Nursing Science
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Nursing Science is an interdisciplinary field that integrates knowledge from biological, behavioral, and social sciences to advance the practice and understanding of nursing. This course explores the foundational theories, research methods, and evidence-based practices essential for delivering high-quality patient care. Students will examine the physiological, psychological, and social factors affecting health, and learn how to apply scientific principles to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing interventions across diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, ethical decision-making, and lifelong learning to promote professional growth and improve patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 7th Edition by McCance
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49 Chapters
1881 Verified Questions
1881 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H O )by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
A) Lysosomes
B) Peroxisomes
C) Ribosomes
D) Oxyhydrosomes
Answer: B
Q2) Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi complex
C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) Lysosomes
Answer: D
Q3) Movement of water
A)Passive-mediated transport
B)Active-mediated transport
C)Osmosis
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organs are affected by the type of necrosis that results from either severe ischemia or chemical injury? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lungs
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Muscles
E) Heart
Answer: C,E
Q2) After ovulation,the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen.This process is an example of hormonal:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Anaplasia
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Weakness skeletal muscles
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Smooth muscle atony
D) Visual impairment
E) Hearing loss
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) Changes in hydrogen ion concentration affect this electrolyte.
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage derived from human genome sequencing on genetic disorders focuses on: (Select all that apply.)
A) Identification of the mutated gene
B) Reversal of the mutation
C) Diagnosis of the existing disorder
D) Appropriate treatment
E) Prevention of the disorder
Q2) Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?
A) Consanguinity is sometimes present.
B) Females are affected more than males.
C) The disease is observed in both the parents, as well as in the siblings.
D) On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected.
Q3) The purpose of a staining technique of chromosomes such as Giemsa is to:
A) Permit the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
B) Allow for the numbering of chromosomes and the identification of variations.
C) Identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
D) Distinguish the sex chromosomes from the homologous chromosomes.
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of all cases of breast cancer are identified as an autosomal dominant form?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) Number of persons living with the disease
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenic
F)Empirical risk
G)Relative risk
Q3) Blood pressure variations are associated with:
A) ß1-adrenergic receptors to increase heart rate
B) The release of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that increases water reabsorption
C) The renin-angiotensin system's effect on vasoconstriction
D) Serum bradykinin, causing vasodilation
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shape of the face of a child diagnosed with Russell-Silver syndrome is likely to be:
A) Round
B) Square
C) Triangular
D) Elongated
Q2) When a chromosome lacking 4 Mb is inherited from the mother,the child is at risk for developing which syndrome?
A) Prader-Willi
B) Angelman
C) Beckwith-Wiedemann
D) Russell-Silver
Q3) The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is:
A) DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
B) Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
C) Epigenetic modifications can be reversed.
D) No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.
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8
Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage?
A) Nonfunctioning scar tissue replaces destroyed tissue.
B) Regeneration occurs; the original tissue is replaced.
C) Resolution occurs; tissue is regenerated.
D) Epithelialization replaces destroyed tissue.
Q2) What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?
A) Vasodilation of blood vessels
B) Increased capillary permeability
C) Endothelial cell contraction
D) Emigration of neutrophils
Q3) Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem?
A) Circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.
B) Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.
C) Underlying chronic illness(es) exists.
D) Number of mast cells is insufficient.
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
A) IL-1
B) IL-2
C) IL-4
D) IL-12
Q2) Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions.
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Q3) What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
A) Passive-acquired immunity
B) Active-acquired immunity
C) Passive-innate immunity
D) Active-innate immunity
Q4) In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
A) Thymus gland
B) Regional lymph nodes
C) Bone marrow
D) Spleen
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
A) Platelets
B) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes
Q2) When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus,what reaction occurs?
A) T-cell immunity
B) Alloimmunity
C) Fetal immunity
D) Autoimmunity
Q3) During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction,which leukocyte is activated?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) T lymphocytes
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11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ability of an agent to produce disease
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
Q2) Which statement about vaccines is true?
A) Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.
B) Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.
C) Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
D) Vaccines provide effective protection against most infections.
Q3) After sexual transmission of HIV,a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?
A) 1 to 2
B) 6 to 14
C) 18 to 20
D) 24 to 36
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immune cells are suppressed by the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Monocyte-macrophage cells
B) Cytokines
C) Tc cells
D) Th cells
E) B cells
Q2) The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections,cancer,and tissue injury that,in turn,initiate a stress response?
