Nursing Process and Critical Thinking Test Bank - 1705 Verified Questions

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Nursing Process and Critical Thinking Test Bank

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of the nursing process and the essential role of critical thinking in professional nursing practice. It explores each step of the nursing process assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation emphasizing evidence-based decision-making and the application of clinical reasoning skills. Through case studies and practical scenarios, students develop the ability to analyze patient data, prioritize care, and adapt their approach to diverse healthcare situations, fostering sound judgment and ethical problem-solving in nursing care.

Recommended Textbook

Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing 6th Edition by Linton

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56 Chapters

1705 Verified Questions

1705 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Health Care System

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse could best refer an unemployed 42-year-old patient with renal failure who has lost his job-related private insurance to which health care plan for his medical care?

A) Medicare

B) Medicaid

C) Public health facility

D) Community-based outpatient clinic

Answer: B

Q2) The nurse clarifies to the patient who is applying for Medicaid that the receipt of benefits requires:

A) Following a supervised health maintenance plan

B) Enrolling in the Medicare-Preferred Drug Plan

C) Qualifying for the food stamp program

D) Having an annual income of less than $10,000

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Patient Care Settings

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the law that provides for a partially paralyzed fork-lift operator to be retrained by vocational rehabilitation services for less demanding office work is the:

A) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1920

B) Social Security Act of 1935

C) Rehabilitation Act of 1973

D) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

Answer: C

Q2) Based on guidelines from the ADA,which question is an appropriate choice for the director of nurses to ask a nurse with an artificial leg who is applying for a staff position in an extended care facility?

A) "How long have you had your prosthesis?"

B) "How many flights of stairs are you able to climb without assistance?"

C) "Are you able to lift a load of 45 pounds?'

D) "Has your disability caused you to miss work?"

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is aware that values clarification supports nursing practice by:

A) Guiding decision making

B) Giving insight to patients

C) Enhancing peer relationships

D) Helping understand him or herself

E) Gaining the confidence of supervisors

Answer: A,B,D

Q2) The LPN/LVN has trimmed the toenails of a patient with diabetes too short,which resulted in a toe amputation from infections.This LPN/LVN is guilty of:

A) Unintentional tort

B) Intentional tort

C) Negligence

D) Malpractice

Answer: D

Q3) The values that direct human behavior and are concerned with defining right from wrong are known as ____________________.

Answer: Ethics

An individual's ability to define right from wrong is based on a value system called ethics.

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5

Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical

Nurse

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some characteristics of both leaders and managers are the same.Such a characteristic is:

A) Motivational skills

B) Sympathy skills

C) Authoritarian style

D) Participative style

Q2) To establish an effective team,the team leader must be able to:

A) Establish a clear purpose, and clarify its significance.

B) Be firm to maintain focus on one idea, not sidetracked by the ideas of others.

C) Listen to all input in an active manner.

D) Demonstrate concern for stress of the team members.

E) Be honest concerning own opinions and attitudes.

Q3) The head nurse puts a blank copy of the shift duty schedule on the table in the break room.The staff is permitted to fill in those shifts that they want to work during the next cycle.This example reflects the leadership style of:

A) Autocratic

B) Democratic

C) Laissez-faire

D) Participative

Page 6

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Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient Relationship

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young woman comes to the Public Health Clinic for an antibiotic for a sexually transmitted infection (STI).She is accompanied by her live-in boyfriend.The most therapeutic remark the nurse should make to the young man is:

A) "Her infection is very contagious. Would you like me to give you the name of a place where you can be screened for the infection and be given the means for a cure?"

B) "You probably have the same sexual infection too. You need to see about it before you give it back to her or somebody else."

C) "You may have the same infection. Have you been with any other women lately? The health department needs to make a list."

D) "This is the third time that your friend has been in here with the same infection! Why don't you get some shots yourself?"

Q2) The nurse explains that a pamphlet called the "Patient Care Partnership" was created by the:

A) Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals

B) Medicare/Medicaid Act

C) Social Security Act

D) American Hospital Association

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Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transcultural nursing care is expected for every patient.To provide this type of care,the nurse needs to understand the practices of the predominant cultures of those groups in the health care geographic area that would require the nurse to be aware that:

A) Culture influences beliefs about health, illness, and health practices.

B) All members of an ethnic group have the same beliefs about health practices.

C) A patient's culture rather than individual assessments can be the basis of care.

D) Members of subcultures must be encouraged by nurses to adopt the dominant culture.

Q2) The young Asian wife of a businessman recently transferred to the United States is brought to the hospital for an emergency appendectomy.The nurses make every effort to plan correct care.The integration of cultural concepts into the nursing care plan is known as which one of the following?

A) Assimilation of culture

B) Cultural diversity

C) Enculturation of the patient

D) Transcultural nursing

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Chapter 7: The Nurse and the Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient states that her 5-year-old is always running up to relatives and friends and wants to give them a big hug and kiss.The patient asks if her daughter is appropriate in her actions.Based on the concepts of functional communication,the most appropriate reply would be:

A) "Your daughter's actions are definitely dysfunctional."

B) "Your daughter is just being a 'little girl' and will outgrow being so affectionate."

C) "Your daughter is going through a normal developmental phase."

D) "Does your mother-in-law show signs of affection toward your daughter?"

