Nursing Research Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Nursing Research is a foundational course that introduces students to the principles and methodologies relevant to conducting scientific inquiry in the field of nursing. The course covers various research designs, data collection techniques, ethical considerations, and evidence-based practice. Students learn to critically appraise research literature, develop research questions, and understand the application of research findings to improve patient care and nursing practice. Emphasis is placed on cultivating analytical skills and fostering an appreciation for the role of research in advancing healthcare outcomes and professional nursing knowledge.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3775
Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75308
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers,structures,and banding patterns are normal?
A)Pedigree
B)Phenotype
C)Karyotype
D)Autosome
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or "tightest" association?
A)Adenine and thymine
B)Cytosine and guanine
C)Guanine and thymine
D)Cytosine and Adenine
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strand of recently transcribed messenger RNA contains the following components:
1)exon
2)intron
3)intron
4)exon
5)intron
Which sequence represents the mature messenger RNA?
A)1,4
B)2,3,5
C)2,3,4
D)1,2,3,4,5
Answer: A
Q2) How does replacement of thymine with uracil in messenger RNA help in the process of protein synthesis?
A)Allowing messenger RNA to leave the nucleus
B)Ensuring only the "sense" strand of DNA is transcribed
C)Determining the placement of the "start" signal for translation
D)Promoting post-translational modification for conversion to an active protein
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75306
Sample Questions
Q1) Which normal cell characteristic is represented by the production of insulin in the beta cells of the pancreas?
A)Performance of a differentiated function
B)Ability to undergo apoptosis on schedule
C)Tight regulation of cell division
D)Conservation of energy
Answer: A
Q2) How is apoptosis related to physiologic homeostasis?
A)The process prevents germline mutations.
B)The efficiency of organ/tissue functions is increased.
C)Replacement with scar tissue occurs more rapidly after cell damage.
D)Cells that are able to undergo apoptosis bypass restriction point controls for mitosis.
Answer: B
Q3) Which response is the immediate and direct result of fertilization?
A)Gamete chromosome reduction to the haploid number
B)Rapid proliferation of acrosomal and coronal cells
C)Primary sex determination of the zygote
D)Nuclear condensation
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of a shift to the left in the threshold value of liability in a threshold of liability model for the expression of a complex health problem with genetic influences?
A)The threshold required for disease expression increases as the population ages.
B)The number of affected individuals within the population has decreased.
C)The population examined for the potential problem is getting larger.
D)The threshold required for disease expression is lower.
Q2) In which situation are phenotype and genotype always the same?
A)X-linked recessive traits
B)X-linked dominant traits
C)Autosomal recessive traits
D)Autosomal dominant traits
Q3) Which person is an obligate carrier of an autosomal recessive single gene trait or disorder without expressing the trait or disorder?
A)The son of a man with classic hemophilia
B)The daughter of a woman with Marfan syndrome
C)The son of a man who expresses a widow's peak hairline
D)The daughter of a woman who expresses attached earlobes
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6
Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical feature in a newborn baby girl suggests the possibility of Turner syndrome?
A)Absence of Babinski reflex
B)Presence of a webbed neck
C)Presence of epicanthal folds
D)Absence of irises of both eyes
Q2) For a person who has any type of chromosomal abnormality,what factor(s)has/have the greatest impact on both physical and cognitive potential?
A)Prenatal testing and diagnosis
B)The number of affected family members
C)Personal family environment and social interaction
D)The number of chromosomes involved with the abnormality
Q3) What is the risk for a man who has Down syndrome to produce a child with Down syndrome with a woman who has a normal karyotype?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
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Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75303
Sample Questions
Q1) How are Punnett Squares and pedigrees different?
A)Pedigrees represent genotypes and Punnett Squares represent phenotypes.
B)Punnett Squares represent genotypes and pedigrees represent phenotypes.
C)Pedigrees can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas Punnett Squares only suggest carrier status.
D)Punnett Squares can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas pedigrees only suggest carrier status.
Q2) Which pair of relatives represents a first-degree relationship?
A)Grandfather and grandson
B)Aunt and nephew
C)Sister and brother
D)Cousins
Q3) What does a double horizontal line between a circle symbol and a square symbol as the only line connecting directly connecting two individual's lines signify on a pedigree?