A) IL-1 and IL-2
B) IL-12, TNF- , and colony-stimulating factor
C) IFN, TNF-ß, and IL-6
D) IL-4 and IL-24
Q3) Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation
A)Is the process of cancer cell growth.
B)Is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures.
C)Is guided by molecular analysis in specific diseases.
D)Takes advantage of specific vulnerabilities in specific cancer cells.
E)Provides a framework to determine treatment.
Q2) Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
A) Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
B) Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
C) Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
D) Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
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14
Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The significant risk factors associated with the development of basal cell carcinoma include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Light-colored hair
B) Pale eyes
C) Fair skin
D) Freckles
E) History of acne
Q2) Which environmental factors have been shown to have greatest significant effect on the frequency of genetic mutations in humans? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tobacco use
B) Radiation exposure
C) Obesity
D) Severe allergies
E) Stressful occupation
Q3) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A) Wilms tumor
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q2) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A) Down syndrome
B) Wilms tumor
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Q3) Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Influenza
C) Varicella zoster virus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
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Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?
A) 80%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 10%
Q2) Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
A) Large nonmyelinated
B) Large myelinated
C) Small nonmyelinated
D) Small myelinated
Q3) What evidence does the nurse expect to see when a patient experiences trauma to the hypothalamus? (Select all that apply.)
A) Uneven expression of mood
B) Unstable blood glucose levels
C) Poor regulation of body temperature
D) Visual disturbances such as blurred vision
E) Nausea, vomiting, and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Massage therapy relieves pain by closing the pain gate with the stimulation which fibers?
A) Ab
B) Ad
C) B
D) C
Q2) Why are children more susceptible to heat stroke than are adults? (Select all that apply.)
A) Children produce more metabolic heat when exercising.
B) They have more surface area-to-mass ratio.
C) Children have less sweating capacity.
D) They an underdeveloped hypothalamus.
E) Children have an overdeveloped ability to perceive heat.
Q3) Pain that occurs after peripheral nerve injury and is described as continuous with severe sensations and a burning quality
A)Myofascial pain syndrome
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Deafferentation pain
D)Sympathetically maintained pain
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems,Cerebral
Hemodynamics,and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the brain's:
A) Ventricles
B) Tissue
C) Neurons
D) Meninges
Q2) The existence of regular,deep,and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to the:
A) Lower midbrain
B) Pontine area
C) Supratentorial
D) Cerebral area
Q3) Diagnostic criteria for a persistent vegetative state include:
A) Absence of eye opening
B) Lack of subcortical responses to pain stimuli
C) Roving eye movements with visual tracking
D) Return of autonomic functions such as gastrointestinal function
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19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma?
A) Children
B) Adolescents
C) Adults
D) Older adults
Q2) Diffuse axonal injuries (DAIs)of the brain often result in:
A) Reduced levels of consciousness
B) Mild but permanent dysfunction
C) Fine motor tremors
D) Visual disturbances
Q3) A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain?
A) Frontal
B) Temporal
C) Parietal
D) Occipital
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who eat aged cheese and avocado when taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)may experience:
A) Kidney damage
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Weight gain
Q2) Spontaneous speech is absent.
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q3) When treating individuals with depression,the result produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is believed to be an alteration in:
A) The monoamine systems
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) The limbic system
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign febrile seizures are characterized by:
A) A temperature lower than 39° C
B) Respiratory or ear infections
C) Onset after the fifth year of life
D) Episodes lasting 30 minutes or longer
Q2) What test is performed on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect?
A) Total protein
B) Culture
C) a-fetoprotein
D) C-reactive protein
Q3) The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
A) 2 years
B) 1 year
C) 10 months
D) 5 months
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Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH)and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate.This is an example of:
A) Positive feedback
B) Negative feedback
C) Neural regulation
D) Physiologic regulation
Q2) How does a faulty negative-feedback mechanism result in a hormonal imbalance?
A) Hormones are not synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
B) Decreased hormonal secretion is a response to rising hormone levels.
C) Too little hormone production is initiated.
D) Excessive hormone production results from a failure to turn off the system.
Q3) Which human physiologic system is believed to be an integral factor in unhealthy aging?
