Course Introduction
Nursing Science Study Guide
Questions
Nursing Science explores the foundational theories, principles, and evidence-based practices guiding the nursing profession. This course examines the integration of biological, psychological, and social sciences to promote health, prevent illness, and deliver patient-centered care across diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking, ethical decision-making, and clinical reasoning skills necessary for effective nursing practice. Students will engage with current research, contemporary healthcare challenges, and professional standards to prepare for roles in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults And Children 5th Edition by Kathryn
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Page 2
L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids and proteins are the major components of the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to: A) lipids.
B) ribosomes.
C) amphipathic lipids.
D) receptors.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the action of platelet-derived growth factor? It stimulates production of: A) platelets.
B) epidermal cells.
C) connective tissue cells.
D) fibroblast cells.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemosiderosis is a condition in which excess _____ is stored as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues.
A) hemoglobin
B) ferritin
C) iron
D) transferrin
Answer: C
Q2) What mechanisms occur in the liver after lipid accumulation in liver cells?
A) Accumulation of lipids obstruct the common bile duct preventing flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder
B) Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins.
C) Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins
D) Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids
Answer: B
Q3) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia rarely occur together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are causes of hypocalcemia?
A) Repeated blood administration or pancreatitis
B) Kidney stones and immobility
C) Decreased resorption of calcium and phosphate from bone
D) Hyperparathyroidism and bone metastasis
Answer: A
Q2) What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?
A) The ratio between intracellular sodium (Na<sup>+</sup>)and extracellular sodium
B) The ratio between intracellular potassium (K<sup>+</sup>)and extracellular potassium
C) The ratio between intracellular sodium (Na<sup>+</sup>)and extracellular potassium (K<sup>+</sup>)
D) The ratio between intracellular potassium (K<sup>+</sup>)and extracellular sodium (Na<sup>+</sup>)
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is transcription?
A) It is the process by which DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on RNA.
B) It is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.
C) It is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
D) It is the process of a mutation of the amino acid sequence by a base pair substitution.
Q2) What is the most clinically useful technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 2 months' gestation?
A) Gene mapping
B) Linkage analysis
C) Amniocentesis
D) Chorionic villi biopsy
Q3) Huntington disease
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number of new cases (persons)detected with the disease
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenetic
F)Empiric risk
G)Relative risk
Q2) The _____ of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population.
A) attributable risk
B) contingency risk
C) causal risk
D) relative risk
Q3) The recurrence risk becomes higher if more than one family member has a multifactorial disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity Including Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antimicrobial peptide is activated by tumor necrosis factor alpha and is found in alveolar macrophages and T-lymphocytes?
A) a-Defensins
B) b-Defensins
C) Cathelicidin
D) Interleukin 1b
Q2) What is an outcome of the complement cascade?
A) Activates the clotting cascade
B) Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues
C) Inactivates chemical mediators such as histamine
D) Attacks bacterial cell membranes
Q3) Sebaceous glands
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria
Q4) How do surfactant proteins A & D provide innate resistance?
A) They initiate the complement cascade.
B) They promote phagocytosis
C) They secrete mucus.
D) They synthesize lysosomes.
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function?
A) Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens
B) Decreased number of circulating T cells
C) Decreased production of autoantibodies
D) Increased production of helper T cells.
Q2) At birth,samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels,if any,are near adult levels?
A) None of the immunoglobulins are near adult level.
B) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
C) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
D) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
Q3) Most abundant immunoglobulin and accounts for most of the protective activity against infections
A)Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
B)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
C)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
D)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
Q4) Are induced by antigens derived from viral or bacterial pathogens
A)Helper T1 lymphocytes (Th1)
B)Helper T2 lymphocytes (Th2)
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
Including Hypersensitivies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which secretion transmits human immunodeficiency syndrome?
A) Sweat
B) Urine
C) Saliva
D) Breast milk
Q2) In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction,when antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system,how are the blood vessels destroyed?
A) By complement-mediated cell lysis
B) By phagocytosis by macrophages
C) By phagocytosis in the spleen
D) By neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Q3) During an immunoglobulin E-mediated (IgE)hypersensitivity reaction,which leukocyte is activated?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) T lymphocytes
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infection Including Hivaids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about fungal infections?
A) They occur only on skin,hair,and nails.
B) They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.
C) They result in release of endotoxins.
D) They are be prevented by vaccines.
Q2) In a bacterial infection,what activates helper T cells?
