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Nursing Process and Critical Thinking Test Preparation - 459 Verified Questions

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Nursing Process and Critical Thinking Test Preparation

Course Introduction

This course explores the foundational principles of the nursing process and emphasizes the development of critical thinking skills essential for effective nursing practice. Students will learn to systematically assess patient needs, formulate nursing diagnoses, plan evidence-based interventions, implement care strategies, and evaluate outcomes in diverse clinical settings. Through case studies, simulations, and reflective exercises, the course guides students in applying analytical and problem-solving techniques to enhance decision-making and deliver safe, patient-centered care. The integration of critical thinking with the nursing process prepares students to address complex healthcare challenges and adapt to dynamic clinical environments.

Recommended Textbook Concepts for Nursing Practice 2nd Edition by Giddens

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58 Chapters

459 Verified Questions

459 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/174 Page 2

Chapter 1: Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The \(\bold{most}\) appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is that it

A) can diagnose developmental disabilities.

B) identifies a need for physical therapy.

C) is a developmental screening tool.

D) provides a framework for health teaching.

Answer: C

Q2) To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as A) cerebral palsy.

B) autism.

C) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

D) failure to thrive.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Functional Ability

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's functional performance. What assessment parameters will be most important in this assessment?

A) Continence assessment, gait assessment, feeding assessment, dressing assessment, transfer assessment

B) Height, weight, body mass index (BMI), vital signs assessment

C) Sleep assessment, energy assessment, memory assessment, concentration assessment

D) Health and well-being, amount of community volunteer time, working outside the home, and ability to care for family and house

Answer: A

Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's functional ability. Which patient best demonstrates the definition of functional ability?

A) Considers self as a healthy individual; uses cane for stability

B) College educated; travels frequently; can balance a checkbook

C) Works out daily, reads well, cooks, and cleans house on the weekends

D) Healthy individual, volunteers at church, works part time, takes care of family and house

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Family Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When reviewing the purposes of a family assessment, the nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching if the student responded that family assessment is used to gain an understanding of which aspect of the family?

A) Development

B) Function

C) Political views

D) Structure

Answer: C

Q2) Two women have an established long-term relationship and are attending parenting classes in anticipation of finalizing adoption of a baby. The nurse identifies them as which type of family?

A) Cohabiting

B) Nuclear

C) Same-sex

D) Single parent

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Culture

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2325

Sample Questions

Q1) What interrelated constructs facilitate a nurse to become culturally competent?

A) Cultural diversity, self-awareness, cultural skill, and cultural knowledge

B) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural identity

C) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural diversity

D) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural skill

Q2) The nurse is caring for an older Chinese adult male who is grimacing and appears restless after abdominal surgery. What is the nurse's best action?

A) Ask the patient if he is anxious about his hospital stay.

B) Ask a translator to conduct a FACES pain scale assessment.

C) Ask the patient about pain and assess vital signs.

D) Ask the patient about any history of depression or anxiety.

Q3) Women who are given the job of caretaker for aging relatives are subject to caregiver strain due to A) feminine attributes. B) unequal gender.

C) fixed gender roles. D) female inequality.

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Chapter 5: Spirituality

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's spirituality and observes the patient meditating before any treatments. What is the nurse's best action?

A) Document that the patient is not religious

B) Offer the patient a copy of the bible to read

C) Arrange for quiet time for the patient as needed

D) Limit the time patient can meditate before procedures

Q2) A patient uses rosary beads and attends mass once a week. This expression of spirituality is best described with which term?

A) Religiosity

B) Faith

C) Belief

D) Authenticity

Q3) When developing a plan of care, the nurse should consider which attribute of the Chapter of spirituality?

A) Spirituality is not a well-known universal concept

B) Chronic versus acute illnesses affect spirituality

C) Convincing patients to pray is a priority intervention

D) Referrals may be needed to spiritual counselors

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Chapter 6: Adherence

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The patient's teaching plan includes this goal: "The patient will select a 2-gram sodium diet from the hospital menu for the next 3 days." Which intervention would be most effective at increasing the patient's compliance with the diet?

A) Check the sodium content of the patient's menu choices over the next 3 days.

B) Ask the patient to identify which foods on the hospital menus are high in sodium.

C) Have the patient list favorite foods that are high in sodium and foods that could be substituted for these favorites.

