B) elevation of angiotensin in blood
C) potassium retention in the kidneys
D) reduced sodium excretion in urine
E) increased diuresis
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) At what time interval after the onset of infarction will the occlusive coronary artery thrombus most likely be seen by angiography?
A) 4 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
E) 48 hours
Q2) Which of the following is the most important and most common complication of prosthetic heart valve implantation?
A) Hemolysis
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Thromboembolic complications
D) Structural deterioration of prostheses
E) Coronary heart disease
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe hemophilia develops in patients who have factor VIII reduced below
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%
E) 25%
Q2) A 15-year-old boy developed generalized lymphadenopathy, accompanied by fever and malaise. A lymph node biopsy specimen showed that the architecture of the lymph nodes was erased and the nodes were infiltrated with moderately large lymphoid cells. There were numerous mitoses and apoptotic bodies. Between the B lymphocytes, there were phagocytic macrophages, imparting a "starry-sky" appearance to the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Large B-cell lymphoma
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma
D) Burkitt lymphoma
E) Multiple myeloma
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13
Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177
Sample Questions
Q1) The inhalation of which substance is the most common cause of "humidifier" or "air-conditioner" lung?
A) Thermophilic bacteria
B) Cotton fibers
C) Animal proteins
D) Plant proteins
E) Talc
Q2) Hyaline membranes in the alveoli of lungs affected by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are composed of
A) surfactant
B) eosinophils
C) fibrin
D) fungi
E) collagen
Q3) Which is the most prevalent chronic occupational lung disease found worldwide?
A) Complicated coal workers' pneumoconiosis
B) Asbestosis
C) Berylliosis
D) Silicosis
E) Stannosis
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) Amyloidosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Q2) The normal glomerular basement membrane is composed of which type of collagen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
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15
Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crohn disease is most often diagnosed in which age group?
A) 5-10 years
B) 15-25 years
C) 40-50 years
D) 60-70 years
E) Older than 80 years
Q2) Which intestinal malabsorption syndrome is accompanied by a complete absence of chylomicrons, very-low-density lipoproteins, and low-density lipoproteins in plasma?
A) Crohn disease
B) Celiac sprue
C) Tropical sprue
D) Lactase deficiency
E) Abetalipoproteinemia
Q3) Esophageal diverticulum located above the upper esophageal sphincter is called
A) congenital diverticulum
B) postinflammatory diverticulum
C) traction diverticulum
D) epiphrenic diverticulum
E) Zenker diverticulum
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genetic liver disease results from the mutation of multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) and is characterized by massive accumulation of pigmentary granules in hepatocytes and dark discoloration of the liver?
A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I
B) Gilbert disease
C) Dubin-Johnson disease
D) Rotor syndrome
E) Galactosemia
Q2) Peliosis hepatis is a form of primary hepatic sinusoidal dilatation and intrasinusoidal blood stagnation most often caused by
A) tetracycline
B) anabolic steroids
C) acetaminophen
D) methotrexate
E) Escherichia coli infection
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old man complains of vague upper abdominal pain, weight loss, and loose fatty stools. Radiographs show visible calcifications within the pancreas. These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?
A) Ductal carcinoma of the pancreas
B) Acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas
C) Islet cell carcinoma
D) Chronic pancreatitis
E) Pancreatic pseudocyst
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
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18
Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Androstenedione
D) Estriol
E) Inhibin
Q2) Nephrotic syndrome related to minimal change disease, combined with acute renal failure related to acute interstitial nephritis, is a well-documented adverse reaction to which of the following drugs?
A) Methicillin
B) Ampicillin
C) Rifampin
D) Ibuprofen
E) Hydrochlorothiazide
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevated 17-ketosteroid excretion, masculinization, and hirsutism are found in a woman who has a tumor of the ovary. The tumor is composed of polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and occasional Reinke crystals. Which of the following is the most likely classification of this tumor?
A) Thecoma
B) Granulosa cell tumor
C) Hilar tumor of the ovary
D) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
E) Brenner tumor
Q2) Which of the following genital lesions is associated with a greater than expected risk of carcinoma of the vulva?
A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Condyloma latum
C) Lichen simplex chronicus
D) Lichen sclerosus
E) Papillary hydradenoma
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
Q2) Calcifications of the basal ganglia are complications associated with parkinsonian-like movement disorders and calcification of the lens with cataract formation. These complications are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
A) Parathyroid adenoma
B) Secondary parathyroid hyperplasia
C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D) Parathyroid carcinoma
E) Hypoparathyroidism
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoid osteoma is a small benign bone tumor associated with pain that is disproportionate to the size of the lesion. This pain is caused by an excess of which of the following substances?
A) Interleukin (IL)-1 and IL-6
B) Leukotrienes
C) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
D) Complement C<sub>3</sub>
E) Bradykinin
Q2) Loss of heterozygosity, structural rearrangements, or point mutations of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene (RB) are found in 60%-70% of all sporadic bone tumors. Which of the following is the best classification for this tumor?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Osteoblastoma
C) Osteoid osteoma
D) Chondrosarcoma
E) Ewing sarcoma
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the dominant protein component of neuritic plaques in the brain in Alzheimer disease?
A) Apoprotein
B) Tau protein
C) Neurofibrillin
D) Microtubules-associated protein 2 (MAP2)
E) A derived from amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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