Nursing Science
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Science is an interdisciplinary field that integrates principles of biology, behavioral sciences, and applied healthcare to prepare students for professional nursing practice. The course emphasizes evidence-based care, patient safety, clinical reasoning, and ethical decision-making. Students learn foundational concepts in anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, health assessment, and patient-centered care, while also exploring the roles and responsibilities of nurses in diverse healthcare settings. Through theoretical coursework and practical experiences, Nursing Science equips learners with the knowledge and skills necessary to promote health, prevent illness, and provide holistic care to individuals, families, and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72584
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most useful drug reference source for patients?
A) American Drug Index
B) American Hospital Formulary
C) Health on the Net Foundation
D) Physicians' Desk Reference
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
A) Drug Facts and Comparisons
B) Drug Interaction Facts
C) Handbook on Injectable Drugs
D) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
Answer: B
Q3) What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
A) List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
B) Omit the preclinical research phase.
C) Extend the clinical research phase.
D) Fast-track the investigational drug.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do drug blood levels indicate?
A) Confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug
B) Determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug
C) Verify if the patient is taking someone else's medications
D) Determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range
Answer: D
Q2) When obtaining a patient's health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism?
A) History of liver disease
B) Intake of a vegetarian diet
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Teacher as an occupation
Answer: A
Q3) Which best describes when drug interactions occur?
A) On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
B) On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
C) On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
D) On increase of drug excretion
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering an antibiotic intravenously. Which blood level determines the lowest amount of medication present in the patient?
A) Peak
B) Serum
C) Therapeutic
D) Trough
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 4-month-old child who is on a water-soluble medication for seizures. The child's mother voices concern that the dosage seems "too much" for the child's age and would like the dosage verified. What actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Verify dosage requirements in the PDR in mg/kg.
B) Compare the water composition requirements of adults and children.
C) Evaluate lean body mass and total fat content in adults and infants.
D) Chart "refused per mother" on the MAR and do not administer.
E) Compare transportation in the circulation of plasma-bound proteins between adults and children.
Answer: A, B
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding critical pathways? (Select all that apply.)
A) Efficient for specific diseases or case types
B) The same as medical plans
C) Standardized and enhance quality care
D) Evaluated less frequently than care plans
E) Enhance communication for a variety of health care providers
Q2) What is the basis of the NANDA-I taxonomy?
A) Functional health patterns
B) Human response patterns
C) Basic human needs
D) Pathophysiologic needs
Q3) Which type of nursing diagnosis will be written when the patient exhibits factors that makes them susceptible to the development of a problem?
A) Actual diagnosis
B) Risk diagnosis
C) Possible diagnosis
D) Wellness diagnosis
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is writing a teaching plan for a 30-year-old patient who has AIDS. Which objectives are written in the correct format? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient will state adverse effects of the daily medications before discharge.
B) The patient will correctly fill the daily medication pillbox with the correct medications in the appropriate time slots prior to discharge.
C) The patient will adjust the medications accordingly.
D) The patient will schedule an appointment with the infectious disease physician before discharge.
E) The patient will have lab tests performed regularly.
Q2) Which would positively affect readiness to learn?
A) Fear and denial
B) Willingness to attain an optimal level of health
C) Poor cognitive and motor development
D) Lack of trust and confidence in the staff
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 500 mL of solution containing 350 mL alcohol in water: _____
Q2) 1 1/2 - 7/11 = _____
Q3) 0.62 = _____, _____, _____
Q4) 4 - 0.8 = _____
Q5) 1 c = _____ oz
Q6) Which mathematical system is most accurate?
A) Apothecary
B) Household
C) Metric
D) Arabic
Q7) 19.83 - 4.51 = _____
Q8) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water. _____
Q9) 7/10 ÷ 3/5 = _____
Q10) 11/15 - 1/4 = _____
Q11) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____
Q12) xi = _____
Q13) 2 1/2 + 1 1/3 = _____
8
Q14) 1 tbs = _____ tsp
Q15) 5/12 \(\times\) 3/4 = _____
Q16) 1/0.5 = _____
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing assessment identifies that the client is nauseated and cannot take acetaminophen (Tylenol) orally. Which is true regarding the substitution of this medication to suppository form?
A) It is standard practice when the patient is unable to take the ordered medication.