D) Compare the patient's sodium intake over the next 3 days with the sodium intake before the teaching was implemented.

Q2) When assessing a 22-year-old male patient, the nurse learns that he smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. The patient tells the nurse, "I enjoy smoking and have no plans to quit." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

A) Health Seeking Behaviors related to cigarette use

B) Ineffective Health Maintenance related to tobacco use

C) Readiness for Enhanced Self-Health Management related to smoking

D) Deficient Knowledge related to long-term effects of cigarette smoking

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Self-Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's readiness to be discharged and ability to manage care at home. What is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask to determine the patient's learning needs before planning teaching activities?

A) "What are your hobbies and occupation?"

B) "What do you need to know before you go home from the hospital?"

C) "Do you have any cultural or religious beliefs that you would like incorporated into your plan of care?"

D) "What were your grades and learning style when you were in school?"

Q2) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a newly diagnosed hypertensive patient who is being discharged on medications and given the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet to follow. What statement by the patient signals to the nurse that the patient is motivated to learn?

A) "I am sure the medications will help to bring down my blood pressure."

B) "I can't wait to try the new recipes, and I'm hopeful I will lose weight."

C) "Do I really need to follow the diet and take medications?"

D) "I have my parents to blame for this. They both have high blood pressure."

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9

Chapter 8: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient is receiving tube feedings due to a jaw surgery. What change in assessment findings should prompt the nurse to request an order for serum sodium concentration?

A) Development of ankle or sacral edema

B) Increased skin tenting and dry mouth

C) Postural hypotension and tachycardia

D) Decreased level of consciousness

Q2) The home health nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of acute immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has chronic diarrhea. Which assessments should the nurse use to detect the fluid and electrolyte imbalances for which the patient has high risk? (Select all that apply.)

A) Bilateral ankle edema

B) Weaker leg muscles than usual

C) Postural blood pressure and heart rate

D) Positive Trousseau's sign

E) Flat neck veins when upright

F) Decreased patellar reflexes

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Chapter 9: Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse has telephone messages from four patients who requested information and assistance. Which one should the nurse refer to a social worker or community agency first?

A) "Is there a place that I can dispose of my unused morphine pills?"

B) "I want to lose at least 20 pounds without getting sick this time."

C) "I think I have asthma because I cough when dogs are near."

D) "I ran out of money and am cutting my insulin dose in half."

Q2) The patient had diarrhea for 5 days and developed an acid-base imbalance. Which statement would indicate that the nurse's teaching about the acid-base imbalance has been effective?

A) "To prevent another problem, I should eat less sodium during diarrhea."

B) "My blood became too acid because I lost some base in the diarrhea fluid."

C) "Diarrhea removes fluid from the body, so I should drink more ice water."

D) "I should try to slow my breathing so my acids and bases will be balanced."

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11

Chapter 10: Thermoregulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nursery nurse should identify which newborn at significant risk for hypothermic alteration in thermoregulation?

A) Large for gestational age

B) Low birth weight

C) Born at term

D) Well nourished

Q2) Which strategies should the nurse include in a community program for senior citizens related to dealing with cold winter temperatures?

A) Avoiding hot beverages

B) Shopping at an indoor mall

C) Using a fan at low speed

D) Walking slowly in the park

Q3) What is the most appropriate measure for a nurse to use in assessing core body temperature when there are suspected problems with thermoregulation?

A) Oral thermometer

B) Rectal thermometer

C) Temporal thermometer scan

D) Tympanic membrane sensor

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12

Chapter 11: Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse must awaken a patient from Stage 4 non-rapid eye movement sleep in order to prepare the patient for a procedure. The patient is disoriented. What is the nurse's best action?

A) Notify the healthcare provider

B) Re-assess the patient's orientation

C) Administer an anti-anxiety medication

D) Cancel the patient's procedure

Q2) A patient complains of not being able to fall asleep at night and asks the nurse if there is a safe, non-prescription medication he can try. After consulting the healthcare provider, the nurse should recommend which naturally occurring hormone?

A) Melatonin

B) Cortisol

C) Leutinizing hormone

D) Estrogen

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13

Chapter 12: Cellular Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with prostate cancer is taking estrogen daily to control tumor growth. He reports that his left calf is swollen and painful. Which of the following would be the nurse's best action?

