Nursing Research Test Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Research is a foundational course that introduces students to the principles and methods of scientific inquiry in nursing practice. The course explores research design, data collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination of findings, emphasizing the critical appraisal of existing literature and the ethical dimensions of nursing research. Students learn how to formulate research questions, review literature, and utilize evidence-based practice to improve patient outcomes. The course equips future nurses with the skills to integrate research findings into clinical decision-making, fostering a culture of continuous improvement and lifelong learning in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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20 Chapters
432 Verified Questions
432 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/201
Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2914
Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of bases in a stretch of double-stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G) bases would be adenine (A)?
A)70%
B)60%
C)30%
D)20%
Answer: D
Q2) Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?
A)The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.
B)Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.
C)Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.
D)One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother, and one is inherited from the father.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an acquired mutation in a somatic cell gene leading to cancer development affect a person's ability to pass on a predisposition for that cancer typeto hisorher children?
A)The predisposition can only be passed on if the person with the somatic cell mutation is female.
B)There is no risk of passing on a cancer predisposition to one's children from a somatic cell mutation.
C)The risk for predisposition is dependent on which tissue type experienced the somatic mutation.
D)Multiple somatic mutations are required for passing on a predisposition to cancer development.
Answer: B
Q2) Which process occurs outside of the nucleus?
A)DNA transcription
B)RNA transcription
C)Splicing out of introns
D)Translation of mRNA
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation,
and
Gametogenesis
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do cyclins influence the process of cell division?
A)Suppressing oncogene products and inhibiting movement through the cell cycle
B)Generating transcription factors and promoting differentiated functions
C)Promoting apoptosis and allowing programmed cellular "suicide"
D)Opposing suppressor gene products and promoting cell division
Answer: D
Q2) Which normal cell characteristic is represented by the production of insulin in the beta cells of the pancreas?
A)Performance of a differentiated function
B)Ability to undergo apoptosis on schedule
C)Tight regulation of cell division
D)Conservation of energy
Answer: A
Q3) Which event characterizes embryonic commitment?
A)Meiotic cell division
B)Selective loss of genes
C)Increased suppressor gene activity
D)Progressive increase in nuclear size
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is a criterion for an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance of a specific trait or characteristic that is highly penetrant?
A)Carriers for the trait may express it but do not necessarily express the trait.
B)Unaffected family members do not transmit the trait to their children.
C)Genotypes of individuals expressing the trait must be homozygous.
D)The trait appears only among male offspring of female carriers.
Q2) If there are 10 possible alleles for the single-gene trait of nose shape, how many alleles can a person with euploid chromosomes inherit from his or her biological parents?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)5
Q3) In which situation are phenotype and genotype always the same?
A)X-linked-recessive traits
B)X-linked-dominant traits
C)Autosomal-recessive traits
D)Autosomal-dominant traits
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Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does microRNA "silence" gene expression?
A)Preventing cytoplasm from coming into contact with the gene
B)Surrounding mRNA and preventing attachment of ribosomes
C)Binding to mRNA and keeping it double stranded
D)Substituting a thymine for uracil
Q2) How is alcohol consumption thought to increase methylation in cancer suppressor genes to increase the risk for head and neck cancer?
A)Preventing DNA repair
B)Enhancing cell division
C)Acting as a methyl donor
D)Activating select oncogenes
Q3) Which term or phrase is used to describe the ability of the environment to cause different phenotypes to develop from the same genotype?
A)Developmental plasticity
B)Histone modification
C)Phenotype variability
D)Nutrigenomics
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7
Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which autosomal condition or syndrome commonly features a cleft lip and palate?
A)Angelman syndrome
B)Cri du chat
C)Edward syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q2) Which statement regarding partial chromosomal deletions or duplications reflects the cause of manifestations?
A)They result in either a triple dose of some gene alleles or a single dose of some alleles.
B)They usually result in fewer or milder manifestations than do trisomies or monosomies.
C)The manifestations are unpredictable because they commonly vary depending on parental origin.
D)General prenatal chromosomal analysis has resulted in fewer children being born with these problems.
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8
Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which trait or characteristic in a 10-year-old-girl would lead her pediatrician to consider the possibility of androgen insensitivity syndrome?
A)Her ears are large and stick out.
B)She is color-blind, and her father is not.
C)She is an inch taller than her siblings were at age 10.
D)Her nipples and breasts have not started to change and develop.
Q2) Which type of problem results from mutations in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)?
A)Reduced cellular energy
B)Balanced translocations
C)Excessive "crossing over"
D)Single-nucleotide polymorphisms
Q3) What would be the expected consequence to two daughter cells after mitosis if the ability to produce mitochondria was lost?
A)Cell commitment and differentiation would fail to occur.
B)The process of protein synthesis could not be controlled.
C)The rate and amount of ATP production would be limited.
D)Future cell division would result in an uneven number of cells.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pair of relatives represents a first-degree relationship?