A) Cardiac
B) Endocrine
C) Central nervous
D) Urinary
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23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypersecretion of adrenal medulla hormones
A)Acromegaly
B)Cushing disease
C)Addison disease
D)Graves disease
E)Myxedema
F)Pheochromocytoma
Q2) Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the:
A) Formation of ketones
B) Chronic insulin resistance
C) Elevation in serum glucose
D) Increase in antidiuretic hormone
Q3) Diabetes insipidus is a result of:
A) Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion
B) Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion
C) Insulin hyposecretion
D) Insulin hypersecretion
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the time that ovulation occurs,which statement concerning basal body temperature (BBT)is true?
A) BBT increases.
B) BBT decreases.
C) BBT fluctuates around 37° C (98° F).
D) BBT rises consistently above 37.8° C (100° F).
Q2) Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells?
A) Perimetrium
B) Endocervical canal
C) Myometrium
D) Vagina
Q3) The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?
A) 23
B) 25
C) 46
D) 50
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Chapter 24: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a recognized treatment for the symptoms often associated with pelvic organ prolapse? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pessary
B) Kegel exercises
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Surgical repair
E) Bearing down exercises
Q2) Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?
A) Disorder in the endometrium
B) Obstruction of the fallopian tubes
C) Lack of physical exercise
D) Failure to ovulate
Q3) Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24
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26
Chapter 25: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A) Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B) Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C) Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D) Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
Q2) Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex?
A) Mixed
B) Incomplete
C) Isosexual
D) Homosexual
Q3) Hydrocele
A)Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
B)Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C)Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
D)Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
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Chapter 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV)from mother to fetus?
A) Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
B) The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
C) The risk is higher in women who experience ruptured membranes more than 6 hours before delivery.
D) The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used.
Q2) Entamoeba histolytica
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Granuloma inguinale
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q3) What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?
A) Epididymis
B) Lymph nodes
C) Urethra
D) Prostate
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Chapter 27: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood cells are biconcave in shape and have the capacity to be reversibly deformed?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Erythrocytes
Q2) The absence of parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia?
A) Iron deficiency
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Folic acid deficiency anemia
D) Aplastic anemia
Q3) What is the role of thromboxane A (TXA )in the secretion stage of hemostasis?
A) Stimulates the synthesis of serotonin.
B) Promotes vasodilation.
C) Stimulates platelet aggregation.
D) Promotes formation of cyclooxygenase.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
A) Cyanocobalamin by oral intake
B) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>by injection
C) Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection
D) Folate by oral intake
Q2) When considering hemolytic anemia,which statement is true regarding the occurrence of jaundice?
A) Erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.
B) Heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
C) The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).
D) The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.
Q3) Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
A) Increasing rate and depth of breathing
B) Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
C) Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
D) Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most reliable and specific test for diagnosing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Fibrin degradation products (FDP)
D) D-dimer
Q2) Which statements are true regarding leukemias? (Select all that apply.)
A) A single progenitor cell undergoes a malignant change.
B) Leukemia is a result of uncontrolled cellular proliferation.
C) Bone marrow becomes overcrowded.
D) Leukocytes are under produced.
E) Hematopoietic cell production is decreased.
Q3) When the demand for mature neutrophils exceeds the supply,immature neutrophils are released indicating:
A) A shift to the right
B) A shift to the left
C) Leukocytosis
D) Leukemia
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant's hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor,tachycardia,and systolic murmurs occur.
A) 11
B) 9
C) 7
D) 5
Q2) What are the common triggers for sickle cell crisis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Infection
C) Dehydration
D) Alkalosis
E) Exposure to the cold
Q3) Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?
A) Monocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
A) Arterial stiffening
B) Decreased left ventricular wall tension
C) Decreased aortic wall thickness
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q2) What is the process that ensures mitral and tricuspid valve closure after the ventricles are filled with blood?
A) Chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
B) Increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close.
C) Trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
D) Reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
Q3) Which complex (wave)represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?
A) PRS
B) QRS
C) QT interval
D) P
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) Aortic regurgitation
A)Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B)Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C)Backflow into left atrium
D)Backflow into right atrium
E)Backflow into left ventricle
Q2) What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
A) Release of the inflammatory cytokines
B) Macrophages adhere to vessel walls.
C) Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls
D) Release of the platelet-deprived growth factor
Q3) An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin,creatine kinase-isoenzyme MB (CK-MB),and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Hypertension
C) Myocardial infarction (MI)
D) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) What congenital heart defects are associated with intrauterine exposure to rubella? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pulmonary stenosis (PS)
B) Cardiomegaly
C) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
D) Coarctation of aorta (COA)
E) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Q2) Which condition is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
A) The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
B) The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
D) An intermittent murmur is present.
Q3) What is the most common cause of chronic sustained hypertension observed only in a newborn?
A) Renal parenchymal disease
B) Primary hypertension
C) Renal artery stenosis
D) Congenital renal malformation
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Chapter 34: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Q1) The adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring which mechanism?
A) Ventilatory rate
B) Ventilatory pattern
C) Respiratory effort
D) Arterial blood gas
Q2) Stretch receptors and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to which location in the brain?
A) Pneumotaxic center in the pons
B) Apneustic center in the pons
C) Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) in the medulla oblongata
D) Ventral respiratory group (VRG) in the medulla oblongata
Q3) Air passage among alveoli is collateral and evenly distributed because of the function of which structures?
A) Type I alveolar cells
B) Pores of Kohn
C) Acinus pores
D) Alveolar pores
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?
A) Avoidance of the causative agent
B) Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm
D) Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation
Q2) Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss,dyspnea on exertion,use of accessory muscles,and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of which respiratory disorder?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Emphysema
C) Pneumonia
D) Asthma
Q3) In which type of pleural effusion does the fluid become watery and diffuse out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure?
A) Exudative
B) Purulent
C) Transudative
D) Large
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) Children diagnosed with chronic asthma are likely to exhibit which symptoms?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Nasal flaring
B) Musical expiratory wheezing
C) Clubbing of fingers and toes
D) Substernal retractions
E) Diaphoresis
Q2) Upper trachea obstruction
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or monophonic wheeze
E)Inspiratory wheezes
Q3) Which symptom is not a clinical manifestation of croup?
A) Rhinorrhea
B) Sore throat
C) Low-grade fever
D) Barking cough
E) Coarse rhonchi
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?
A) 126 mg/dl
B) 150 mg/dl
C) 180 mg/dl
D) 200 mg/dl
Q2) Compared with a younger individual,how is the specific gravity of urine in older adults affected?
A) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is increased.
B) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is considered high normal.
C) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is considered low normal.
D) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is decreased.
Q3) When renin is released,it is capable of which action?
A) Inactivation of autoregulation
B) Direct activation of angiotensin II
C) Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) Formation of angiotensin I
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) When the right kidney is obstructed,how will the glomeruli and tubules in the left kidney compensate?
A) Increase in number
B) Increase in size
C) Develop collateral circulation
D) Increase speed of production
Q2) Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bilateral ureteral obstruction
B) Renal vasoconstriction
C) Renal artery thrombosis
D) Hemorrhage
E) Hypotension
Q3) Which glomerular lesion is characterized by thickening of the glomerular capillary wall with immune deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG)and C3?
A) Proliferative
B) Membranous
C) Mesangial
D) Crescentic
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Q1) What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A) Lysosomal enzymes
B) Endotoxins from Streptococcus
C) Immune complexes
D) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response
Q2) Which factors are involved in the development of hypospadias? (Select all that apply.)
A) Disruption in male hormones, including testosterone
B) Mutation of gene HP-1 (chromosome 16)
C) 5a-reductase mutations
D) Hormones administered for in vitro fertilization
E) Advanced maternal age
Q3) When does urine formation and excretion begin?
A) At birth
B) By 3 months' gestation
C) By 6 months' gestation
D) By 8 months' gestation
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) In the mouth and stomach,salivary a-amylase initiates the digestion of which nutrients?
A) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fats
D) Fiber
Q2) Which cells in the stomach secrete histamine?
A) Oxyntic
B) Chief
C) D
D) Enterochromaffin-like
Q3) The formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the by-products of lipid hydrolysis is accomplished by:
A) Micelles
B) Phospholipase
C) Chylomicrons
D) Colipase
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) Which are the early (prodromal)clinical manifestations of hepatitis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Vomiting
C) Itching
D) Splenomegaly
E) Hyperalgia
Q2) What term is used to identify frank bleeding of the rectum?