B) It is acceptable if the patient agrees to the altered route form.
C) It is preferable to having the patient miss a dose of the medication.
D) It is contraindicated without an order from the health care provider.
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the types of medication orders? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stat orders are the same as single-dose orders.
B) Standing orders indicate the number of specified doses a medication is to be given.
C) Renewal orders facilitate physician review before continuance of high-risk medications.
D) PRN medications will designate a mandatory number of times the medication is to be administered.
E) Verbal orders should be used as much as possible.
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10
Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing assessment accurately describes the results of an intradermal skin test?
A) Itching and weeping
B) Erythema and induration
C) Swelling and coolness
D) Pallor and drainage
Q2) Where will the nurse administer a medication that was ordered to be given sublingually?
A) Between the molar teeth and cheek
B) Below the skin surface
C) Under the tongue
D) Into the conjunctival sac
Q3) Which orders are examples of percutaneous medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Timolol 0.5% 1 drop to each eye daily
B) Albuterol nebulizer 2.5 mg qid
C) Heparin 5000 units IV
D) Lasix 20 mg PO every AM
E) Silvadene 1% topically to affected area
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Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a characteristic of medication administration via the rectal route?
A) Irritation of the mouth
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Bypassing of the digestive enzymes
D) Use of the first-pass metabolism
Q2) Nasogastric medication administration includes which principles? (Select all that apply.)
A) The tube must be assessed for correct placement.
B) All medications can be combined into one syringe.
C) Tablets and capsules should be dissolved in water.
D) The suction source should be immediately reconnected.
E) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water after drug administration.
Q3) Which are common receptacles used in the hospital with pediatric oral medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral syringe
B) Baby bottle full of formula
C) Infant feeding nipple
D) Teaspoon
E) Medicine dropper
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syringe will the nurse use to administer insulin subcutaneously to a patient?
A) A syringe calibrated in minims
B) A syringe calibrated in units
C) A syringe calibrated in tenths of mL
D) A syringe calibrated in mL
Q2) Which action by the nurse is accurate when withdrawing medication into a syringe from a vial?
A) Inject an amount of air equal to the medication into the vial.
B) Break the thin neck of the vial container.
C) Remove the rubber stopper on the top of the vial.
D) Discard the initial 0.5 mL of medication to ensure sterility.
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering parenteral medication?
A) Adjust the route of the medication if needed.
B) Document the response to PRN medications at the end of the shift.
C) Request the pharmacist to provide education about the medication to the patient.
D) Use clinical judgment when rescheduling missed doses of a medication.
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration:
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the preferred intramuscular site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
Q2) Which assessment by the nurse is most important to obtain prior to performing allergy sensitivity testing?
A) Identify areas of loose connective tissue.
B) Question the patient about frequency of exercise.
C) Determine if the patient is using aspirin.
D) Palpate and measure the size of induration.
Q3) A 65-year-old man who weighs 180 lb (81.8 kg) is to receive 1.5 mL of a viscous antibiotic by intramuscular injection. Which needle and syringe will be used?
A) 5/8-inch, 25-gauge needle with 5-mL syringe
B) 1-inch, 28-gauge needle with 4-mL syringe
C) 1 1/2-inch, 21-gauge needle with 3-mL syringe
D) 3-inch, 16-gauge needle with 1.5-mL syringe
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse explain when teaching a patient about a PICC line? (Select all that apply.)
A) The catheter may have a single or double lumen.
B) There is greater risk of clotting and infiltration with this type of catheter.
C) The patient will be receiving infusions continuously to ensure patency.
D) The tip of the catheter may be open or valved.
E) The catheter may be used for drawing blood.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions. Which type of intravenous access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged-needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q3) Which condition would the nurse expect to be treated with an isotonic solution?
A) Fluid overload
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Cellular dehydration
D) Cerebral edema
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the initiation of anticholinergic medications, it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition?
A) Hypertension
B) Infectious diseases
C) Diabetes
D) Closed-angle glaucoma.
Q2) Which category of medications is used for peripheral vascular diseases characterized by excessive vasoconstriction, such as Raynaud's disease?
A) Adrenergic agents
B) Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
C) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
D) Cholinergic agents
Q3) Which statements are true about efferent nerves? (Select all that apply.)