A)Grandfather and grandson
B)Aunt and nephew
C)Sister and brother
D)Two cousins
Q2) What is the best way to ensure completeness and accuracy in constructing a pedigree?
A)Eliminating the contributed information from any family member who is cognitively impaired.
B)Asking the oldest person in the kindred to provide the familial information.
C)Having several family members work together to develop the pedigree.
D)Using a template for drawing the symbols.
Q3) What is the significance of a pedigree symbol consisting of a square with a diagonal slash mark through it?
A)Affected female
B)Affected male
C)Deceased female
D)Deceased male
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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and
Genetic Assessment
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What mechanism results in the malformation of cleft lip?
A)An abnormal developmental process
B)An abnormal organization of cells
C)A mechanical process
D)The breakdown of an originally normal developmental process
Q2) Which condition in a newborn should be described as a deformation if it is the only abnormal finding?
A)A unilateral clubfoot
B)A sealed (imperforate) anus
C)The absence of a thyroid gland
D)The presence of six toes on each foot
Q3) When geneticists assess dysmorphology, what do they consider?
A)The "gestalt"
B)The general feel and overall appearance of the patient
C)Specific dysmorphic features, such as the shape of the face and the position of the ears
D)All of the above
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance fails to form normally in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
A)Elastin
B)Glycogen
C)Collagen
D)Fibrillin
Q2) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of a mutation in the PAH gene?
A)Ashkenazi Jews
B)French Canadians from the Quebec area
C)Celts from Ireland and Scotland
D)Africans from equatorial areas
Q3) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of Gaucher disease?
A)Ashkenazi Jews
B)Asian Americans
C)American Indians
D)Individuals of Mediterranean descent
Q4) What is the pathologic basis of Fabry disease?
A)Increased degradation of globotriaosylceramide
B)Increased accumulation of globotriaosylceramide
C)Deficiency in the number of liver lysosomes
D)Excessive number of liver lysosomes
12
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Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2924
Sample Questions
Q1) Which relative of a patient who has cystic fibrosis has the correct risk for being a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A)Sister 0%
B)Mother 50%
C)Father 100%
D)Brother 100%
Q2) For individuals who have increased genetic susceptibility for type 1 diabetes, what is the most common environmental trigger for disease expression?
A)Obesity and a sedentary lifestyle
B)Exposure to radiation
C)Premature birth
D)Viral infection
Q3) Which statement about achondroplasia is true?
A)Females are affected twice as often as males.
B)The affected infant's appearance at birth is normal.
C)The protein impaired by the mutation is the receptor for fibroblast growth factor.
D)Transmission is less of a problem among males with achondroplasia because they are usually infertile.
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Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a man with hereditary hemochromatosis has children with a woman who is a carrier for the disorder, what is the expected risk pattern?
A)All sons will be affected; all daughters will be carriers.
B)Daughters have a 50% risk for being affected; all sons will either be affected or carriers.
C)Each child of either gender has a 50% risk of being a carrier and a 50% risk of having the disease.
D)Each child of either gender has a 50% risk of being a carrier, a 25% risk of having the disease, and a 25% risk of neither being a carrier nor having the disease.
Q2) Which genetic disorder is associated with an increased risk for type 2 diabetes?
A)Achondroplasia
B)Down syndrome
C)Huntington disease
D)Hereditary hemochromatosis
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2926
Sample Questions
Q1) What do the known monogenic disorders that result in the expression of hypertension have in common?
A)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to contract
B)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to relax
C)Excessive kidney reabsorption of sodium
D)Excessive kidney excretion of potassium
Q2) Why is determining the genetic contribution to the onset of stroke difficult?
A)Stroke classification and phenotype remain heterogeneous.
B)Comorbidities mask the symptoms and delay the diagnosis.
C)Environmental risk factors have equal contribution to the problem.
D)Often the person with a stroke cannot provide accurate family information.
Q3) Which statement about atrial fibrillation is correct?
A)It is the most common genetic cardiac disorder worldwide.
B)A variety of different genes can contribute to its expression.
C)It is found exclusively in adults over 60 years old.
D)When severe, it leads to long QT syndrome.
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15
Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2927
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about a "germline" mutation in either a cancer suppressor gene or an oncogene is accurate?
A)Cancer risk is increased only in sex hormone-sensitive tissues.
B)The gene now has expressive potential but not penetrant potential.
C)Cancer risk increases, but additional mutations are required for cancer development.
D)A person inheriting such a mutation has a 100% risk for developing a specific cancer type.
Q2) Which type of body tissue has the highest risk for cancer development?
A)Bone tissue because its absorption of radiation is cumulative
B)Connective tissue that remains functional throughout life
C)Brain tissue because it does not respond well to injury
D)Any tissue that retains the ability to divide
Q3) By which process does "promotion" assist in cancer development?