Q2) The nurse assesses that the patient comes from an extended family because it has:

A) Multiple wage earners

B) Three generations living together

C) Children from previous marriages

D) Parents of different ethnic origins

Q3) The nurse congratulates the patient for successfully coping with a family crisis.The state of having used coping strategies effectively is classified as

Q4) The nurse includes the family in patient care to maintain the family's

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Health and Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the initial gathering of data,the patient reveals a weight loss of 17 pounds since the death of his spouse 5 weeks earlier.He says that he is not sleeping and has no appetite.Using Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs," the nurse assesses that the unmet needs are in the category of:

A) Physiologic

B) Safety and security

C) Love and belonging

D) Self-actualization

Q2) The nurse is aware that most nontraditional therapies are based on the concept that illness is caused by:

A) Evil spirits

B) Lack of harmony with the environment

C) Deliberate abuse of the body

D) Inappropriate diet

Q3) The alarm reaction stage,resistance stage,and exhaustion stage are the three stages of the:

A) Local adaptation syndrome

B) General adaptation syndrome

C) Total adaptation syndrome

D) Absolute adaptation syndrome

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Chapter 9: Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lactose is found in:

A) Sucrose

B) Malt products

C) Milk

D) Honey

Q2) Normal fasting blood glucose level is:

A) 20 to 50 mg/100 ml

B) 70 to 100 mg/100 ml

C) 200 to 250 mg/100 ml

D) 30 to 60 mg/100 ml

Q3) A 13-year-old patient is 5 feet,6 inches tall,weighs 102 pounds,and is constantly worried about getting "too fat" and is refusing to eat.The nurse assesses that the patient is suffering from:

A) Bulimia

B) Anorexia nervosa

C) Malabsorption

D) Peptic ulcer

Q4) The nurse calculates the needed kilocalories (kcal)for a 150-pound moderately active person to be ____________________.

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Chapter 10: Developmental Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which intervention is directed toward reducing the most common cause of death among young adults?

A) Teaching early warning signs of cancer

B) Encouraging cardiovascular fitness

C) Teaching principles of safe sex

D) Promotion of safe driving practices

Q2) Young adulthood is a time in which an individual:

A) Earns most of his or her money, pays most of the taxes, and has most of the power in business.

B) Settles down to a career, raises a family, and takes on new responsibilities.

C) Experiences personal freedom, and enjoys maximum influence over others.

D) Focuses on many adjustments that must be made to physiologic, psychologic, and social changes.

Q3) Middle adulthood is defined as the period from:

A) 45 to 65 years

B) 20 to 35 years

C) 65 to 75 years

D) 30 to 50 years

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Chapter 11: The Older Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the effects of aging on the nervous system result in:

A) Accelerated loss of neurons in the brain.

B) Gradually declining loss of intellectual capability.

C) Decreased conduction speed of neurons.

D) Loss of long-term memory.

Q2) The nurse is aware that drug toxicity can occur as a result of an age-related change in the liver,which is:

A) Increased liver size

B) Decreased liver enzyme activity

C) Rapid blood flow through the liver

D) Fluid accumulation in the portal vein

Q3) Prerequisites for the nurse working with the geriatric patient include an understanding that:

A) Specialized knowledge is needed.

B) The geriatric patient will be physically impaired.

C) Most geriatric patients will develop dementia.

D) The geriatric patient will need to be closely supervised.

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Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical Thinking

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Sample Questions

Q1) The best example of a nursing order is:

A) Perform deep breathing exercises twice daily at 10 AM and 2 PM.

B) Administer Tylenol every 4 hours as needed for headache.

C) Assess skin integrity and risk for impairment.

D) Patient will frequently perform quadriceps-setting exercises.

Q2) The nurse uses palpation for the purpose of:

A) Determining areas of tenderness.

B) Differentiating between fluid- and air-filled organs.

C) Hearing sounds produced by the body.

D) Systematically approaching a physical assessment.

Q3) The patient will maintain an adequate nutritional state without nausea or vomiting is an example of a nursing:

A) Intervention

B) Process

C) Diagnosis

D) Goal

Q4) Examine this goal statement: Patient will walk in the hall unassisted.The two missing components for a correctly stated goal in this example are the descriptors for ____________________ and ____________________.

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Chapter 13: Inflammation, infection, and Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has had several increasingly severe allergic reactions during last year's pollen season.This year,the patient comes regularly to the office to receive some antigen injections.The nurse teaches that these will:

A) Combat infection brought on by the allergic response.

B) Act as a steroid to lessen the allergic response.

C) Increase tolerance to the antigen.

D) Decrease the production of the antibodies.

Q2) The nurse assesses that the patient who has acquired a health care-associated infection is most likely the patient with:

A) Abdominal abscess after a ruptured appendix

B) Lice and nits that have come from the emergency department

C) Urinary infection after the insertion of a Foley catheter

D) Two-day, postoperative foot fungus after a hip replacement

Q3) The nurse is bathing a patient who is immunodeficient and suffering from a Cryptococcus infestation.The organism is classified as a:

A) Bacterium

B) Virus

C) Fungus

D) Protozoa

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Fluids and Electrolytes

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30 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assists a patient with dyspnea to sit in a high Fowler position.This position allows gravity to help move oxygen from the pulmonary capillaries into the blood by a process known as:

A) Active transport

B) Diffusion

C) Filtration

D) Osmosis

Q2) Both the intracellular and extracellular fluids are made up of many different electrolytes,but the most abundant intracellular positively charged electrolyte is:

A) Calcium

B) Chloride

C) K+

D) Sodium

Q3) The nurse explains that when oxygen is directed out of the arteries and into the capillaries,this process is called:

A) Active transport

B) Diffusion

C) Filtration

D) Osmosis

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Pain Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two patients are hospitalized with the same diagnosis,but one is 23 years old,with acute recent pain from an injury,and the other is 64 years old,with pain of long-standing duration of several years.The difference in anticipated assessment is which of the following?