A) Instruct the client to keep the leg elevated.

B) Measure the calf circumference and compare the measurement with the right calf circumference measurement.

C) Apply ice to the calf after a 10-minute massage of the area.

D) Document assessment findings as an expected response with estrogen therapy.

Q2) The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer?

A) Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older

B) Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach

C) Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up

D) Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over

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Chapter 13: Intracranial Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe?

A) Aligning the neck with the body

B) Clustering many nursing activities

C) Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees

D) Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered

Q2) After shunt procedure, the nurse would monitor the patient's neurologic status by using which test?

A) Electroencephalogram

B) Glasgow Coma Scale

C) National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale

D) Monro-Kellie doctrine

Q3) The nurse should teach a patient that which is a primary prevention strategy to reduce the occurrence of head injuries?

A) Blood pressure control

B) Smoking cessation

C) Maintaining a healthy weight

D) Violence prevention

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15

Chapter 14: Hormonal Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radioactive iodine is indicated for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. The nurse should include which teaching in this patient's plan of care?

A) Isolation is required for 6-8 weeks

B) An additional dose may be needed

C) Thyroid replacement therapy is prescribed

D) An overnight hospital stay is required

Q2) Which statement made by a student nurse indicates the need for further teaching about pituitary insufficiency?

A) "Synthetic human growth hormone may be prescribed for children who are small for gestational age."

B) "Testosterone supplements may be prescribed for women with gonadotropin deficiency."

C) "Estrogen is known to regulate the action of growth hormone in men and women."

D) "Chronic kidney disease treatment may include synthetic growth hormone replacement."

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16

Chapter 15: Glucose Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be included in the assessment of a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction? (Select all that apply.)

A) Tremors

B) Nervousness

C) Extreme thirst

D) Flushed skin

E) Profuse perspiration

F) Constricted pupils

Q2) The nurse instructs a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus to avoid which of the following drugs while taking insulin?

A) Furosemide (Lasix)

B) Dicumarol (Bishydroxycoumarin)

C) Reserpine (Serpasil)

D) Cimetidine (Tagamet)

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Chapter 16: Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) During an interview, the nurse is discussing dietary habits with a patient. Which tool would be the best choice to use as a quick screening tool to assess dietary intake?

A) Food diary

B) Calorie count

C) Comprehensive diet history

D) 24-hour recall

Q2) During a physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient's skin is dry and flaking, with patches of eczema. Which nutritional deficiency might be present?

A) Vitamin C

B) Vitamin B

C) Essential fatty acid

D) Protein

Q3) The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a patient with hypertension. What foods would be recommended for this patient?

A) Regular diet

B) Low sodium diet

C) Pureed diet

D) Low sugar diet

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Chapter 17: Elimination

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who was diagnosed with senile dementia has become incontinent of urine. The patient's daughter asks the nurse why this is happening. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "The patient is angry about the dementia diagnosis."

B) "The patient is losing sphincter control due to the dementia."

C) "The patient forgets where the bathroom is located due to the dementia."

D) "The patient wants to leave the hospital."

Q2) The process of digestion is important for every living organism for the purpose of nourishment. Where does most digestion take place in the body?

A) Large intestine

B) Stomach

C) Small intestine

D) Pancreas

Q3) What is a primary prevention tool used for colon cancer screening?

A) Abdominal x-rays

B) Blood, urea, and nitrogen (BUN) testing

C) Serum electrolytes

D) Occult blood testing

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19

Chapter 18: Perfusion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is explaining to a student nurse about impaired central perfusion. The nurse knows the student understands this problem when the student makes which statement?

A) "Central perfusion is monitored only by the physician."

B) "Central perfusion involves the entire body."

C) "Central perfusion is decreased with hypertension."

D) "Central perfusion is toxic to the cardiac system."

Q2) A patient's serum electrolytes are being monitored. The nurse notices that the potassium level is low. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

A) Tissue ischemia

B) Brain malformations

C) Intestinal blockage

D) Cardiac dysrhythmia

Q3) The patient asks the nurse to explain the function of the sinoatrial node in the heart. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "The sinoatrial node stimulates the heart to beat in a normal rhythm."

B) "The sinoatrial node protects the heart from atherosclerotic changes."