A) Macrophage display of antigens
B) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C) Activation of the complement cascade
D) Cytokines engulf bacteria
Q3) Endotoxins from gram negative bacteria can activate the coagulation cascade.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Colonization
D)Pathogenicity
E)Virulence
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have shown a relationship between depression and reduction in lymphocyte proliferation and natural killer activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymphocytes secrete growth hormone,prolactin,adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)and endorphins.
A)True B)False
Q3) Dilates blood vessels of skeletal muscles allowing greater oxygenation
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q4) The decrease in insulin during a stress response prevents glucose from being taken up by peripheral tissue so that more glucose will be available for the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cortisol circulates in the plasma free (unbound)and bound to protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Biology of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
A) By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
B) By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies
C) By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs
D) By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes
Q2) Some tumors initially described as benign can progress to malignant tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cancer is predominantly a disease of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pleomorphic
A)Loss of differentiation
B)Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
C)Cells that vary in size and shape
D)Unaltered normal allele
E)Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity
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Chapter 12: Tumor Invasion and Metastasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer cells adhere to one another better than normal cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liver
A)Pressure
B)Compression
C)Stretching
D)Obstruction
E)Tissue destruction
Q3) Chemotherapy
A)Provides cell-derived antiviral and immunomodulating proteins
B)Provides direct cytotoxic effect on cancer cells
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Attacks cancerous cells in the cell cycle
E)Provides nonspecific stimulation of the immune system
Q4) Basal metabolic rates of people with cancer are usually _____ than normal.
A) lower
B) higher
C) fluctuating more
D) no different
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a carcinogenic relationship between Hodgkin disease and the:
A) herpes simplex virus.
B) human immunodeficiency virus.
C) varicella virus.
D) Epstein-Barr virus.
Q2) Embryonic tumors are usually diagnosed after 5 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an embryonic tumor is:
A) osteosarcomA.
B) neuroblastoma.
C) leukemia.
D) adenocarcinoma.
Q4) Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increase susceptibility to cancer except:
A) drugs.
B) ionizing radiation.
C) cigarette smoke
D) viruses.
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a neuron's membrane potential is held close to the threshold potential by excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP)s,the neuron is said to be:
A) hyperpolarized.
B) facilitated.
C) integrated.
D) hypopolarized.
Q2) Receives sensory input from the body
A)Frontal lobe
B)Parietal lobe
C)Temporal lobe
D)Occipital lobe
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system functions to conserve and restore energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a characteristic of upper motor neurons?
A) They directly influence to muscles.
B) They influence and modify spinal reflex arcs.
C) Their cell bodies are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
D) They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemianopia
A)Loss of ability to smell
B)Perversion of sense of taste
C)Smelling nonexistent odors
D)Defective vision in half of a visual field
E)Defect in central field of vision
F)Involuntary movement of eyeballs
Q2) Which disorder of temperature regulation is caused by prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration,decreased plasma volumes,hypotension,decreased cardiac output,and tachycardia?
A) Heat cramps
B) Heat stroke
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Heat exhaustion
Q3) Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss?
A) Evaporation
B) Radiation
C) Convection
D) Conduction
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Chapter 16: Concepts of Neurologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to tracts from the _____ lobe to the limbic system may also result in alterations in emotional control.
A) occipital
B) parietal
C) frontal
D) temporal
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson disease.This is a degenerative disorder of the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) anterior pituitary.
C) frontal lobe.
D) basal ganglia.
Q3) Why is status epilepticus considered a medical emergency?
A) Because the person loses consciousness
B) Because of the cerebral hypoxia
C) Because of head injury during the seizures
D) Because brain metabolism is decreased
Q4) Vegetative state is another term for locked-in syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder has clinical manifestations of a decreased consciousness up to 6 hours,retrograde and post traumatic amnesia,and loss of reflexes with brief bradycardia and transient apnea?
A) Mild concussion
B) Classic concussion
C) Cortical contusion
D) Acute subdural hematoma
Q2) The peripheral nervous system is the main location of lesions in multiple sclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are indications that spinal shock is terminating?
A) Voluntary movement below the level of injury
B) Reflex emptying of the bladder
C) Paresthesia below the level of injury
D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
Q4) Most people with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis live symptom free for at least 10 years following diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluent speech that is difficult to comprehend
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q2) What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?
A) Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone.
B) Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level despite administration of exogenous corticosteroids.
C) Individuals with depression continue to exhibit elevated plasma cortisol levels throughout the evening and early morning.
D) Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.
Q3) Mania is the most common mood disorder.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reyes syndrome is associated with children who have taken aspirin and have:
A) measles or mumps
B) influenza B or chickenpox
C) bacterial upper respiratory infections
D) bacterial ear infections
Q2) _____ is an anterior midline defect of neural tube closure.