A) Acute pain for young patients is more intense at the same level, but these patients experience few changes in vital signs.

B) Young patients with acute pain exhibit fewer changes in vital signs but still report true levels of pain at levels 8 to 10.

C) Older adult patients with chronic pain exhibit increased changes in vital signs and report levels of pain lower than reality.

D) Older adult patients with chronic pain usually report lower levels of pain much less severe than they really are.

Q2) In performing a pain assessment,the LPN/LVN would follow which steps?

A) Assess vital signs, status of pain, and aggravating factors.

B) Assess location, quality, and intensity on an identified scale.

C) Assess the intensity on an identified scale and record findings.

D) Assess vital signs and location, and report to the RN.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: First Aid, emergency Care, and Disaster Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assessment of a burn victim leads the nurse to suspect an inhalation injury.The observation that would indicate such an injury would be ____________________.

Q2) The condition that may complicate the assessment of an older adult patient with a suspected head injury is:

A) Sensory deficits

B) Slowed metabolism

C) Preexisting cerebral dysfunction

D) Decreased pulmonary function

Q3) When the child is brought to the emergency department with several deep dog bites on his legs,the nurse will,after cleaning the wounds,be primarily concerned with ascertaining the:

A) Whereabouts of the dog.

B) Status of tetanus inoculation.

C) Rabies status of the animal.

D) Child's allergy to the rabies vaccine.

Q4) The nurse in the emergency department knows that tissue damage has probably occurred in the person with hypothermia when a rectal temperature of ____________________ is assessed.

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Chapter 17: Surgical Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses the patient's limbs and position frequently after a regional anesthesia because:

A) Pain is not perceived although motion is possible.

B) Rashes and skin eruptions would indicate an allergy.

C) Permanent paralysis is a concern.

D) Contracture deformities may occur.

Q2) The suprapubic area of a postoperative patient is distended.The patient states that he has not voided since surgery approximately 9 hours ago.The nurse's first action would be to:

A) Notify the head nurse or physician.

B) Insert a catheter and document insertion.

C) Seat the patient on the side of the bed to try to void.

D) Prepare the patient to return to surgery.

Q3) To prevent the effects of postoperative immobility on the gastrointestinal system,the nurse suggests that the patient:

A) Avoid taking antibiotics.

B) Increase her fluid intake.

C) Avoid high-fiber foods.

D) Limit her activity for the first 3 to 4 days.

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Chapter 18: Intravenous Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The physician orders an infusion of 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in 0.45 NS to be completed in 8 hours.The IV delivery system's drop factor is 20 gtts.The nurse should set the electronic infusion pump to deliver ______________ ml/hr?

A) 125

B) 100

C) 85

D) 42

Q2) The nurse assesses an area where an IV had been recently changed.The area has redness,swelling,and warmth,which are characteristics of:

A) Infiltration and air embolus

B) Inflammation and possible phlebitis

C) Blood loss and hemorrhage

D) Embolus from the former catheter

Q3) When removing a central catheter,the nurse should instruct the patient to:

A) Lean forward and cough.

B) Take a deep breath and bear down.

C) Breathe deeply through the mouth.

D) Lie on the right side.

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Chapter 19: Shock

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assessing a patient in the progressive stage of shock would expect to find:

A) Bounding pulse, decreased respirations, and decreased blood pressure

B) Bounding pulse, shallow respirations, and significantly increased blood pressure

C) Thready pulse and deep respirations with decreased blood pressure

D) Thready pulse and irregular respirations with increased blood pressure

Q2) The nurse explains that the use of medical antishock trousers (MAST)garment compress the legs and abdomen to:

A) Help restore cellular perfusion.

B) Decrease internal hemorrhage.

C) Cool the patient to create less metabolic demand.

D) Apply pressure during the systole phase and relax pressure during the diastole phase.

Q3) The nurse explains that the minimal acceptable hourly urine output for the patient in shock who weighs 220 pounds is ____________________.

Q4) The nurse explains that when shock forces the body into anaerobic metabolism,organ damage is caused by a product of that metabolism,which is

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Falls

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following the "Rule of Least Restriction," the nurse who is trying to keep a confused resident from removing the feeding tube would replace the wrist restraint with:

A) Mittens

B) Vest restraint

C) Administration of a mild sedative

D) Tightly tucked sheet

Q2) The older adult patient with osteoporosis is at risk for falls.To maintain safety in the home,the nurse would advise the patient to:

A) Take the rubber mat out of the shower.

B) Install a grab rail in the bath and shower and by the toilet.

C) Avoid rubber-soled shoes.

D) Avoid exercise.

Q3) The nurse is admitting a new patient to the nursing unit.When conducting the admission procedure,assessing the patient's risk for falling is important by asking:

A) "How many times have you fallen before?"

B) "How many hours do you sleep at night?"

C) "What are your eating habits?"

D) "Do you smoke?"

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Chapter 21: Immobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is talking with a patient who recently became paraplegic as a result of a cervical spinal cord injury.When some home equipment is discussed,the patient becomes angry and says,"I don't need to worry about any kind of home equipment." The best response by the nurse would be:

A) "I know you will be walking soon, but you may need some equipment until then."

B) "There is very little chance that you will ever walk."

C) "Tell me what it is about this equipment that bothers you."

D) "Let me call the physician to come explain your injuries to you."