C) "The sinoatrial node provides the heart with oxygenated blood."

D) "The sinoatrial node protects the heart from infection."

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Gas Exchange

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which clinical management prevention Chapter would the nurse identify as representative of secondary prevention?

A) Decreasing venous stasis and risk for pulmonary emboli

B) Implementation of strict hand washing routines

C) Maintaining current vaccination schedules

D) Prevention of pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease

Q2) The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient finding would the nurse identify as a factor leading to increased risk for impaired gas exchange?

A) Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL

B) Anticoagulant therapy for 10 days

C) Hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL

D) Heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60

Q3) A 3-month-old infant is at increased risk for developing anemia. The nurse would identify which principle contributing to this risk?

A) The infant is becoming more active.

B) There is an increase in intake of breast milk or formula.

C) The infant is unable to maintain an adequate iron intake.

D) A depletion of fetal hemoglobin occurs.

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21

Chapter 20: Clotting

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would anticipate that which of the following patient conditions will be treated with the collaborative treatment of regular phlebotomies?

A) Hemophilia

B) Thrombocytopenia

C) Eosinophilia

D) Polycythemia

Q2) A patient states that his legs have pain with walking that decreases with rest. The nurse observes absence of hair on the patient's lower leg and the patient has a thready, posterior tibial pulse. How would the nurse position the patient's legs?

A) Elevated

B) Crossed at the knee

C) Slightly bent with a pillow under the knees

D) Dependent position

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22

Chapter 21: Reproduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse at the family planning clinic conducts a male history for infertility evaluation. Which finding has the greatest implication for this patient's care?

A) Practice of nightly masturbation

B) Primary anovulation

C) High testosterone levels

D) Impotence due to alcohol ingestion

Q2) A female patient comes to the clinic after missing one menstrual period. She lives in a house beneath electrical power lines which is located near an oil field. She drinks two caffeinated beverages a day, is a daily beer drinker, and has not stopped eating sweets. She takes a multivitamin and exercises daily. She denies drug use. Which finding in the history has the greatest implication for this patient's plan of care?

A) Electrical power lines are a potential hazard to the woman and her fetus.

B) Living near an oil field may mean the water supply is polluted.

C) Alcohol exposure should be avoided during pregnancy due to teratogenicity.

D) Eating sweets may cause gestational diabetes or miscarriage.

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Chapter 22: Sexuality

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old male patient post-myocardial infarction (MI) asks the nurse whether he will be healthy enough for sexual activity after discharge from the hospital. The patient has been prescribed anti-hypertensives and beta-blockers. During health teaching, the nurse understands that the three phases of the four-stage model of the human sexual response cycle that are of concern for this patient include which phases?

A) Excitement, plateau, and orgasmic

B) Plateau, orgasmic, and resolution

C) Excitement, orgasmic, and resolution

D) Arousal, excitement, and plateau

Q2) A 37-year-old heterosexual African-American man has come for his annual health screening. Which test must the nurse ensure is ordered for this patient?

A) Human papilloma virus (HPV)

B) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

C) HIV

D) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)

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Chapter 23: Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) While caring for a patient preparing for a kidney transplant, the nurse knows that the patient understands teaching on immunosuppression when she makes which statement?

A) "My body will treat the new kidney like my original kidney."

B) "I will have to make sure that I avoid being around people."

C) "The medications that I take will help prevent my body from attacking my new kidney."

D) "My body will only have a problem with my new kidney if the donor is not directly related to me."

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who was started on intravenous antibiotic therapy earlier in the shift. As the second dose is being infused, the patient reports feeling dizzy and having difficulty breathing and talking. The nurse notes that the patient's respirations are 26 breaths/min with a weak pulse of 112 beats/min. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?

A) Suppressed immune response

B) Hyperimmune response

C) Allergic reaction

D) Anaphylactic reaction

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Chapter 24: Inflammation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses the patient and notes all of the following. Select all of the findings that indicate the systemic manifestations of inflammation.

A) Oral temperature 38.6° C/101.5° F

B) Thick, green nasal discharge

C) Patient complaint of pain at 6 on a 0 to 10 scale on palpation of frontal and maxillary sinuses

D) WBC 20 cells/McL \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L

E) Patient reports, "I'm tired all the time. I haven't felt like myself in days."