A) Anencephaly
B) Myelodysplasia
C) Cyclopia
D) Hydrocephaly
Q3) Decerebrate rigidity,deepening coma,large fixed pupils
A)Reye syndrome,stage I
B)Reye syndrome,stage II
C)Reye syndrome,stage III
D)Reye syndrome,stage IV
E)Reye syndrome,stage V
Q4) Meningoceles occur at a greater frequency in the lumbar spine area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones are effective communicators because they:
A) are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
B) increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
C) are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
D) decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
Q2) Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?
A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Q3) The thyroid gland produces 90% T<sub>4</sub> and 10% T<sub>3</sub>,but T<sub>3</sub> has the greater metabolic effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A) Cortisol
B) Epinephrine
C) Androgens
D) Aldosterone
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A) Solute retention and water retention
B) Solute retention and water loss
C) Solute dilution and water retention
D) Solute dilution and water loss
Q2) Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
A) measurement of serum thyroid levels.
B) radioisotope scanning.
C) ultrasonography.
D) fine-needle aspiration biopsy.
Q3) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Pituitary hyposecretion
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid gland damage
D) Autoimmune parathyroid disease
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equivalent to the ovaries in women is the _____ in men.
A) epididymis
B) spermatic cord
C) vas deferens
D) testes
Q2) Which of the following shows a correct sequence in the hormonal stimulation of the reproductive systems leading to puberty?
A) Anterior pituitary,gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH),follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) Hypothalamus,follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),anterior pituitary
C) Anterior pituitary,follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),luteinizing hormone (LH),gonads
D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH),hypothalamus,follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q3) Where is the usual site of fertilization of an ovum?
A) Uterus
B) Fimbriae of the fallopian tubes
C) Ampulla of the fallopian tubes
D) Os of the fallopian tubes
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first sign of puberty in boys?
A) Thickening of the scrotal skin
B) Growth of pubic hair
C) Enlargement of the testes
D) Change in voice
Q2) What process occurs when columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium in the transformation zone?
A) Dysplasia
B) Aplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Epithelplasia
Q3) Testicular torsion
A)Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
B)Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C)Rotation of a testis,which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
D)Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
Q4) With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer,prognosis is excellent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin,bone and soft tissue lesions,aneurysms,heart failure,and neurosyphilis?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Latent
D) Tertiary
Q2) Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of HSV?
A) HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present.
B) HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present.
C) Transmission of HSV is prevented by the use of condoms.
D) There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods.
Q3) Treponema pallidum
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
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26
Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the drug heparin act in hemostasis?
A) Heparin inhibits thrombin and factor XA.
B) Heparin prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
C) Heparin shortens the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot.
D) Heparin degrades the fibrin within blood clots.
Q2) Hemostasis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q3) Only reduced ferrous iron (Fe<sup>11</sup>)can be used in the formation of normal hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During an infection,lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
A) of the proliferation of macrophages.
B) the nodes are inflamed.
C) the nodes filled with purulent exudate.
D) the nodes are not functioning properly.
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some anemias the erythrocytes are present in various sizes;this is referred to as: A) poikilocytosis.
B) isocytosis.
C) anisocytosis.
D) microcytosis.
Q2) What is the Schilling test?
A) The administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
B) The measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
C) The measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
D) The administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia
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Chapter 27: Alterations in Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of anemia from insufficient erythropoiesis in children is:
A) folic acid deficiency.
B) iron deficiency.
C) hemoglobin abnormality.
D) erythrocyte abnormality.
Q2) _____ is an autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease.
A) Hemophilia A
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Christmas disease
D) Hemophilia B
Q3) How is hemoglobin S (HbS)formed in sickle cell disease?
A) By a deficiency in glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD)that changes hemoglobin A to hemoglobin S
B) By a genetic mutation in which two amino acids (histidine and leucine)are missing
C) By a genetic mutation in which one amino acid (valine)is replaced by another (glutamic acid)
D) By an autoimmune response in which one amino acid (proline)is detected as an antigen by abnormal immunoglobulin G (IgG)
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although the heart is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system,neural impulses are not needed to maintain the cardiac cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the cardiac cycle,what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
A) The chordae tendineae relax,which allows the valves to close.
B) The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
C) The trabeculae carneae contract,which pulls the valves closed.
D) The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
Q3) The coronary sinus empties into the:
A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
C) superior vena cava.
D) aorta.
Q4) Veins are less compliant than arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
A) Jugular vein distension
B) Bounding pulses
C) Peripheral edema
D) Dyspnea on exertion
Q2) Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center,making them appear as a ringworm?