A)Inflicting mutations at specific sites on the exposed cell's DNA
B)Stimulating or enhancing cell division of cells damaged by a carcinogen
C)Increasing the transformed cell's capacity for error-free DNA repair
D)Making cancer cells appear more normal and escaping immunosurveillance
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2928
Sample Questions
Q1) At what point in human development is the phenotype of schizophrenia most likely to manifest?
A)Between birth and 10 years
B)At the onset of puberty
C)At adolescence or early adulthood
D)With the onset of the physical decline associated with older age
Q2) Why is direct-to-consumer marketing of diagnostic tests for mental illness and behavioral problems a dangerous practice?
A)Because the tests are expensive and not ordered by a health-care provider, they are not covered by insurance.
B)The tests are not predictive of which psychiatric medications are most likely to be beneficial to a specific individual.
C)People using such tests may not receive professional counseling for interpretation of results and accurate risk assessment.
D)These tests are often misused by employers to support the dismissal of employees who express opinions that are different from those of the company.
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17
Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2929
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?
A)Cytogenetic testing
B)Preimplantation testing
C)Predictive testing
D)Electropherogram testing
Q2) Genetic testing that examines an asymptomatic person's DNA sequence, looking for mutations that increase a person's susceptibility to a disease, is an exampleof whichtype of testing?
A)Diagnostic testing
B)Predispositional testing
C)Presymptomatic testing
D)Cytogenetic testing
Q3) How is cell-free DNA (cdDNA) testing being used clinically?
A)To determine a person's risk for developing breast cancer
B)As an inexpensive alternative to standard paternity testing
C)As a less invasive way to determine the characteristics of cancer cells
D)As a way to determine whether a specific suspect has committed a rape
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18
Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2930
Sample Questions
Q1) You are caring for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. She has been genotyped and is homozygous for a TPMT polymorphism, producing very little of the enzymeneeded for this drug's metabolism. How would you expect this to affect dosing of the drug 6-mercaptopurine?
A)This child should receive only a small fraction of the standard dose.
B)This child should receive the drug intravenously rather than orally.
C)This child should receive higher doses than the standard dose.
D)This child should receive the standard dose.
Q2) What is the expected heart-rate response when a patient is taking a drug that is an adrenaline antagonist?
A)Heart rate is unchanged.
B)Heart rate decreases.
C)Heart rate increases.
D)Heart rate is irregular.
Q3) Which of the following is a goal of pharmacogenetics?
A)Producing "blockbuster drugs" that will work equally well for everyone
B)Bringing down the cost of pharmaceutical manufacturing
C)Developing drugs that will treat very rare diseases
D)Reducing adverse reactions
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2931
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement or criterion is a required component for certification as an Advanced-Practice Nurse in Genetics (APNG)?
A)A 2-year residency in clinical genetics
B)An earned PhD or DNP with coursework focusing on genetics
C)Completion of 500 hours of direct bedside care for patients with genetic disorders
D)Completion of a 50-case log describing the nurse's actions that reflect the standards of clinical genetic nursing practice
Q2) The patient who has been found to have a mutation in a gene allele that greatly increases her risk for a serious health problem has asked a generalist nurse tobe present when she discloses this information to her family. What is the nurse's role in this situation?
A)Primary health-care provider
B)Genetic counselor
C)Patient advocate
D)Patient support
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Chapter
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are caring for a college professor who has been offered testing for her family's mutation in BRCA1. She expresses fear of genetic discrimination as a reason forrefusing genetic testing. What do you tell her?
A)"There is no need to be concerned about genetic discrimination."
B)"I appreciate your concern, but there is no way your insurance company or employer will ever be able to get your genetic testing results."
C)"There is now federal legislation banning genetic discrimination, and in addition, we will do everything we can to keep your results confidential."
D)"There have been no instances of documented genetic discrimination in insurance or employment. This concern is overblown."
Q2) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis provides parents with which options?
A)The ability to screen normally fertilized embryos for genetic traits after the first trimester
B)The ability to select embryos for implantation that test negative for a familial disease mutation
C)The opportunity to determine how many children they will conceive
D)The ability to guarantee that they will have a healthy baby
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asmall group of people left their homeland and set sail for a tropical island. They settled there, and their descendants lived for many generations. Unfortunately,a relatively high proportion of this new population is afflicted with an autosomal-recessive disease. What would explain this?
A)They encouraged immigration of people from the mainland.
B)An unidentified environmental radiation source was present on the island.
C)One of the original group members had the gene mutation from conception.
D)Their lack of genetic diversity made them more vulnerable to new mutations.
Q2) Which statement regarding genetic diversity is most accurate?
A)Larger genes are more likely to display diversity than small genes.
B)Genetic diversity is significant only when a population is isolated.
C)Genetic disorders are more common in populations that have greater genetic diversity.
D)Population bottlenecks result in loss of alleles that provide minimal selection advantage.
Q3) What factors could increase genetic diversity in a particular population?
A)Genetic drift
B)The population effect
C)The bottleneck effect
D)Increased number of haplotypes
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