A)The individuals are parent and child.
B)The individuals are related by blood.
C)The individuals are brother and sister.
D)The individuals have mated without being married.
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8
Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should a tall teenage with Marfan syndrome avoid joining the high school basketball team?
A)The excessively long limbs have reduced bone density,increasing the risk for fractures.
B)The disorder is associated with weakened blood vessel walls that could rupture during strenuous activity.
C)The disorder is associated with glycogen storage deficiency,and the individual could become seriously hypoglycemic during strenuous activity.
D)Although people with Marfan syndrome are tall,they also have poor balance that impairs gross motor coordination,increasing the risk for injury.
Q2) Which statement regarding the fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)phenotype is correct?
A)Genetic and environmental factors influence the FASD phenotype.
B)The malformations in the phenotype of FASD represent a sequence.
C)The genotype of FASD accurately predicts the phenotype of FASD.
D)The phenotype of FASD accurately predicts the genotype of FASD.
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Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75301
Sample Questions
Q1) How are the two mucopolysaccharide disorders Hurler Syndrome and Hunter Syndrome different?
A)Hurler syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder,and Hunter syndrome is autosomal recessive.
B)Hunter syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder,and Hurler syndrome is autosomal recessive.
C)Individuals with Hurler syndrome become cognitively impaired in early childhood,whereas those with Hunter syndrome often retain intellectual ability until later in life.
D)Individuals with Hunter syndrome become cognitively impaired in early childhood,whereas those with Hurler syndrome often retain intellectual ability until later in life.
Q2) Which action or behavior is considered an "executive function?"
A)Hopping on one foot
B)Learning the names of animals
C)Deciding what to give as a present
D)Counting the number of objects in a picture
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Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does hydroxyurea reduce the manifestations of sickle cell disease?
A)Promoting red blood cell production
B)Increasing the concentration of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)
C)Relaxing vascular smooth muscle so that blood flow to critical tissues and organs is improved
D)Correcting the mutation of one allele so the person has sickle cell trait instead of sickle cell disease
Q2) Which specific type of genetic problem causes sickle cell disease?
A)Deletion of an exon
B)Deletion of an intron
C)Unbalanced translocation
D)Single nucleotide polymorphism
Q3) Why does Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)have poor reproductive fitness?
A)Most affected individuals typically do not have children.
B)Fifty percent of mutations of the dystrophin gene are deletions.
C)The loss of functional adhesion proteins prevents reproduction.
D)The expression of disease severity is highly variable among adults.
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Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are complex or multifactorial disorders more commonly expressed among adults than among children?
A)As adults age there is more time for environmental factors to influence the expression of a genetic disorder.
B)Gene expression in adults is greater than in childhood as a result of age-related amplification of gene copy numbers.
C)Children have better DNA repair mechanisms than adults and are more likely to correct a predisposition for a complex disorder.
D)In order for a complex or multifactorial disorder to be expressed in childhood,the child must be homozygous for the genetic mutation.
Q2) Which genetic disorder is associated with an increased risk for type 2 diabetes?
A)Achondroplasia
B)Down syndrome
C)Huntington disease
D)Hereditary hemochromatosis
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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75298
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about atrial fibrillation is correct?
A)It is the most common genetic cardiac disorder worldwide.
B)A variety of different genes contribute to its expression.
C)It is found exclusively in adults over 60 years old.
D)When severe,it leads to long QT syndrome.
Q2) Which variable in a person with coronary artery disease increases the likelihood of a strong genetic influence in its expression?
A)The problem is severe before age 50 years.
B)The disorder is not present in the person's dizygotic twin.
C)The affected person has eaten a vegetarian diet for the past 5 years.
D)The disorder is present in about 5% of the person's maternal older male family members.
Q3) Which physical finding on a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
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13
Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of body tissue has the highest risk for cancer development?
A)Bone tissue because its absorption of radiation is cumulative
B)Connective tissue that remains functional throughout life
C)Brain tissue because it does not respond well to injury
D)Any tissue that retains the ability to divide
Q2) Which feature is considered anaplastic?
A)Loss of a distinctive appearance
B)Having a large nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
C)Failure to undergo apoptosis at the appropriate time
D)The ability to undergo mitosis when nutrition is poor
Q3) What is thought to be the usual function of a normal BRCA1 gene?