Q2) A patient is being treated with an antibiotic for an infected orthopedic injury. What explanation should the nurse give to the patient about this medication?

A) "Antibiotics will decrease the pain at the site."

B) "An antibiotic helps to kill the infection causing the inflammation."

C) "An antibiotic inhibits cyclooxygenase, an enzyme in the body."

D) "Antibiotics will reduce the patient's fever."

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Chapter 25: Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which set of assessment data is consistent for a patient with severe infection that could lead to system failure?

A) Blood pressure (BP) 92/52, pulse (P) 56 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) 10 breaths/min, urine output 1200 mL in past 24 hours

B) BP 90/48, P 112 beats/min, RR 26 breaths/min, urine output 240 mL in past 24 hours

C) BP 112/64, P 98 beats/min, RR 18 breaths/min, urine output 2400 mL in past 24 hours

D) BP 152/90, P 52 beats/min, RR 12 breaths/min, urine output 4800 mL in past 24 hours

Q2) Individuals of low socioeconomic status are at an increased risk for infection because of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Uninsured or underinsured status

B) Easy access to health screenings

C) High cost of medications

D) Inadequate nutrition

E) Mostly female gender

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Chapter 26: Mobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percentage of hip fractures is the result of falls?

A) 50%

B) 80%

C) 90%

D) 100%

Q2) Mobility for the patient changes throughout the life span. What is the term that best describes this process?

A) Aging and illness

B) Illness and disease

C) Health and wellness

D) Growth and development

Q3) A patient who has been in the hospital for several weeks is about to be discharged. The patient is weak from the hospitalization and asks the nurse to explain why this is happening. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Your iron level is low. This is known as anemia."

B) "Your immobility in the hospital is known as deconditioning."

C) "Your poor appetite is known as malnutrition."

D) "Your medications have caused drug induced weakness."

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Chapter 27: Tissue Integrity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks the nurse what the purpose of the Wood's light is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

A) "We will put an anesthetic on your skin to prevent pain."

B) "The lamp can help detect skin cancers."

C) "Some patients feel a pressure-like sensation."

D) "It is used to identify the presence of infectious organisms and proteins associated with specific skin conditions."

Q2) A nurse is conducting community education classes on skin cancer. One participant says to the nurse: "I read that most melanomas occur on the face and arms in fair-skinned women. Is this true?" The nurse's most helpful response would be which of the following?

A) "That is not correct. Melanoma is more commonly found on the torso or the lower legs of women."

B) "That is correct, because the face and arms are exposed more often to the sun."

C) "That is not correct. Melanoma occurs on the top of the head in men but is rare in women."

D) "That is incorrect. Melanoma is most commonly seen in dark-skinned individuals."

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Chapter 28: Sensory Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 80-year-old patient is being discharged after he was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and retinopathy. His daughter has been part of the discharge instruction process. Understanding of the instructions is evident when the daughter says which of the following?

A) "I will make sure that Dad always wears warm socks."

B) "Dad needs to wear his glasses so he can delay the onset of macular degeneration."

C) "I will ask the home health aide to carefully inspect Dad's feet every day when she helps him bathe."

D) "We will give him only warm foods, so that he doesn't burn his mouth."

Q2) During the examination of the ear, a dark yellow substance is noted in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is not visible. The patient's wife complains that he never hears what she says lately. These findings would suggest that the nurse prepare the patient for which procedure?

A) Tympanoplasty

B) Irrigation of the ear

C) Pure tone test

D) Otoscopic exam by a specialist

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Pain

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Q1) An 80-year-old male patient is in the intensive care unit has suffered a fractured femur. You are making rounds and notice he is somnolent, with no response to verbal or physical stimulation. He has been on round the clock opioid doses q 4 hours. What is the nurse's first action?

A) Call the rapid response team to care for the patient immediately.

B) Discontinue the opioids on the medication administration record.

C) Assess the patient's blood pressure and pain level.

D) Start a second intravenous line with a large bore catheter.

Q2) A 62-year-old male has fallen while trimming tree branches sustaining tissue injury. He describes his condition as an aching, throbbing back. This is characteristic of what type of pain?

A) Neuropathic pain

B) Nociceptive pain

C) Chronic pain

D) Mixed pain syndrome

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Chapter 30: Fatigue

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been recently diagnosed with chronic fatigue syndrome and asks the nurse about the cause of this illness. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "The provider will be able to tell you when the lab results are back."