A) Fat emboli
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Bacterial endocarditis
D) Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q3) Once fatty streaks accumulate,they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cardiovascular development occurs between the fourth and seventh weeks of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13,trisomy 18,and Down syndrome?
A) Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis
B) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
C) Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia
D) Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus
Q3) How do children with tetralogy of Fallot compensate to relieve hypoxic spells?
A) They lie on their left side.
B) They perform the Valsalva maneuver.
C) They squat.
D) They hyperventilate.
Q4) Iron deficiency anemia may result from polycythemia that develops from chronic hypoxia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51497
Sample Questions
Q1) The lungs contain only superficial lymphatic capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Veins of the pulmonary circulation are similar to the veins of the systemic circulation,but contain no one-way valves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does decreased compliance within the lung mean?
A) The diaphragm is stiff.
B) The lungs inflate easily.
C) The lungs are stiff.
D) The lungs are unable to diffuse oxygen.
Q4) The peripheral chemoreceptors are not as sensitive as the central chemoreceptors.The PaO<sub>2</sub> must drop below 80 mm Hg before the peripheral chemoreceptors have much influence on ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The trachea bifurcates into two bronchi at the carina.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchiectasis
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Alveolar collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q2) Persons with an I-antiprotease deficiency are predisposed to asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aspiration
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Alveolar collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q4) An abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio is the most common cause of hypoxemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tubule is the only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area?
A) Proximal tubules
B) Distal tubules
C) Ascending loop of Henle
D) Descending loop of Henle
Q2) Which of the following is found in older adults?
A) A sharp decline in GFR and no change in renal blood flow
B) A sharp decline in renal blood flow and in GFR
C) A decrease in the number of nephrons
D) An increase in GFR leading to increased urine output
Q3) What is the trigone?
A) It is the smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter.
B) It is the inner mucosal lining of the kidneys.
C) It is a smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
D) It is the three divisions of the loop of Henle.
Q4) The target tissue for angiotensin II is the blood vessels and adrenal medulla.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurologic disorder would be more likely to cause functional obstruction of the bladder outlet in addition to neurogenic detrusor overactivity?
A) Brain tumor
B) Traumatic brain injury
C) Cerebrovascular accident
D) Spinal cord injury
Q2) Considering host defense mechanisms,which element in the urine is bacteriostatic,if any?
A) High pH (alkaline urine)
B) High urea
C) High glucose
D) None of the above is bacteriostatic
Q3) In chronic renal failure,the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)is reduced below 20% before the disease begins to affect nonrenal organ systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Complications of urinary obstruction include infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do bacteria gain access to the urinary tract?
A) The bacteria come from systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney.
B) The bacteria travel from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys.
C) The bacteria ascend up the urethra into the bladder or up the ureters into the kidney.
D) The bacteria colonize the bladder when urine is static.
Q2) What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
A) Lysosomal enzymes
B) Endotoxins from the streptococcus
C) Immune complexes
D) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)mediated response
Q3) On examination of a male child,it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis.This condition is called:
A) hypospadias.
B) epispadias.
C) hyperspadias.
D) chordee.
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
A) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Folic acid
Q2) Saliva contains which immunoglobulin?
A) Immunoglobulin A
B) Immunoglobulin E
C) Immunoglobulin G
D) Immunoglobulin M
Q3) When vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is bound to intrinsic factor,it is resistant to digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver plays an important role in destroying intestinal bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The intestinal tract is sterile at birth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function
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60 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic gastritis of the fundus occurs more frequently than chronic gastritis of the antrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mutation of which gene occurs in cancers of the stomach,colon,liver,gallbladder,and pancreas?
A) K-ras mutation
B) p53 tumor suppressor gene
C) myc
D) HER2
Q3) Reflux esophagitis may be defined as a(n):
A) immune response to gastroesophageal reflux.
B) inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
C) congenital anomaly.
D) secretory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
Q4) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Celiac sprue
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q2) Why are premature infants with necrotizing enterocolitis at risk for infection?
A) Because they have decreased secretory immunoglobulin A (IgA)and intestinal T cells
B) Because they have decreased secretory immunoglobulin E (IgE)and intestinal chemical mediators
C) Because they have decreased secretory immunoglobulin G (IgG)and cytokines
D) Because they have decreased secretory immunoglobulin M (IgM)and complement
Q3) Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.
A) cecum
B) ileus
C) obstruction
D) vivax
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Chapter 39: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periosteal and endosteal surfaces of the bone are formed to the size and shape of the bone before the injury.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q2) The synovial membrane has a thin layer called the intima.What is the function of the type A cells within the intima?
