Nursing Science and Genomics
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Science and Genomics explores the integration of genetic and genomic concepts into nursing practice, emphasizing their significance in patient care, disease prevention, and health promotion. The course covers foundational genomics principles, the impact of genetic variation on health outcomes, and ethical, legal, and social considerations related to genetic information. Students learn to assess genetic risk, interpret genomic data, and apply personalized care strategies, preparing them to collaborate with interdisciplinary teams and advocate for patients in the rapidly evolving field of genomic medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a chromosome centromere?
A)Connecting sister chromatids to form a chromosome
B)Preventing the chromosome arm tips from unraveling
C)Allowing chromatids to separate during DNA replication
D)Ensuring that DNA replication proceeds only in the 3'-to-5' direction
Answer: A
Q2) What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and bandingpatterns are normal?
A)Pedigree
B)Phenotype
C)Karyotype
D)Autotype
Answer: C
Q3) What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand?
A)Linking the nucleotides into a strand
B)Holding complementary strands together
C)Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine
D)Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which factor has the greatest influence on protein tertiary structure?
A)The presence of a poly-A tail
B)The specific amino acids that are in close proximity to each other
C)Bond formation between amino acids that are distant from each other
D)The number and position of additional proteins needed to form the complex structure
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement about single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) is true?
A)SNPs can change an exon sequence into an intron sequence.
B)SNPs can change an intron sequence into an exon sequence.
C)SNPs are generally responsible for frameshift mutations.
D)SNPs are generally responsible for point mutations.
Answer: D
Q3) Why are people who have poor DNA repair mechanisms at greater risk for cancer development?
A)Their cancers are usually resistant to chemotherapy.
B)Their somatic mutations are more likely to be permanent.
C)They have greater exposure to environmental carcinogens.
D)They have sustained a mutational event in all cells and tissues.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the expected response to a skin injury if the involved tissue had lost the normal cell characteristic of contact inhibition?
A)Failure of the wound to close
B)Excessive growth of replacement tissue
C)Replacement with scar tissue rather than skin
D)Displacement of skin cells into other body tissues
Answer: B
Q2) Which event occurs during mitosis?
A)Homologous chromosomes synapse and then cross over.
B)The number of chromosomes decreases from diploid to haploid.
C)Daughter cells are produced that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
D)DNA density decreases, and the 46 separate pieces assemble into one linear strand.
Answer: C
Q3) How many mature ovum result from the complete oogenesis of one oogonium?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which statement regarding inheritance of an autosomal-dominant gene allele with known variability in expressivity is true?
A)A person with low expressivity of the trait has a higher probability of having a child who does not express the trait at all.
B)A person with high expressivity of the trait has a greater risk of having a child who expresses the trait to an even greater degree.
C)The degree of expressivity of a given autosomal-dominant trait with known variability cannot be predicted by analyzing parental expression.
D)The degree of expressivity of a given autosomal-dominant trait with known variability is greater when the transmitting parent is the same sex as the child.
Q2) In which situation are phenotype and genotype always the same?
A)X-linked-recessive traits
B)X-linked-dominant traits
C)Autosomal-recessive traits
D)Autosomal-dominant traits
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Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression
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Q1) Which term or phrase is used to describe the ability of the environment to cause different phenotypes to develop from the same genotype?
A)Developmental plasticity
B)Histone modification
C)Phenotype variability
D)Nutrigenomics
Q2) How is alcohol consumption thought to increase methylation in cancer suppressor genes to increase the risk for head and neck cancer?
A)Preventing DNA repair
B)Enhancing cell division
C)Acting as a methyl donor
D)Activating select oncogenes
Q3) Which statement about the microbiome is true?
A)The microbiome does not undergo further changes after development is complete.
B)With aging, its influence on health is reduced.
C)The microbiome is necessary for good health.
D)Identical twins have identical microbiomes.
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Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders
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Q1) Which statement regarding partial chromosomal deletions or duplications reflects the cause of manifestations?
A)They result in either a triple dose of some gene alleles or a single dose of some alleles.
B)They usually result in fewer or milder manifestations than do trisomies or monosomies.
C)The manifestations are unpredictable because they commonly vary depending on parental origin.
D)General prenatal chromosomal analysis has resulted in fewer children being born with these problems.
Q2) For a person who has any type of chromosomal abnormality, what factor(s) has/have the greatest impact on both physical and cognitive potential?
A)Prenatal testing and diagnosis
B)The number of affected family members
C)Personal family environment and social interaction
D)The number of chromosomes involved with the abnormality
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8
Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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Q1) Which trait or characteristic in a 10-year-old-girl would lead her pediatrician to consider the possibility of androgen insensitivity syndrome?