A) They transmit signals to the spinal cord and brain.
B) They leave the CNS to carry impulses to other body parts.
C) They are part of the peripheral nervous system.
D) They transmit signals that control contractions of smooth and skeletal muscle.
E) They transmit signals that control contractions of some glandular secretions.
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Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sleep pattern stage diminishes as an effect of aging?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) For what conditions are benzodiazepines prescribed?
A) Chronic amnesia
B) Chronic insomnia
C) Preoperative sedation
D) Psychotic episodes
Q3) The nurse is explaining the use of medications to a patient with insomnia. Which statement about sedatives is true?
A) A sedative will produce sleep.
B) Sedatives increase the total time in REM sleep.
C) Increased relaxation occurs with sedatives.
D) Sedatives are more potent than hypnotics.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing information to a patient recently prescribed entacapone. Which statement is correct?
A) This medication is not to be taken with carbidopa-levodopa.
B) Dosage is adjusted according to the patient's response.
C) There will be fewer incidences of dopaminergic effects, such as confusion.
D) This medication increases the production of dopamine in the brain.
Q2) Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease?
A) Oculogyric crisis
B) Tardive dyskinesia
C) Sudden sleep events
D) Akathisia
Q3) Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs?
A) Cognitive impairments
B) Rigidity
C) Tremors and drooling
D) Postural abnormalities
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18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a benzodiazepine of choice when treating anxiety associated with alcohol withdrawal?
A) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B) Oxazepam (Serax)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Clorazepate (Tranxene)
Q2) Which drugs may increase the toxic effects of benzodiazepines? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alcohol
B) Antihistamines
C) Analgesics
D) Sedatives
E) Vitamins
F) Hypnotics
Q3) What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribed azaspirone antidepressant?
A) Risk for addiction
B) Adverse effect of nausea
C) Risk of injury when using machinery
D) Additive effects of CNS depression with alcohol
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which psychological manifestation of depression will improve in response to antidepressant therapy?
A) Loss of energy
B) Palpitations
C) Sleep disturbances
D) Social withdrawal
Q2) Which nursing action is most important when providing care to a patient diagnosed with a mood disorder?
A) Assess the patient for thoughts of suicide.
B) Provide supplemental feedings as needed.
C) Assist with activities of daily living.
D) Offer opportunities for interaction with other patients.
Q3) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for smoking cessation. Which statement by the patient would indicate the need for further teaching?
A) "My dose will increase after 3 days."
B) "I should swallow this medication whole."
C) "If I have the urge to smoke, I will take more medication."
D) "I do not need to taper my dose when the drug is discontinued."
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking clozapine (Clozaril) to have weekly blood tests for the first 6 months of treatment to monitor for which potential complication?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Vitamin deficiencies
C) Clotting abnormalities
D) Polycythemia
Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has been nonadherent with his home medication regimen. He requires frequent admissions to the intensive psychiatric unit for treatment of acute psychotic episodes. Which medication regimen would be appropriate for this patient?
A) Daily home nursing visits to administer the prescribed oral medication
B) Continuous inpatient hospitalization for medication therapy
C) Administration of depot antipsychotic medication
D) Subcutaneous medication administration
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures must be aware of the risk for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood dyscrasias
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Urinary retention
D) Gingival hyperplasia
E) Insomnia
F) Sedation
Q2) Which dose is within the acceptable range for administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient with a seizure disorder?
A) 5 mg/min
B) 30 mg/min
C) 60 mg/min
D) 100 mg/min
Q3) Which condition is associated with hydantoin therapy?
A) Postictal state
B) Atonia
C) Seizure threshold reduction
D) Gingival hyperplasia
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surgical patient is being discharged on propoxyphene (Darvon), a synthetic opiate agonist. Which discharge instructions will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Greater pain relief may be obtained if taken with acetaminophen or aspirin.
B) There is no danger of physiological or psychological dependency.
C) This drug should be taken when pain becomes intolerable.
D) Dizziness and gastric irritation are common adverse effects.
E) Uncontrolled pain should be reported to the physician.
Q2) What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the patient's opiate agonist?
A) Ability of the patient to tolerate more activity
B) Increased sleep time throughout the night
C) Reduction of respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths/min
D) Verbal report of 2 on a 1 to 10 scale
Q3) What term is used to define an awareness of pain?