Q2) The nurse points out that the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel prefers to refer to skin breakdown as:

A) Bed sores

B) Pressure ulcers

C) Decubitus ulcers

D) Decubiti

Q3) The nurse knows that the best prevention of immobility-related disorders is:

A) Dietary supplements

B) Fluids

C) Adequate fiber

D) Exercise

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Confusion

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Sample Questions

Q1) When admitting a patient who has recently become confused,the nurse asks the family for a list of all the medications that the patient is currently taking.The nurse is aware that the medication that could be causing confusion is:

A) Amoxicillin

B) Acetaminophen

C) Furosemide

D) Digoxin

Q2) The family of a patient with dementia expresses concern to the nurse about the patient wandering at night.They are afraid that the patient might get up while they are sleeping and go outside.The nurse's best advice would be to have them:

A) Apply a vest restraint at night.

B) Perform constant reality orientation.

C) Learn some behavior modification techniques.

D) Put new locks on the outside doors in new places.

Q3) When a normally oriented 87-year-old resident in a long-term care facility exhibits acute confusion,the nurse should first assess for a(n)____________________.

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Chapter 23: Incontinence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse informs the patient that the uroflowmetry diagnostic tool measures:

A) Voiding duration

B) Specific gravity of urine

C) Effectiveness of the detrusor muscle

D) General bladder tone

Q2) The patient diagnosed with anorectal incontinence should be taught by the nurse to:

A) Take a daily laxative.

B) Increase fiber in the diet.

C) Perform pelvic muscle exercises.

D) Administer daily enemas.

Q3) The patient who is scheduled for a postvoid residual (PVR)test should be instructed by the nurse to:

A) Call the nurse immediately after voiding.

B) After voiding, wait 10 minutes and void again.

C) Void into a flow meter.

D) Avoid fluid intake for 8 hours before the test.

Q4) The method by which a nurse manually expresses urine from the bladder by pressing gently on the lower abdomen is the___________ method.

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Chapter 24: Loss, death, and End-Of-Life Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Strauss and Glaser,three states of awareness of terminal illness have been identified.The nurse cautions the family that they should be aware that these states include:

A) Denial, anger, and depression

B) Shock, yearning, and anguish

C) Avoidance, confrontation, and accommodation

D) Closed awareness, mutual pretense, and open awareness

Q2) When caring for the patient who is experiencing dysfunctional grieving,the nurse's primary goal should be for:

A) Enhancement of self-esteem

B) Resolution of grief

C) Provision of safety measures

D) Prevention of complications

Q3) When the family of a dying person do not discuss the issue of death openly and avoid the subject of dying altogether,the nurse recognizes this behavior representative of the _________stage described by Straus and Glaser.

Q4) The nurse explains that the study and discussion of end-of-life issues have been brought to public awareness because of an increase in death and terminal illnesses of young people with ____________________.

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Chapter 25: The Patient With Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The family is concerned about the possibility of addiction as a result of the frequent doses of Roxanol.The nurse's best response is:

A) "At this stage, addiction is the least of our worries."

B) "This is a low-dose drug, and it controls pain without the problems of addiction."

C) "Addiction is rare, but we have drugs that can counteract the effect of this narcotic."

D) "You may want to share your concerns with the physician. He can order another drug that is not addictive."

Q2) Radiation is now measured in GRAY rather than RADS.One GRAY is equal to ________ RADS.

Q3) The nurse counsels that the most common site of cancer in adult women is the:

A) Breast

B) Lung

C) Kidney

D) Uterus

Q4) The nurse clarifies that cells that change from their tissues of origin and have multiple nuclei are categorized as ____________________.

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Chapter 26: The Patient With an Ostomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse cautions that some adhesive pouch material used to hold the appliance in place may cause:

A) Melting of the pouch

B) Excoriation of the stoma

C) Allergic reaction

D) Unpleasant odor

Q2) The major considerations for placement of a stoma are to provide:

A) Good seal

B) Stabilization from the abdominal rectus

C) Ease of self-care

D) Inoffensive appearance

E) Proximity to the umbilicus

Q3) The nurse explains that an artificial opening into a body cavity is a(n):

A) Gastrostomy

B) Ostomy

C) Colonoscopy

D) Ureterostomy

Q4) When the patient complains of urine crystals forming on the urostomy stoma,the home health nurse recommends dissolving them with a pad saturated with

28

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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The assessment indicating that mannitol therapy for cerebral edema is effective in a patient with increased ICP is:

A) Increased BP

B) Increased urinary output

C) Decreased pulse

D) Widening pulse pressure

Q2) The nurse organizes the plan of care with regard to normal brain alterations associated with age,which are:

A) Decrease in brain weight

B) Pigmentation of brain with lipofuscin

C) Present of amyloid

D) Tiny clot formation

E) Tangled nerve fibers

Q3) When a patient falls to the floor in a generalized seizure,the nurse should:

A) Cradle the head to prevent injury.

B) Insert an object between the teeth to prevent the patient from biting the tongue.

C) Manually restrain the limbs.

D) Keep the patient on his or her back to prevent aspiration.

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Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular Accident

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that a lacunar stroke differs from an ischemic CVA in that a lacunar CVA:

A) Causes a great deal of pain.

B) Alters the personality.

C) Affects small arteries.

D) Nearly always results in blindness.

E) Produces a large amount of neurologic damage.

Q2) The nurse recognizes that the acute phase of a CVA has ended when:

A) 48 hours has passed from its onset.

B) Patient begins to respond verbally.

C) BP drops.

D) Vital signs and neurologic signs stabilize.