A)Her ears are large and stick out.
B)She is color-blind, and her father is not.
C)She is an inch taller than her siblings were at age 10.
D)Her nipples and breasts have not started to change and develop.
Q2) Which type of problem results from mutations in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)?
A)Reduced cellular energy
B)Balanced translocations
C)Excessive "crossing over"
D)Single-nucleotide polymorphisms
Q3) Which health screening activity is most important for girls and women with Turner syndrome?
A)Mammography
B)Test for osteoarthritis
C)Blood pressure screening
D)Pulmonary function testing
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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Q1) What does a double horizontal line between a circle symbol and a square symbol as the only line directly connecting two individuals signify on a pedigree?
A)The individuals are parent and child.
B)The individuals are related by blood.
C)The individuals are brother and sister.
D)The individuals have mated without being married.
Q2) Why is a pedigree considered an "unstable" product?
A)The person collecting the information may not be a genetics professional.
B)Some family members may have lied about their reproductive history.
C)The memories of older family members may be inaccurate.
D)The health of living family members continues to evolve.
Q3) Which observations in a pedigree indicate a probable autosomal-dominant (AD) trait transmission?
A)Affected males and females appear in every generation.
B)The pedigree shows only one affected individual.
C)The trait appears to "skip" generations.
D)Only males are affected.
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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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Q1) How does genetic assessment differ from routine physical assessment?
A)Routine physical assessment relies on personal history, and genetic assessment relies on the recorded family history.
B)Genetic assessment requires only inspection, and routine physical assessment involves inspection, palpation, and auscultation.
C)Genetic assessment encompasses routine physical assessment and always adds the consideration of genetic causes for findings.
D)Routine physical assessment is performed by all health-care professionals, and genetic assessment is performed only by genetic professionals.
Q2) How is a congenital anomaly that requires intervention or management categorized?
A)A dysmorphology
B)A major anomaly
C)A minor anomaly
D)A disruption
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11
Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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Q1) How are the two mucopolysaccharide disorders Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome different?
A)Hurler syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder, and Hunter syndrome is autosomal recessive.
B)Hunter syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder, and Hurler syndrome is autosomal recessive.
C)Individuals with Hurler syndrome become cognitively impaired in early childhood, whereas those with Hunter syndrome often retain intellectual ability until later in life.
D)Individuals with Hunter syndrome become cognitively impaired in early childhood, whereas those with Hurler syndrome often retain intellectual ability until later in life.
Q2) Which manifestation is most common among individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta type I?
A)Short stature
B)Premature birth
C)Skull deformities
D)Blue-tinged sclerae
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12
Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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Q1) For individuals who have increased genetic susceptibility for type 1 diabetes, what is the most common environmental trigger for disease expression?
A)Obesity and a sedentary lifestyle
B)Exposure to radiation
C)Premature birth
D)Viral infection
Q2) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A)Asian Americans
B)African Americans
C)Hispanic Americans
D)European Americans
Q3) Which statement regarding classic hemophilia is true?
A)Females are not affected.
B)Because hemophilia is X-linked recessive, females are affected, and males are carriers.
C)Because hemophilia is X-linked recessive, males are affected, and females are carriers.
D)The sons of women who are older than age 40 when pregnant are at an increased risk for hemophilia.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders
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Q1) Which type of diabetes has a slow onset and is often diagnosed in North American only when a complication is present?
A)Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B)Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C)Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
D)Gestational diabetes mellitus
Q2) Which relatively common adult-onset disorder or health problem is the result of a mutation in a single gene?
A)Type 2 diabetes
B)Multiple sclerosis
C)Hereditary hemochromatosis
D)Age-related macular degeneration
Q3) Which autoimmune disorder has the greatest environmental contribution?
A)Stickler syndrome
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Multiple sclerosis
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Q1) What is the most accurate classification of the common forms of coronary artery disease and hypertension?
A)Secondary disorders caused by lifestyle choices
B)Sequential genetic disorders related to age, ethnicity, and gender
C)Complex disorders resulting from gene-environment interactions
D)Primary disorders with an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance
Q2) Your patient has been diagnosed with long QT syndrome (LQTS). What do you know about this heart rhythm problem?
A)LQTS is a congenital genetic disease that will be evident during the first 2 years of life.
B)It is relatively rare and often caused by private mutations.
C)LQTS is treated in the same way, no matter the cause.
D)Deafness always accompanies LQTS.
Q3) Which physical finding in a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
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Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Which statement best describes the role of tumor suppressor genes in cancer development?