A) Tolerance
B) Threshold
C) Perception
D) Sensation
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy diets should include no more than which percentage of saturated fat based on total calories?
A) 30
B) 10
C) 7
D) 2
Q2) Metabolic syndrome includes which key characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Abdominal obesity
C) Low high-density lipoproteins
D) Hypertension
E) Osteoporosis
Q3) Drug therapy for initial treatment of metabolic syndrome is targeted at controlling which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Obesity
E) Dyslipidemia
F) Insulin resistance
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutritional concepts are necessary to provide to patients receiving colestipol? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
B) Whole grains, raw fruits, and vegetables will minimize constipation.
C) Drink 8 to 10 8-ounce glasses of water daily to eliminate dehydration that is secondary to frequent loose stools.
D) Report signs of vitamin K deficiency, including bleeding gums, dark tarry stools, and coffee ground emesis.
E) Supplemental fat-soluble vitamins may be necessary.
Q2) The nurse has completed an admitting patient history and notes the patient's current medications to be simvastatin (Zocor) and warfarin (Coumadin). What is the result of the interaction of these drugs?
A) Abdominal distention
B) Increased INR
C) Low serum level of simvastatin
D) Hypertension
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does propranolol (Inderal) control hypertension?
A) Blocks alpha receptors throughout the body
B) Increases the diuretic response in the renal tubules
C) Reduces the sympathetic stimulation in cardiac muscle
D) Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Q2) The nurse instructs the patient to avoid the sudden discontinuation of beta-adrenergic blockers so as to avoid which symptom?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Edema
C) Increased angina
D) Confusion
Q3) Prior to the administration of a beta-adrenergic blocker, the nurse notes the patient to have a heart rate of 52 beats/min, peripheral edema, crackles in the bases of the lungs, and mottled skin. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Reevaluate the patient in 20 minutes.
C) Obtain a serum blood level.
D) Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider.
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26
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom will the nurse encourage the patient taking flecainide to report to the health care provider?
A) Headache
B) Dizziness
C) Constipation
D) Weight gain
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia. Which considerations should the nurse take into account before administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constant ECG monitoring is necessary.
B) Initial recommended dosage is 12-mg IV bolus.
C) Rapid IV bolus administration is recommended.
D) Saline flush following bolus is necessary.
E) Long half-life of adenosine may prolong adverse medication effects.
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the antidysrhythmic agent adenosine (Adenocard)?
A) It is synthesized from petroleum products.
B) It is created through recombinant DNA.
C) It is extracted from plants.
D) It is a naturally occurring chemical in the body.
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin prior to discharge to home. Which instruction will the nurse provide the patient?
A) "Report any headaches following self-administration to your health care provider."
B) "Carry the medication in a pocket directly next to the body."
C) "Carry the medication with you at all times."
D) "Store nitroglycerin in a clear glass container with a tight lid."
Q2) When are sustained-release nitroglycerin tablets administered?
A) Once a day
B) At bedtime
C) When symptoms of acute angina appear
D) Every 8 to 12 hours
Q3) The nurse is performing pain assessment on a patient admitted for evaluation of angina. Which type of angina is precipitated by physical exertion and is relieved by rest?
A) Chronic stable
B) Nocturnal
C) Unstable
D) Variant
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has recently been prescribed cilostazol (Pletal). Which statement by the patient indicates that this medication is effective?
A) "I have less leg cramping when I walk."
B) "My pulse rate is more regular."
C) "I have had fewer episodes of angina."
D) "My blood pressure has decreased."
Q2) The nurse is assessing the patient's leg for peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and is unable to palpate the pedal pulse in either foot. Which action will the nurse take first?
A) Contact the health care provider for further orders.
B) Request x-ray studies of the lower extremities.
C) Request that the patient lie flat.
D) Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.
Q3) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of heart disease
B) Smoking and dietary habits
C) Current medications
D) Weight
E) Limb pain
F) Mental status
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications may safely be administered to a patient on ticlopidine? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Acetylsalicylic acid
C) Propranolol (Inderal)
D) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
E) Furosemide (Lasix)
Q2) Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) To prevent stroke in patients at high risk
B) Following a myocardial infarction
C) Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery
D) With deep vein thrombosis
Q3) A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS. He is bleeding profusely. A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy. The nurse will most likely administer which medication that counteracts the action of heparin?
A) Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
B) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Vitamin K
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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19 Flashcards
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Q1) Which action of ACE inhibitors results in effective treatment of heart failure?
A) Increased afterload
B) Increased aldosterone
C) Increased preload
D) Increased cardiac output
Q2) Which is the initial manifestation of digoxin toxicity in children?
A) Hallucinations
B) Weakness
C) Atrial dysrhythmia
D) Diuresis
Q3) Which nursing assessment is most important to determine fluid status for a patient with heart failure?
A) Auscultation of lungs
B) Daily weights
C) Intake and output
D) Measurement of abdominal girth
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Q1) Which condition warrants the use of acetazolamide (Diamox) as a diuretic?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Increased extravascular fluid pressure
C) Increased intraocular pressure
D) Periorbital edema
Q2) Which individuals are particularly susceptible to the development of electrolyte disturbances during diuretic therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of cardiac disease
B) History of renal disease
C) History of hormonal disorders
D) History of psychiatric illness
E) Massive trauma
F) Serious burns
G) Overhydration
Q3) Which are common signs and symptoms of dehydration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Furrowed tongue
B) Decreased intake and output levels
C) Bounding pulse rate
D) Mental confusion
E) Elastic skin turgor
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Q1) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)
B) Prednisone (Deltasone)
C) Fluticasone (Flonase)
D) Flunisolide (Nasarel)
E) Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
Q2) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
Q3) Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Orbital edema
D) Facial flushing
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33
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) From where do the fluids of the respiratory tract originate?
A) Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells
B) Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis
C) Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans
D) Cells that produce aqueous humor
Q2) A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best?
A) "It will eliminate your cough at night."
B) "It will reduce the frequency of your cough."
C) "It should be used in the morning."
D) "It should be taken before sleep."
Q3) A patient is seen in the emergency department. The patient had been maintained on theophylline (Theo-Dur), and a blood sample reveals the serum theophylline level is subtherapeutic. Which may cause a subtherapeutic serum level?
A) Cimetidine use
B) Drug tolerance
C) Smoking
D) Overuse of the inhaler
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34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is undergoing bone marrow transplantation has developed severe mucositis. Which treatment options may promote comfort? (Select all that apply.)
A) 2% viscous lidocaine (Xylocaine) before meals
B) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) therapy as needed
C) Commercially prepared mouthwashes
D) Docosanol (Abreva) therapy
E) Milk of Magnesia mouth rinses
Q2) What infection is often called the "disease of the diseased" because it appears in debilitated patients?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Brucellosis
Q3) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that a patient has sucralfate ordered qid. When is the best time to administer this medication?
A) 1 hour before meals
B) With meals
C) 1 hour after meals
D) With a bedtime snack
Q2) Which drug therapy is aimed at reducing gastric acid secretions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prokinetic agents
B) Antacids
C) H2 antagonists
D) Proton pump inhibitors
E) Coating agents
Q3) Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
A) Heartburn
B) Rebound indigestion
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhea
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy. Which consideration will the nurse take into account?
A) Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.
B) Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess.
C) Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage.
D) Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.
Q2) What is an advantage of using benzodiazepines as an adjunctive treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy?
A) The long half-life will prolong the effectiveness of other drugs.
B) They increase a sense of euphoria.
C) The patient will not develop tolerance to the medications as quickly.
D) The antianxiety effect helps, in addition to reducing the frequency of nausea and vomiting.
Q3) The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) THC (Marinol)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Dexamethasone (Prednisone)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of a stimulant laxative?
A) Draws water into the bowel to facilitate the passage of feces
B) Lubricates the intestinal wall and soften stool
C) Increases bulk and stimulate peristalsis
D) Irritates the intestine directly, promoting peristalsis and evacuation
Q2) An older adult is admitted through the emergency department with complaints of nausea, abdominal tenderness, and continual stooling. On assessment, the nurse notes abdominal distention, smearing of stool on undergarments, and hypoactive bowel sounds LUQ and LLQ. The patient is unable to determine when the last bowel movement was. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
A) Signs and symptoms of an infection
B) An impaction
C) A pattern of laxative abuse
D) History of gastrointestinal disease
Q3) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?
A) "Administer with a full glass of water."