Q3) A patient has weakness on the right side and impaired reasoning after having a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)in the:

A) Left hemisphere of the cerebrum

B) Right hemisphere of the cerebrum

C) Left cerebellum

D) Right cerebellum

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Chapter 29: Spinal Cord Injury

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A paraplegic patient excitedly reports seeing his foot move when he was being turned.This phenomenon is best explained as a(n):

A) Reflexive movement

B) Return of motor function

C) Early symptom of autonomic dysreflexia

D) Result of hypertonicity of the muscle

Q2) To avoid stimulating a muscle spasm,the nurse will move the impaired legs of a patient with a SCI by:

A) Firmly grasping the calf muscle and the thigh muscle.

B) Manipulating the limb by supporting the knee and ankle joints.

C) Holding the foot upright and slowly dragging the limb into position.

D) Requesting assistance to support the calf and thigh.

Q3) The nurse explains that the major advantage of the halo device over the Gardner-Wells tongs is that the halo device:

A) Separates the cervical vertebrae.

B) Allows the patient out of bed.

C) Aligns the cervical spine.

D) Relieves pain.

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Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25260

Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of these interventions would be inappropriate in performing a tracheal suction?

A) Administer oxygen before the procedure.

B) Leave the thumb off the suction control on insertion.

C) Maintain suction pressure between 80 and 100 mm Hg.

D) Limit suction pass to 15 seconds.

Q2) The assessment that ensures the nurse that the chest tube in a water seal drainage device is working correctly is the:

A) Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber

B) Decrease of accumulation in the drainage chamber

C) Fluctuation of the column of water in the water seal

D) Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber

Q3) Before performing the arterial stick for an arterial blood gas,the nurse performs an Allen test.The purpose of this test is to assess the:

A) Respiratory function

B) Tidal volume

C) Concentration of oxygen

D) Perfusion of the hand

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Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a family how the asthma attack progresses by using a progressive list of pathologic events: (Place the options in the correct sequence.)

A) Bronchoconstriction

B) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

C) Production of mucous plugs

D) Hypoxemia with compensatory hyperventilation

E) Triggering of inflammatory process

Q2) When the 25-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis (CF)tells the home health nurse that he wants to take a nice vacation,a safe suggestion by the nurse would be a week:

A) In Greece in July.

B) In Colorado in May.

C) In New York in November.

D) On the Mexican coast in August.

Q3) The nurse cautions a group of individuals with COPD that using O? at levels greater than 1 to 3 L/min can cause the loss of their _________________________.

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Chapter 32: Hematologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the patient with a platelet count of 20,000/mm³ receives 1 unit of platelets,the platelet count should rise to:

A) 25,000 to 30,000/mm3

B) 35,000 to 40,000/mm3

C) 45,000 to 50,000/mm3

D) 55,000 to 100,000/mm3

Q2) The nurse giving iron dextran intramuscularly (IM)will use the Z-track method because this method:

A) Makes the injection less painful.

B) Prevents staining of the skin.

C) Prevents postinjection pain.

D) Allows another injection to be given at the same location.

E) Cleans the needle on withdrawal.

Q3) A newborn infant has developed significant jaundice and has a positive Coombs test result from high levels of bilirubin.The nurse has assessed the symptoms as being indicative of:

A) Aplastic anemia

B) Hemophilia

C) Hemolytic anemia

D) Sickle cell anemia

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Chapter 33: Immunologic Disorders

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31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse uses a picture to show the histamine-releasing mast cells that are:

A) Circulating in the blood

B) Circulating in the lymph

C) Attached to organ tissue

D) Embedded in the bone marrow

Q2) The nurse tells the family of a patient who has just undergone bone marrow transplant that to help stabilize the immune response and prevent rejection,________________ will be given.

A) Dexamethasone (Decadron)

B) Filgrastim (Neupogen)

C) Zidovudine (Retrovir)

D) Nevirapine (Viramune)

Q3) The nurse explains that the inflammatory response is initiated by immunoglobulin E (IgE)and the:

A) Eosinophils

B) Lymphocytes

C) Basophils

D) Neutrophils

Q4) Cells in the bone marrow that are capable of developing into RBCs,WBCs,or platelets are the ___________ cells.

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Chapter 34: Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired

Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a pregnant patient with AIDS that her baby will be treated with antiretroviral drugs for ____________________ weeks after birth.

Q2) The nurse evaluates that teaching,relative to the progression of HIV infections,has been effective when the patient with HIV in the latent stage says:

A) "I had better get my affairs in order. I don't have a lot of time left."

B) "Whew! I thought when I got AIDS that I was a 'goner.'"

C) "Now I won't have to take all those expensive drugs that I have been using."

D) "I can still enjoy life and live pretty much as I want for the next several years."

Q3) Before the initiation of any anti-HIV drug protocol,the patient is assessed for the willingness to:

A) Give up sexual activity for several months.

B) Follow the strict dietary guidelines.

C) Comply with drug protocol.

D) Involve the partner in a support program.

Q4) The nurse explains that HIV is introduced to the systemic circulation by the ____________________,which is found in the mucous membranes.

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Cardiac Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse urges the 50-year-old overweight executive who had an MI 3 months earlier to take up some conditioning exercises for 30 minutes a day to:

A) Lose weight.

B) Improve function of the left ventricle.

C) Decrease arterial stiffening.

D) Decrease cholesterol levels

E) Improve cardiac dysrhythmia.

Q2) A medication,simvastatin (Zocor),is administered to lower a patient's cholesterol level.Follow-up lipid levels are reviewed by the nurse.The level that indicates the desired therapeutic range is:

A) High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 29 mg/dl; low-density lipoprotein (LDL), 160 mg/dl

B) HDL, 38 mg/dl; LDL, 120 mg/dl

C) HDL, 56 mg/dl; LDL, 106 mg/dl

D) HDL, 42 mg/dl; LDL, 98 mg/dl

Q3) At rest,the cardiac cells in the myocardium are electrically polarized,with the inside of the cell being more ____________________ than the outside of the cell.