B) "An exact cause may not be determined, but a treatment plan will be discussed."

C) "Stress is the main cause; a referral to a counselor may be helpful."

D) "This is considered a psychiatric illness requiring behavioral medicine."

Q2) A patient with chronic kidney disease is most likely to complain of which symptom?

A) Fatigue

B) Thirst

C) Constipation

D) Excess bleeding

Q3) Based on the significant effects of chronic idiopathic fatigue, what is the nurse's priority assessment?

A) Cholesterol level and lipid profile

B) Creatinine and BUN levels

C) Memory loss testing

D) Mental health evaluation

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Chapter 31: Stress

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is working with a patient who recently lost her spouse after a lengthy illness. The patient shares that she would like to sell her home and move to another state now that her spouse has passed away. Which of the following interventions would be considered a priority for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Notify the provider to evaluate for antidepressant therapy.

B) Suggest that the patient consider a support group for widows.

C) Suggest that the patient learn stress reduction breathing exercises.

D) Suggest that the patient take prescribed antianxiety medications.

E) Assist the patient in identifying support systems.

F) Notify the provider to evaluate the need for antianxiety medications.

Q2) A patient has not been sleeping well because he is worried about losing his job and not being able to support his family. The nurse takes the patient's vital signs and notes a pulse rate of 112 beats/min, respirations are 26 breaths/min, and his blood pressure is 166/88 instead his usual 110-120/76-84 range. Which nursing intervention or recommendation should be used first?

A) Go to sleep 30 to 60 minutes earlier each night to increase rest.

B) Relax by spending more time playing with his pet dog.

C) Slow and deepen breathing via use of a positive, repeated word.

D) Consider that a new job might be better than his present one.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Coping

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Q1) A patient is the primary caregiver for a disabled family member at home, and has now been unexpectedly hospitalized for surgery. What action can the nurse take to enhance the coping ability of the patient?

A) Ask if there is another family member who can help at home while the patient is in the hospital.

B) Plan to transfer the patient to a rehabilitation unit after surgery to allow uninterrupted time to recover.

C) Coordinate an ambulance transfer of the family member to an alternate family member's home.

D) Ask social services to assess what the patient's needs will be after discharge to home.

Q2) The nurse is assessing the coping patterns of a newly admitted patient. What will the nurse include in this assessment? (Select all that apply.)

A) Current stressors as perceived by the patient

B) Use of drugs or alcohol

C) Recent weight changes

D) Age and height

E) Temperature

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34

Chapter 33: Mood and Affect

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Q1) An older adult has experienced severe depression for many years and is unable to tolerate most antidepressant medications due to adverse effects of the medications. He is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) as a treatment for his depression. What teaching should the nurse give the patient regarding this treatment?

A) There are no special preparations needed before this treatment.

B) Common side effects include headache and short-term memory loss.

C) One treatment will be needed to cure the depression.

D) This treatment will leave you unconscious for several hours.

Q2) As a nurse in the emergency department, you are caring for a patient who is exhibiting signs of depression. What is a priority nursing intervention you should perform for this patient?

A) Assess for depression and ask directly about suicide thoughts.

B) Ask the care provider to prescribe blood lab work to assess for depression.

C) Focus on the presenting problems and refer the patient for a mental health evaluation.

D) Interview the patient's family to identify their concerns about the patient's behaviors.

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35

Chapter 34: Anxiety

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing the social support of a patient who is recently divorced and has moved from their hometown to the city due to change in jobs. Which response related to social support would be most therapeutic?

A) Encourage the patient to begin dating again, perhaps with members of her church.

B) Discuss how divorce support groups could increase coping and social support.

C) Note that being so particular about potential friends reduces social contact.

D) Discuss using the Internet as a way to find supportive others with similar values.

Q2) A patient complains of insomnia during his stay in the hospital. Which nursing diagnosis would be a top priority for this patient?

A) Anxiety related to hospitalization

B) Ineffective Coping related to hospitalization

C) Denial related to hospitalization

D) High Risk for Insomnia related to hospitalization

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Chapter 35: Cognition

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Q1) A patient who is dehydrated has been experiencing confusion. The daughter is concerned about taking the patient home in a confused state. What statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Don't worry; the patient should be fine once they are in a familiar environment."