A)Tumor suppressor genes control or modify the activity of oncogenes, reducing the risk for cancer development.
B)The presence of tumor suppressor genes increases the risk for gene damage by environmental carcinogens.
C)Tumor suppressor genes reduce/suppress immune function, increasing the risk for cancer development.
D)Tumor suppressor genes are a type of oncogene that is only active in germline cells and tissues.
Q2) By which process does "initiation" assist in cancer development?
A)Enhancing the cell division of cells damaged by a carcinogen
B)Inflicting mutations at specific sites on the exposed cell's DNA
C)Increasing the transformed cell's capacity for error-free DNA repair
D)Making cancer cells appear more normal and escaping immunosurveillance
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Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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Q1) Why is direct-to-consumer marketing of diagnostic tests for mental illness and behavioral problems a dangerous practice?
A)Because the tests are expensive and not ordered by a health-care provider, they are not covered by insurance.
B)The tests are not predictive of which psychiatric medications are most likely to be beneficial to a specific individual.
C)People using such tests may not receive professional counseling for interpretation of results and accurate risk assessment.
D)These tests are often misused by employers to support the dismissal of employees who express opinions that are different from those of the company.
Q2) At what point in human development is the phenotype of schizophrenia most likely to manifest?
A)Between birth and 10 years
B)At the onset of puberty
C)At adolescence or early adulthood
D)With the onset of the physical decline associated with older age
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17
Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?
A)Cytogenetic testing
B)Preimplantation testing
C)Predictive testing
D)Electropherogram testing
Q2) How is cell-free DNA (cdDNA) testing being used clinically?
A)To determine a person's risk for developing breast cancer
B)As an inexpensive alternative to standard paternity testing
C)As a less invasive way to determine the characteristics of cancer cells
D)As a way to determine whether a specific suspect has committed a rape
Q3) Which genetic-based disorders can be initially identified by the most common types of newborn blood screening? Select all that apply.
A)Congenital hypothyroidism
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Galactosemia
D)Hereditary hemochromatosis
E)Phenylketonuria
F)Sickle cell disease
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Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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Q1) A patient is identified as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6. What effect will this have on the patient's ability tobenefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?
A)Intended responses increase, whereas side effects decrease.
B)Intended responses decrease, whereas side effects increase.
C)Both intended responses and side effects increase.
D)Both intended responses and side effects decrease.
Q2) A patient has a very high concentration of insulin receptors on cells that require insulin for glucose to enter. How should insulin dosages be adjusted for this patient to have blood glucose levels within the normal range?
A)Insulin dosages should be given less frequently because the drug will remain bound to receptors longer.
B)Insulin dosages should be decreased because the drug will exert its actions at lower concentrations.
C)Insulin dosages should be given more frequently because the drug will be eliminated at a faster rate.
D)Insulin dosages should be increased because cells will be less sensitive to the presence of active insulin.
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Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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Q1) Why do genetic counseling programs include extensive courses on laboratory methods in genetics?
A)So that the certified genetics counselor can serve as a backup genetics technician in small laboratories
B)So that the certified genetics counselor can perform standard karyotyping on routine blood specimens
C)So that the certified genetics counselor can help patients understand testing procedures and results
D)So that the certified genetics counselor is able to draw blood proficiently and safely
Q2) Which activity would a general registered nurse be expected to perform as part of genomic care?
A)Calculating recurrence risk for parents who have just had a child with nondisjunction Down syndrome
B)Informing a patient that his test results are positive for a genetic disorder
C)Obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data
D)Requesting a consultation visit from a clinical geneticist
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Chapter
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Q1) What should be told to the patient who has been found to have a genetic mutation that increases the risk for colon cancer and says he does not want any of hisfamilytoknow about this result?
A)"It is required by law that you inform your siblings and your children about this result so that they also can be tested and monitored for colon cancer."
B)"It is not necessary to tell your siblings because they are adults, but you should tell your children so that they can be tested before they decide to have children of their own."
C)"It is not required that you tell anyone about this result; however, because your siblings and children may also be at risk for colon cancer, you should think about how this information might help them."
D)"It is your decision to determine with whom, if anyone, you share this test result; however, if you do not tell any of your family members and they get colon cancer, you would be responsible for their development of the disease."
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Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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Q1) What criteria must a population meet in order to stay in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)Random mating, no migration, and no mutation
B)Founding commonalities and no haplotype differences
C)Assortative mating, migration, and frequent mutation
D)Limited procreation, no diet change
Q2) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?
A)Mitochondrial DNA
B)Nuclear DNA
C)Ribosomal DNA
D)Histone proteins
Q3) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
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