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Chapter 36: Vascular Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient performing Buerger-Allen Exercises will not:

A) Lie on the stomach.

B) Raise legs for 2 minutes until they blanch.

C) Lower the legs until the color returns.

D) Keep legs flat for 5 minutes and then repeat the exercise.

Q2) The nurse explains that a capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds is a quick assessment for:

A) Hypertension

B) Tissue perfusion

C) Excess fluid volume

D) Increased blood viscosity

Q3) The nurse records the assessment of stasis dermatitis on an intake assessment for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD).This assessment indicates the presence of:

A) Brownish skin discoloration on lower legs

B) Ulceration on medial surface of lower legs

C) Edema in lower legs

D) Purple rash on medial surface of lower legs

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Chapter 37: Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a patient reports drowsiness after initiating atenolol (Tenormin)for the treatment of hypertension,the nurse's best response would be to instruct the patient to:

A) Take the medication at bedtime.

B) Reduce the dose of the medication until the desired effect occurs.

C) Avoid activities that require alertness.

D) Talk to the physician because drowsiness is not an anticipated side effect.

Q2) To use less sodium in the diet,the nurse recommends the use of spices and:

A) Catsup

B) Garlic

C) Soy sauce

D) Cheese

Q3) The nurse includes in a teaching plan on hypertension that treatment for essential hypertension is focused on:

A) Daily medication with mild diuretics

B) Low-dose vasodilators

C) Reduction of modifiable risks

D) Combination of vasodilators and diuretics

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Chapter 38: Digestive Tract Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Stool softeners are prescribed to promote normal elimination of feces.The most appropriate way to ensure effectiveness of this type of drug is:

A) Mouth care

B) Ambulation

C) Adequate fluid intake

D) High-fiber diet

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient hemorrhaging from a peptic ulcer when the patient complains of a sharp sudden pain,with a rapidly deteriorating condition.Initially,the nurse should:

A) Roll the patient flat, and assess the vital signs.

B) Notify the charge nurse.

C) Suction the mouth.

D) Prepare for intravenous (IV) infusions.

Q3) An instruction given to a patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)that will lessen discomfort is:

A) Eat only whole grains.

B) Take small bites, and chew well.

C) Include dietary fiber in at least two meals per day.

D) Drink herbal teas and low-calorie cola drinks.

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, gallbladder, and Pancreas

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse takes into consideration that persons with liver disease are at an increased risk for:

A) Urinary infections

B) Systemic infection

C) Drug toxicity

D) Drug allergy

Q2) The sign that would be a contraindication for the need of increased fluid intake for the patient with a hepatic disorder is:

A) Low blood pressure

B) Increased urinary output

C) Signs of edema

D) Bradycardia

Q3) A patient in acute pain is admitted with pancreatitis.The nurse sees a laboratory report showing an elevation that is diagnostic for acute pancreatitis,which is:

A) Serum bilirubin

B) Serum calcium

C) Serum lipids

D) Serum amylase

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Chapter 40: Urologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the autoimmune disease of acute glomerulonephritis is most usually caused by:

A) Frequent cystitis

B) Streptococcal infection

C) Childhood disease of mumps

D) Recent wound infection

Q2) As the nurse assesses the patient with renal impairment,a facial characteristic that is a sign of fluid retention is:

A) Broken blood vessels around the nose

B) Periorbital edema

C) Rash on cheeks and neck

D) Facial twitching

Q3) When the nurse reads the serum calcium laboratory report of 4.2 mEq/L the nurse would anticipate the patient to exhibit:

A) Irritability

B) Tingling sensations in limbs

C) Tetany

D) Nausea

E) Visual disturbances

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Connective Tissue Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The diagnostic test result that the nurse would expect for a patient with polymyositis is:

A) Muscle biopsy, positive for muscle degeneration

B) Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) blood test

C) Positive 24-hour urine test for urate crystals

D) Urate crystals in the synovial fluid

Q2) The home health care nurse suggests to the patient who has had a total hip replacement that to protect the new joint,the patient should:

A) Put an extension on the toilet seat.

B) Keep the legs crossed when at rest.

C) Frequently change positions from side to side.

D) Slowly pull the knee to the chest twice a day to stretch the hip abductors.

Q3) The nurse clarifies to the patient with gout that the medication,probenecid (Benemid),is prescribed to:

A) Reduce inflammation in the affected joint

B) Relieve pain

C) Diminish swelling

D) Increase excretion of uric acid

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43

Chapter 42: Fractures

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient who has osteomyelitis after multiple fractures inquires what the physician meant when he said that surgery would follow the antibiotic therapy.The nurse's most helpful reply is to explain that surgery will be performed to:

A) Remove dead bone.

B) Close the open draining wound.

C) Close the area with casting material.

D) Amputate.

Q2) Two days after surgery for a crushed pelvis,the certified nursing assistant (CNA)reports that the patient is complaining of a shortness of breath and is demonstrating signs of confusion and restlessness.The nurse suspects,from these signs alone,that the patient has suffered:

A) Impending shock

B) Fat embolus

C) Anxiety

D) Neurovascular compromise

Q3) A fracture that occurs because of osteoporosis is classified as a _____________ fracture.