A)Enhances overall cell growth during puberty
B)Directs the development of normal breast tissue
C)Increases the expression of cytochrome P450 enzymes
D)Suppresses the growth potential of a variety of oncogenes
Q4) What percentage of common cancers appears to be hereditary?
A)1% to 3%
B)5% to 15%
C)20% to 25%
D)About 35%
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the heritability estimate for addiction to alcohol in both males and females?
A)10% to 20%
B)20% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)60% to 80%
Q2) Which statement regarding behavioral genetics is accurate?
A)Genes and gene products have been discovered that directly control behavior.
B)A genetic predisposition toward a specific behavior can be modified by altering environmental influences.
C)The genotypes and phenotypes of behavioral problems or deviations follow Mendelian autosomal recessive inheritance patterns.
D)The genetic susceptibility or predisposition toward a behavioral disorder requires the trigger of an infectious disease for expression.
Q3) What is the heritability estimate for schizophrenia in the general population?
A)40%
B)60%
C)80%
D)100%
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)helpful in the process of genetic testing?
A)Preserving genetic material within a sample so that more sophisticated tests can be performed as they become available with future technologic advancements
B)Separating exons from introns and establishing which DNA strand is the "sense" strand
C)Determining whether a small amount of DNA is paternal or maternal in origin
D)Increasing the amount of DNA being tested,thus promoting accuracy
Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)method of genetic testing?
A)Single nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.
B)Depending on the skill of the technician,the rate of false positives is high.
C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.
D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.
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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75294
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely outcome for a patient with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)deficiency when he or she takes aspirin or an antimalarial drug?
A)Rapid elimination of the drug with no benefit
B)Liver damage or failure
C)Hemolytic anemia
D)Fluid retention
Q2) Which type of parent compound must undergo first phase metabolism to produce the intended response after it enters the body?
A)A prodrug
B)An active metabolite
C)An inactive metabolite
D)A sustained-released drug
Q3) Which processes of drug response are most subject to genetic variation?
A)Drug dissolution in body fluids and drug binding to plasma proteins
B)Rates of drug movement into and through the gastrointestinal tract
C)Drug activation or deactivation and duration of drug actions
D)Drug binding with receptors and drug blocking of receptors
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Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certified family nurse practitioner with an MSN degree in family practice who works in a clinic serving patients who have connective tissue disorders refers to himself as a clinical geneticist.Is this title appropriate?
A)Yes,he is an advanced practice nurse.
B)Yes,he is a clinician employed in a setting specializing in patients with genetic-based health problems.
C)No,a clinical geneticist must be certified as a genetic counselor.
D)No,a clinical geneticist is a physician who has completed a fellowship in clinical genetics.
Q2) Which genetics professional has the defined responsibility for overseeing the work in a cytogenetic laboratory?
A)Clinical laboratory geneticist
B)Genetic laboratory technician
C)Cytogenetics technician
D)Medical geneticist
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Chapter
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sometimes health-care providers with information about family members' genetic risk are confronted by conflicting ethical principles.Which principle is LEAST likely to conflict with the health-care provider's "duty to warn"?
A)Autonomy
B)Beneficence
C)Right to privacy
D)Genetic discrimination
Q2) Your patient,Maggie,insists that her mother have genetic testing to determine if her breast cancer is connected to a mutation in the BRCA1/2 genes.Maggie is concerned about her own risk for getting breast cancer and that of her children,but Maggie's mom does not want to be tested.What ethical principle is one of several that must be considered in evaluating this case?
A)Maggie's "autonomy"
B)Maggie's mother's "right to know"
C)The nurse's "duty to warn"
D)Maggie's mother's "right to privacy"
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Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
Q2) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?
A)Mitochondrial DNA
B)Nuclear DNA
C)Ribosomal DNA
D)Histone proteins
Q3) Which statement regarding genetic diversity is most accurate?
A)Larger genes are more likely to display diversity than small genes.
B)Genetic diversity is significant only when a population is isolated.
C)Genetic disorders are more common in populations that have greater genetic diversity.
D)Population bottlenecks result in loss of alleles that provide minimal selection advantage.
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