B) "I can make a referral for a home health aide to assist with the patient."

C) "Once the dehydration is corrected, the patient's confusion should improve."

D) "I can show you how to care for the patient once you return home."

Q2) The nurse is sitting with the family of a patient who has just received the diagnosis of dementia. The family asks for information on what treatment will be needed to cure the condition. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Hormone therapy will reverse the condition."

B) "Vitamin C and zinc will reverse the condition."

C) "There is no treatment that reverses dementia."

D) "Dementia can be reversed with diet, exercise, and medications."

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Chapter 36: Psychosis

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Q1) The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient taking clozapine. Which information is essential to include in the teaching plan?

A) Caution about sunlight exposure

B) Reminder to call the clinic if fever, sore throat, or malaise develops

C) Instructions regarding dietary restrictions

D) A chart to record patient weight

Q2) A client previously diagnosed as psychotic expresses to the nurse that he is seeing spiders climbing up the walls in his room and he is concerned that they will get into his bed. What is the nurse's best response?

A) Ignore his remarks and remain silent when providing care.

B) Express doubt that there are spiders on the wall.

C) Ask the client if he also sees spiders in the day room.

D) Tell the client there are no spiders and he should stop worrying about it.

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Chapter 37: Addiction

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient using the CAGE Questionnaire. The patient answers yes to all of the questions. The nurse suspects alcoholism and feels the patient is in denial when the patient makes which statement?

A) "I go to meetings once a day and still drink."

B) "My family and friends have been avoiding me lately."

C) "I don't have a problem with alcohol. I can quit anytime I want to."

D) "I know it will be hard to quit, but I am willing to try."

Q2) A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department presenting with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min, and cardiac dysrhythmias. What is the most appropriate question the nurse should ask the patient's friend?

A) "Does he take amphetamines or uppers?"

B) "Has he ever used LSD?"

C) "Have you two been out of the country in the last 2 days?"

D) "Is he using any opioids such as heroin?"

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Chapter 38: Interpersonal Violence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse working at a women's health clinic is seeing a teenage female patient who has come in for a refill on her birth control medication and with a complaint of abdominal pain. When the nurse enters the room, the patient is sitting in the chair with her head down, rocking back and forth, does not make eye contact, and answers questions with no expression on her face. What assessment question would be important for the nurse to ask the patient?

A) "What brings you to the clinic today?"

B) "What can we do to help you today?"

C) "Do you feel safe in your current relationship?"

D) "Have you changed your diet lately?"

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department who has been a victim of intimate partner violence. What is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

A) Medication to calm the perpetrator of the violence

B) A list of community resources

C) A referral for self-defense training

D) A referral to the victim's religious advisor

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Professional Identity

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Q1) The American Nurses' Association (ANA) outlines expectations of the nursing profession in which type of documentation?

A) Gallup poll

B) Goldman report

C) Social Policy Statement

D) Social identity theory

Q2) Components of a professional identity in nursing include which attributes? (Select all that apply.)

A) Accountability

B) Advocacy

C) Autonomy

D) Competence

E) Culture

Q3) What nursing recommendations are published in the Institute of Medicine (IOM's) report The future of nursing: Leading change, advancing health?

A) Teach, advocate, assess, and nurture.

B) Should have a graduate degree to practice.

C) Diagnose and recommend treatments.

D) Must have continuing education.

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Clinical Judgment

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Q1) A nurse has designed an individualized nursing care plan for a patient, but the patient is not meeting goals. Further assessment reveals that the patient is not following through on many items. Which action by the nurse would be best for determining the cause of the problem?

A) Assess whether the actions were too hard for the patient.

B) Determine whether the patient agrees with the care plan.

C) Question the patient's reasons for not following through.

D) Reevaluate data to ensure the diagnoses are sound.

Q2) A patient has been admitted for a skin graft following third degree burns to the bilateral calves. The plan of care involves 3 days inpatient and 6 months outpatient treatment, to include home care and dressing changes. When should the nurse initiate the educational plan?

A) After the operation and the patient is awake

B) On admission, along with the initial assessment

C) The day before the patient is to be discharged

D) When narcotics are no longer needed routinely

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Chapter 41: Leadership

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Q1) The nursing unit director exhibits the definition of leadership in which of the following responses?