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44

Chapter 43: Amputations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Late signs of hemorrhage in the postoperative period after an amputation include:

A) Restlessness and increased respirations

B) Cyanosis and hypotension

C) Confusion and seizures

D) Headache and hypertension

Q2) The patient who has a below-the-elbow prosthesis shows the home health care nurse the residual limb,which is red,edematous,and warm to the touch.The nurse instructs the patient to:

A) Apply soothing lotion to residual limb before replacing the prosthesis.

B) Dampen the prosthetic limb sock to hydrate and cool the residual limb.

C) Pad the socket with lamb's wool, and replace the prosthesis.

D) Leave the prosthesis off, and notify physician.

Q3) The postoperative observation that must be reported to the physician immediately is:

A) Brownish-red drainage on the dressing, which is damp

B) Respirations of 20 breaths/min

C) Pulse of 72 beats/min

D) Bright-red bleeding

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45

Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hallmark findings expected when assessing a patient with Cushing syndrome are:

A) Edema of the trunk, extremities, and face

B) Wasting of the abdomen with thick, calloused skin

C) Excess adipose tissue in the trunk, slender extremities, and moon face

D) High levels of potassium and low levels of sodium, weakness, and wasting

Q2) The patient with hypopituitarism must take medications for the rest of his or her life.The patient teaching plan would include:

A) "Constipation must be prevented because straining increases intracranial pressure."

B) "You must become familiar with the signs and symptoms of inadequate or excessive hormone replacement."

C) "It is not necessary to wear a medical alert bracelet or necklace."

D) "Your self-image is important. Take positive steps to improve your appearance."

Q3) The nurse explains that growth hormone will be given to the child with hypopituitarism on a scheduled basis until the child reaches the height of

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Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders

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31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient recently diagnosed with hyperthyroidism would be:

A) Hypothermia, related to increased metabolic processes

B) Constipation, related to increased hormonal stimulation

C) Disturbed body image, related to weight gain

D) Disturbed sleep pattern, related to metabolic disturbance

Q2) To meet the nutritional needs of a patient with Graves disease,the nurse recommends a diet of ____________________ to ____________________ calories.

Q3) To assess for hemorrhage in a post thyroidectomy patient the nurse should:

A) Assess upper chest for the patient positioned in high Fowler position.

B) Turn the patient to the side to check; the patient must be kept flat in the bed.

C) Lift up the neck dressing to assess for excessive bleeding.

D) Examine behind patient's neck and upper back to assess for hemorrhage.

Q4) Congenital hypothyroidism,if left untreated,will result in _________________.

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Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse suspects that the patient with type 1 diabetes may be experiencing the Somogyi phenomenon when the patient exhibits:

A) Headache on awakening and enuresis

B) 6 AM blood sugar of 58 and nausea

C) Abdominal pain and elevated blood pressure

D) Drowsiness and disorientation after eating

Q2) The teaching plan for a patient with diabetes for foot care would include that the patient should:

A) Wash and carefully dry the feet every day.

B) Apply lotion between the toes.

C) Protect the feet from extreme temperatures.

D) Walk barefoot only indoors.

E) Buy shoes that are comfortable and supportive.

Q3) The nurse administering Humulin R 20 U at 7 AM is aware that this drug will peak in:

A) 15 minutes

B) 30 minutes

C) 1 hour

D) 2 hours

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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the causes for menorrhagia include:

A) Hormonal dysfunction

B) Tumors

C) Coagulation disorders

D) Endometrial hyperplasia

E) Excessive exercising

Q2) A patient makes an appointment with her gynecologist because she is having difficulty conceiving.The laboratory test that the nurse anticipates the physician to order is:

A) Complete blood count

B) Progesterone level

C) Prothrombin time

D) Erythrocyte count

Q3) The nurse points out to a group of young women who are being treated for PID that because of the effect of this disease on their reproductive organs,they may become

Q4) Because small nonnodal metastases may be present,______________ is recommended after a lumpectomy.

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Chapter 48: Male Reproductive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse caring for a patient 2 hours after a transurethral resection (TUR)immediately reports to the charge nurse the presence of large clots in the catheter and drainage bag.The nurse anticipates that the physician will:

A) Instill ice water into the bladder.

B) Decrease the amount of fluid in the balloon of the indwelling catheter.

C) Apply traction to the catheter by taping it to the patient's thigh.

D) Order a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce hemorrhage.

Q2) After the physician has left the room of a 30-year-old man who has been diagnosed with testicular cancer,the patient covers his face with both hands and sighs.The nurse's most therapeutic intervention at this time would be to:

A) Ask the patient, "Do you want to talk about your cancer?"

B) Leave the room, and pull the door closed.

C) Go to the nurse's station, and call the patient's wife.

D) Complete the patient care as quickly as possible.

Q3) When a significant elevation in the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)level is noted on the laboratory report,the nurse is aware that this is a marker for ____________________ cancer.

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Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the female patient who is newly diagnosed with gonorrhea screams,"I am going to kill my husband.I mean it." The nurse's best response would be:

A) "Are you sure it is your husband who gave you gonorrhea?"

B) "Yikes! Killing your spouse seems extreme."

C) "Shall I report your spouse as a sexual contact?"

D) "I can understand your anger. How best can you deal with it?"

Q2) The nurse giving instruction to a patient with a STI says,"I am supposed to tell you about STIs,but you probably know more about them than I do." This nurse is:

A) Admitting her own ignorance about STIs.

B) Trying to get the patient's attention.

C) Referencing current statistics.

D) Making a judgmental statement.

Q3) The patient at the outpatient clinic is reluctant to identify her sexual contacts.The nurse explains that the reporting of contacts is essential to:

A) Slow transmission and spread of infections.

B) Increase public awareness.