B) "Limit the intake of high-fiber foods."
C) "Avoid mixing in juice."
D) "Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency is common."
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old man is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which patient symptoms would indicate type 1 diabetes mellitus, and not type 2? (Select all that apply.)
A) Impotence
B) Increased thirst over the past week
C) A 10-pound weight loss within the past month
D) Polyphagia
E) Ketoacidosis
Q2) What test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks?
A) 24-hour glucose clearance test
B) Fructosamine test
C) Fasting blood sugar
D) A<sub>1c</sub> test
Q3) After a blood glucose reading, it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH. Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications?
A) Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections.
B) Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe.
C) Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal.
D) Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.
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Page 39
Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A) Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B) Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C) Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D) Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis may be identified for a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A) Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements
B) Constipation
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Airway Clearance
Q3) A patient recently completed radiation treatment for throat cancer and presents to the health care provider's office with symptoms indicating possible hypothyroidism. Which symptoms would most likely be exhibited and/or reported? (Select all that apply.)
A) Inability to sleep
B) Weight gain
C) Lethargy
D) Nervousness
E) Cold intolerance
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on a high dosage of corticosteroids over a period of time may develop which type of psychiatric complication?
A) Lethargy
B) Psychotic behaviors
C) Manic phases
D) Anxiety attacks
Q2) Which are appropriate measures for monitoring hydration and fluid balance in the patient on steroid therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Daily weights
B) Abdominal girth measurements
C) Reports of thirst
D) Neurologic assessment
E) Assessment for alteration in skin integrity
Q3) What are the primary therapeutic outcomes expected from fludrocortisone (Florinef) therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced inflammation
B) Pain relief
C) Blood pressure control
D) Restored fluid and electrolyte balance
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is most important for the nurse to remember when instructing the patient about treatment with gonadal hormones?
A) Dosage, schedule, and adverse effects
B) Cost, storage, and route of administration
C) Drug interactions and food interactions
D) Scheduling follow-up appointments and lab studies
Q2) A female patient with a history of endometriosis presents with bilateral lower quadrant pain reportedly at midcycle. Which gonadal drug is indicated for treating symptoms of endometriosis?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Androgens
D) Gonadotropins
Q3) The nurse is teaching a young woman about birth control pills. For which situation will the patient need to seek immediate follow-up with the health care provider?
A) Breakthrough bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Missed dose
D) Light menstrual flow
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Page 42
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is used to treat a patient with atonic uterus?
A) Estradiol
B) Ergonovine
C) Ergotamine
D) Egophony
Q2) Which test would the nurse anticipate to be done to determine if preterm labor is present in a patient whose symptoms are questionable?
A) Sonogram
B) Fetal fibronectin test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Doppler study
Q3) Which drug will the health care provider prescribe to soften the cervix of a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B) Dinoprostone (Prepidil)
C) Betamethasone (Celestone)
D) Terbutaline (Brethine)
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43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the minipill as an oral contraceptive?
A) Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and break-through bleeding
B) Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness
C) Increased estrogen-related adverse effects
D) Difficulty breast-feeding after pregnancy
Q2) A patient states that she has a difficult time remembering when to resume her triphasic contraceptive pills following her menses. Which alternative plan will the nurse suggest that she discuss with her health care provider?
A) Changing to the 28-day packet
B) Using the inert pills every other month
C) Changing her prescription to the minipill
D) Calling the health care provider whenever she forgets to get appropriate instruction
Q3) What is the mechanism whereby estrogen functions as a contraceptive?
A) Inhibiting LH, blocking release of ovum from a follicle
B) Thinning cervical mucus, which inhibits sperm migration
C) Trapping the ovum in the endometrial wall, preventing its growth
D) Blocking FSH, thereby preventing release of ovum
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking an antimicrobial agent prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection for 2 days. She contacts the health care provider's office to report persistence of symptoms. In evaluating the medication effectiveness, which assessments would be important to inquire about? (Select all that apply.)
A) Complete emptying of the bladder
B) Amount of pain with urination as well as frequency
C) Amount of daily fluid intake and output
D) GI symptom complaints
E) Bleeding with urination
F) Persistence of nocturia
Q2) Which interventions help stimulate urination when a patient is experiencing postoperative urinary retention? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reinforcing Kegel exercises
B) Administration of bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
C) Pouring warm water over the perineum
D) Increasing IV fluids
E) Urinary catheterization
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q2) Which type of medication would be used to dilate the pupils before an eye examination?