A) Melena
B) Hematochezia
C) Occult bleeding
D) Hematemesis
Q3) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q4) What is the most immediate result of a small intestinal obstruction?
A) Vomiting
B) Dehydration
C) Electrolyte imbalances
D) Distention
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) What causes a person with cystic fibrosis to experience an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
A) Pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus.
B) Impaired blood supply to the pancreas causes ischemia.
C) A genetically impaired pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes.
D) The pancreas has a volvulus at the ampulla of Vater.
Q2) An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain,becomes irritable (colicky),and draws up the knees.Vomiting occurs soon afterward.The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool,followed by one that looked like currant jelly.Based on these data,which disorder does the nurse suspect?
A) Congenital aganglionic megacolon
B) Intussusception
C) Malrotation
D) Volvulus
Q3) What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
A) All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in kwashiorkor.
B) Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus.
C) Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize kwashiorkor.
D) Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
A) Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
B) Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
C) Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
D) Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
Q2) Fibrin and platelets form a meshwork within the initial framework for healing.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q3) The joint that contains a synovial membrane that lines the inner joint capsule is an example of which type of joint?
A) Amphiarthrosis
B) Diarthrosis
C) Synarthrosis
D) Biarthrosis
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Chapter 44: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) Which structures are most often affected by Paget disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vertebrae
B) Skull
C) Sternum
D) Metacarpals
E) Pelvis
Q2) People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition?
A) Renal calculi
B) Joint trauma
C) Anemia
D) Hearing loss
Q3) How is rhabdomyolysis characterized?
A) Paralysis of skeletal muscles, resulting from an impaired nerve supply
B) Smooth muscle degeneration, resulting from ischemia
C) Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade
D) Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Which sign or symptom is a very late indication of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
A) Asymmetry of the gluteal or thigh folds
B) Leg-length discrepancy
C) Waddling gait
D) Pain
Q2) Onset occurs at approximately 3 years of age with rapid progression and frequently mental retardation.
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Myotonic dystrophy
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
Q3) The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?
A) Albumin
B) Blood urea nitrogen
C) Creatinine
D) Creatine
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Chapter 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) Which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine,bradykinin,or kallikrein from mast cells?
A) Dermatitis
B) Scleroderma
C) Urticaria
D) Cutaneous vasculitis
Q2) What is the first change in the skin that indicates a pressure ulcer?
A) Blanchable erythema of intact skin
B) Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
C) Blister at the site of pressure
D) Reddish-purple discoloration
Q3) A small (less than 1 cm)lesion with regular edges and bristlelike hairs with a color change that can range from skin tones to light brown characterize which form of nevus?
A) Junctional
B) Epidermal
C) Intradermal
D) Compound
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Chapter 47: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by which organism?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Herpesvirus
D) Candida albicans
Q2) Which contagious disease has clinical manifestations of burrows several millimeters to 1 cm long,papules,and vesicular lesions with severe itching that worsens at night?
A) Pediculosis
B) Tinea capitis
C) Scabies
D) Rubeola
Q3) Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?
A) Papular rash
B) High fever
C) Vesicles that burst and form crusts
D) Itching
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Chapter 48: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) Which clinical manifestation of septic shock confirms an elevation in immune system response?
A) Tachycardia
B) Increased white blood cell count
C) Low respiratory rate
D) Hypothermia
Q2) Hypovolemic shock begins to develop when intravascular volume has decreased by what percentage?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q3) Which form of shock is often more severe than other forms because of its sudden,rapid systemic vasodilation?
A) Septic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15732
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Q1) Which statements are true regarding how a child's body compensates for cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply.)
A) Splanchnic arteries are constricted to divert blood from the skin, kidneys, and gut to the heart and brain.
B) Peripheral blood vessels are constricted to raise blood pressure.
C) Adrenergic responses produce tachycardia to increase cardiac output.
D) The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is stimulated when renal function decreases.
E) Compensation prevents the child from developing hepatic or mesenteric failure.
Q2) What advantage do impregnated silver dressings have for patients with burn injuries?
A) Impregnated silver dressings contain natural-occurring collagens.
B) They require only one dressing change every other day.
C) Removal is less painful.
D) Impregnated silver dressings are cost effective.
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