C) Increase state funding for treatment.

D) Collect data for research.

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Chapter 50: Skin Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the major characteristic that differentiates cutaneous T-cell lymphoma from squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas is that cutaneous T-cell lymphoma:

A) Does not metastasize.

B) Has a cause unrelated to sun exposure.

C) Can be treated with radiation.

D) Can be treated topically.

Q2) An appropriate implementation for a patient with severe psoriasis who has a nursing diagnosis of "Disturbed body image,related to skin lesions" would be:

A) Touching the patient often

B) Reassuring the patient of a quick remission

C) Reminding the patient to bathe often

D) Prompt administration of medications as needed

Q3) The implementation that would make a patient with atopic dermatitis more comfortable is to:

A) Instruct the patient to wear loose clothing.

B) Add alcohol to the bath water.

C) Provide a diet low in fat.

D) Increase the room temperature between 78° F and 80° F.

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Eye and Vision Disorders

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29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient who has had surgery this morning for cataracts is now going home.Discharge instructions include that the patient should:

A) Sleep on the affected side.

B) Use stool softeners.

C) Avoid bending over.

D) Avoid lifting anything heavier than 5 pounds.

E) Not wear an eye shield at night.

Q2) A patient in the emergency department complains of severe pain in his eye and is seeing halos around lights and feeling nauseous.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as probable:

A) Open-angle glaucoma

B) Angle-closure glaucoma

C) Cataracts

D) Retinal detachment

Q3) The nurse explains that the correct term to use for a patient with a vision disorder is:

A) Blind

B) Handicapped

C) Partially blind

D) Visually impaired

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Page 53

Chapter 52: Ear and Hearing Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse has noted some common characteristics in patients with conductive hearing loss,which are evident when the patient:

A) Hears adequately in noisy settings.

B) Hears sounds but has difficulty understanding speech.

C) Has improved hearing with hearing aids.

D) Has a history of diabetes mellitus.

E) Speaks in a normal volume.

Q2) A patient with diabetes says that he needs a hearing aid because he cannot hear well and everything sounds garbled and distant.The nurse's most informative response would be that a hearing aid may not help him because he probably has:

A) Mixed hearing loss

B) Conductive hearing loss

C) Central hearing loss

D) Sensorineural hearing loss

Q3) When planning care for a patient who cannot perceive or interpret sounds,the nurse takes into consideration that the patient may have a ____________________ hearing loss.

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Chapter 53: Nose, sinus, and Throat Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the postoperative care of a patient who has had nasal surgery,the nurse will include in the care:

A) Changing the nasal packing when saturated.

B) Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler position without a pillow.

C) Giving frequent oral hygiene.

D) Providing humidification for dry mucous membranes.

E) Assessing the back of the throat for bleeding.

Q2) Patient education for a patient who is being given nose drops for the first time includes:

A) Asking the patient to sit down and tip her head to the side to allow for a better angle for the instillation of the drops.

B) Holding the dropper against the side of the nose so that all the medication flows into the nares.

C) Asking the patient to return any unused medication to the bottle.

D) Tipping the head back and holding the dropper over the nostril. Tell the patient to keep her head back for a few minutes.

Q3) The nurse reminds the patient,who is to have a partial laryngectomy,that the temporary tracheostomy that he will have after the original surgery will be closed within _______ days.

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Page 55

Chapter 54: Psychologic Responses to Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) The example of a positive stressor is:

A) Test anxiety

B) Loss of a job

C) Paying income tax

D) Single motherhood

Q2) The star quarterback on the high school football team is injured in a motorcycle accident.He will be unable to play football again.In planning his care,an appropriate nursing diagnosis for coping is:

A) Impaired physical mobility

B) Situational low self-esteem

C) Impaired social interaction

D) Impaired comfort

Q3) The nurse explains that according to Maslow,mentally healthy persons have the characteristics of:

A) Acceptance of self

B) Reality orientation

C) Spontaneity

D) Effective problem-solving skills

E) No need for privacy

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Psychiatric Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the patient who is receiving large doses of chlorpromazine (Thorazine)began to exhibit extrapyramidal signs of involuntary muscle movement,the nurse anticipates that _________ drugs will be added to the protocol.

A) Antiparkinsonian

B) Antihypertensive

C) Anticonvulsant

D) Antiemetic

Q2) For a patient who is hyperactive with mania and has a nursing diagnosis of "Nutrition,altered,less than body requirements,related to hyperactivity," the nurse would add to the implementations:

A) Offer nutritious finger foods and high-protein milk shakes to eat on the go.

B) Spoon feed the patient while he or she is seated at the table.

C) Arrange for one large meal at noon to be eaten in the company of others.

D) Limit fluid intake to make the patient hungry at mealtime.

Q3) When the nurse asks questions like,"What day is today?" or "What time is it now?" the nurse is testing the patient's ____________________.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 57

Chapter 56: Substance-Related Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25286

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse cautions a patient who is taking disulfiram (Antabuse)that ______________ should be avoided to prevent the accidental activation of Antabuse.

A) Aged cheese

B) Pickled foods

C) Mouthwash

D) Chocolate candy

Q2) The nurse is discharging a patient with a pulmonary disorder to return home with her family.She has had a difficult time while in the hospital and has experienced withdrawal from tobacco.When the nurse tells her that community resources are available to help her to stop smoking,she says,"That's OK.I can stop whenever I want to."

This is an example of:

A) Rationalization

B) Denial

C) Intellectualization

D) Projection

Q3) The nurse explains that a test that can detect substance abuse for up to 1 year after only 2 or 3 days of use is performed on ____________________.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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