A)Osmotics
B)Adrenergic agent
C)Beta-adrenergic agent
D)Corticosteroid
Q3) A patient recently diagnosed with glaucoma is to begin drug therapy with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. About which assessment would the nurse need to contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrolyte levels
B) Any signs of gastric symptoms before initiating drug therapy
C) Allergy to sulfonamides
D) Patient history of menopause
E) Elevated intraocular pressure levels
Page 46
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education about chemotherapy to a patient who is being discharged. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will shave with an electric razor."
B) "I will take aspirin for a headache."
C) "I will wash my laundry separate from other family members."
D) "I will flush the toilet twice after using."
Q2) When are cancer cells most sensitive to chemotherapy?
A) Resting phases
B) Rapid division
C) Remission intervals
D) Slow replication
Q3) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the reasons that neuromuscular blocking agents are used? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alleviation of pain
B) Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics
C) Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm
D) Producing amnesia during painful procedures
E) Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy
Q2) Which symptoms will be most important for the nurse to assess for early signs of respiratory distress in the patient who has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent?
A) Nasal flaring and retraction of intercostal muscles
B) Dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and cyanosis
C) Restlessness, anxiety, and lethargy
D) Pallor, stridor, and diaphoresis
Q3) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms secondary to a back injury?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine sulfate
C) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
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Page 48
Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult with a history of asthma, rhinitis, and no known drug allergies has been admitted to receive IV antimicrobial therapy for bronchitis. The patient has received the oral form of the antimicrobial agent in the past. Which factors increase the risk for an allergic reaction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medical history of asthma
B) The patient's age
C) IV antimicrobial therapy
D) Medical history of rhinitis
E) Subsequent use of the same antimicrobial therapy
Q2) On what is the selection of an antimicrobial agent based?
A) Sensitivity of the microorganism to the drug
B) Half-life of the medication
C) Therapeutic levels of the drug
D) Bioavailability of the drug
Q3) What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss?
A) Ear infection
B) Drug allergy
C) Ototoxicity
D) Idiosyncratic reaction
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which equation is used to calculate the basal energy expenditure (BEE) in kilocalories per day?
A) Henderson-Hasselbalch
B) Quadratic
C) Harris-Benedict
D) Stein-Leventhal
Q2) Which is a macronutrient that is a separate factor necessary for complete nutrition and wellness?
A) A phytochemical
B) A trace mineral
C) Fiber
D) A vitamin
Q3) How are essential fatty acids used in the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Building cell membranes
B) Energy production
C) Prostaglandin production
D) Catalyzing metabolic reactions
E) Eicosanoid production
F) Stimulation of growth hormone
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Page 50
Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aloe gel for topical use has been marketed to treat which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sunburn
B) Psoriasis
C) Migraine headaches
D) Pain and inflammation
E) Itching
Q2) What is the primary use of echinacea?
A) Reduce premenstrual symptoms
B) Decrease blood pressure
C) Stimulate the immune system
D) Increase energy
Q3) What is St. John's wort used to treat?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Asthma
C) Depression
D) Viral infections
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51
Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonidine (Catapres) is used in treating which opioid withdrawal symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Tremors
C) Agitation
D) Depression
E) Sweating
F) Nausea
Q2) A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol. Which action by the nurse is most important?
A) "Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague.
B) Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license.
C) It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved.
D) State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
Q3) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
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Page 52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted for hepatic encephalopathy and is being treated with lactulose. Which assessment by the nurse indicates that the medication is effective?
A) Normal electrolyte level
B) Improved mental status
C) Increased urinary output
D) Decreased pain level
Q2) A patient recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease is placed on memantine (Namenda). The family asks why this medication is given. Which explanations by the nurse are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Memantine prevents the neurodegeneration of the disease.
B) Memantine improves word recall.
C) Memantine increases the ability to do tasks.
D) Memantine improves sleep.
E) Memantine increases appetite.
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of memantine (Namenda)?
A) Increases production of dopamine
B) Decreases production of serotonin
C) Blocks NDMA receptors in the CNS
D) Enhances reuptake of central neurotransmitters
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