A) They release mast cells to initiate the inflammatory process after joint injury.
B) They ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity.
C) They secrete hyaluronate,a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality.
D) They store fat cells and glycogen to provide adenosine triphosphate (ATP)for joint activity.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are clinical manifestations of fibromyalgia?
A) Hot,tender,and edematous muscle groups bilaterally
B) Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
C) Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
D) Burning or gnawing pain at tender points and profound fatigue
Q2) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis,which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of nuclear factor <sub>k</sub>ß ligand (RANKL)expression?
A) Interleukin 4 (IL-4)and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß)
B) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-)
C) Interleukin 11 (IL-11)and glucocorticoids
D) Interleukin 17 (IL-17)and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Q3) A tear in a ligament is known as a:
A) fracture.
B) strain.
C) disunion.
D) sprain.
Q4) Osteomyelitis is a bone infection only caused by bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A) Heads of the femur
B) Distal femurs
C) Heads of the humerus
D) Distal tibias
Q2) In both adult and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis,the large joints are predominately affected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unlike adult-onset arthritis,juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is not a syndrome that is often accompanied by systemic manifestations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What diagnosis is given when the infant's hip maintains contact with the acetabulum,but is not well seated within the hip joint?
A) Dislocatable hip
B) Subluxated hip
C) Dislocated hip
D) Subluxable hip
43
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Chapter 42: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with:
A) posterior pituitary adenomA.
B) Cushing disease.
C) polycystic ovaries.
D) Addison disease.
Q2) Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
A) Histiocytes
B) Fibroblasts
C) Mast cells
D) Macrophages
Q3) Tinea corporis (ringworm)is a _____ infection of the skin.
A) nematode
B) fungal
C) viral
D) bacterial
Q4) Merkel cells are associated with touch receptors and function as slowly adapting mechanoreceptors when stimulated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal disorders of the skin are known as mycoses and when caused by dermatophytes,the mycoses are termed tinea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Scabies is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite,Sarcoptes scabiei.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which immunoglobulin is elevated in atopic dermatitis?
A) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
B) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
C) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
D) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
Q4) Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule,papule,or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?
A) Pediculosis
B) Tinea capitis
C) Scabies
D) Rubeola
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Chapter 44: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock results from decreased systemic vascular resistance?
A) Septic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Heart failure
Q2) What is the clinical hallmark of neurogenic shock due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Heart rate over 100 beats/min
B) Heart rate less than 60 beats/min
C) Systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg
D) Diastolic blood pressure less than 60 mm Hg
E) Fever greater than 38.8° C (102° F)
Q3) The most reliable criterion of adequate fluid resuscitation following a major burn injury is:
A) blood pressure.
B) pulse rate.
C) respiratory rate.
D) urine output.
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Chapter 45: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of bradycardia in young children is:
A) cardiogenic shock.
B) neurogenic shock.
C) dehydration.
D) hypoxia.
Q2) Considering a normal capillary refill time for infants and children is 1.5 to 2 seconds,a refill time of 3 seconds is associated with a greater than ____% dehydration.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q3) Reperfusion injury is stimulated by the generation of highly reactive free oxygen radicals and superoxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hypotension is a late sign of shock in children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most significant cause of thrombus formation?
A) Endothelial injury to blood vessels
B) Turbulent blood flow
C) Rapid coagulation of the blood
D) Stagnant blood flow
Q2) In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),what activates the coagulation cascade?
A) Cytokines,such as platelet-activating factor (PAF),and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a)
B) Thromboxane A causing platelets to aggregate and consume clotting factors
C) Tissue factor (TF)located in the endothelial layer of blood vessels and subcutaneous tissue
D) Endotoxins from gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria circulating within the bloodstream
Q3) Hodgkin disease
A)Epstein-Barr virus
B)Bence Jones protein
C)Diagnosed by the Reed-Sternberg cell
D)Diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the clinical manifestations of viral pneumonia in children?
A) Mild to high fever,cough,rhinorrhea,crackles,rhonchi,and wheezes
B) High fever,productive cough,and pleuritic chest pain
C) Decreased breath sounds in areas of consolidation and dyspnea
D) Increased respiratory rate and respiratory alkalosis
Q2) Children with chronic asthma have clubbing of fingers and toes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Paradoxical breathing is an ominous sign in premature infants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pharyngeal problems
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound,voice change,hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or central wheeze
E)Expiratory wheezes
Q5) Surfactant production is being produced by the fourth week of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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