A) The nurse manager refers the concern to the director of the department.

B) The nurse manager corrects the concern with the patient directly and does not communicate her actions to the staff.

C) The nurse manager meets with the staff to discuss the concern and identify solutions.

D) The nurse manager tells the staff that they need to correct the situation by tomorrow and leaves the meeting.

Q2) What are the main features of complex adaptive systems that are relevant to nursing leadership? (Select all that apply.)

A) Focused on creating organizational change and looking at the whole versus individual parts.

B) Defined by efforts of leadership to mandate organizational change.

C) Autocratic in nature with a top-down structure for change.

D) Dependent on employees knowing what change is necessary and acting independently.

E) Non-linear and dynamic in nature, versus a static process.

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Chapter 42: Ethics

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Q1) A drug-addicted nurse switches a patient's morphine injection with normal saline so that the nurse can use the morphine. The nurse is violating which principles of ethics? (Select all that apply.)

A) Autonomy

B) Utilitarianism

C) Beneficence

D) Dilemmas

E) Veracity

Q2) An unconscious patient is treated in the emergency department for head trauma. The patient is unconscious and on life support for 2 weeks prior to making a full recovery. The initial actions of the medical team are based on which ethical principle?

A) Utilitarianism

B) Deontology

C) Autonomy

D) Veracity

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Chapter 43: Patient Education

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Q1) The nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching when the student lists which example as a type of learning?

A) Affective

B) Cognitive

C) Psychomotor

D) Self-directed

Q2) Strategies to include in a teaching plan for an adult who has repeatedly not followed the written discharge instructions would include which information source?

A) Individualized handout

B) Instructional videos

C) Internet resources

D) Self-help books

Q3) When planning to evaluate a patient's satisfaction with a teaching activity, what is the most appropriate strategy?

A) Include a survey instrument.

B) Observe for level of skill mastery.

C) Present information more than one time.

D) Provide for a return demonstration.

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45

Chapter 44: Health Promotion

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Q1) The nurse in a newly opened community health clinic is developing a program for the individuals considered at greatest risk for poor health outcomes. How should the nurse consider this group?

A) Global community

B) Sedentary society

C) Unmotivated population

D) Vulnerable population

Q2) Interrelated Chapters to professional nursing a nurse manager would consider when addressing concerns about the quality of health promotion include which Chapters? (Select all that apply.)

A) Culture

B) Development

C) Evidence

D) Nutrition

E) Health policy

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Chapter 45: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse and the patient are conversing face to face. What communication technique is being demonstrated?

A) Linguistic

B) Paralinguistic

C) Explicit

D) Metacommunication

Q2) A nurse is conducting a therapeutic session with a patient in the inpatient psychiatric facility. Which remark by the nurse would be an appropriate way to begin an interview session?

A) "How shall we start today?"

B) "Shall we talk about losing your privileges yesterday?"

C) "Let's get started discussing your marital relationship."

D) "What happened when your family visited yesterday?"

Q3) The nurse is seeking clarification of a statement that was made by a patient. What is the best way for the nurse to seek clarification?

A) "What are the common elements here?"

B) "Tell me again about your experiences."

C) "Am I correct in understanding that "

D) "Tell me everything from the beginning."

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Chapter 46: Collaboration

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Q1) A patient has been admitted to an acute care hospital unit. The nurse explains the hospital philosophy that the patient be an active part of planning their care. The patient verbalizes understanding of this request when they make which statement?

A) "I will have to do whatever the physician says I need to do."

B) "Once a plan is developed, it cannot be changed."

C) "My insurance will not pay if I don't do what you want me to do."

D) "We can work together to adjust my plan as we need to."

Q2) The management of a community hospital is trying to encourage a more collaborative environment among staff members. Which Chapter is most important for management to develop first?

A) Post educational posters about how well collaboration is being performed

B) Highlight that no single profession can meet the needs of all patients

C) Provide meetings for each department on how their role affects patients

D) Begin implementing evaluations of collaborative skills on annual performance reviews

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Chapter 47: Safety

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Q1) To promote safety, the nurse manager sensitive to point of care (sharp end) and systems level (blunt end) exemplars works closely with staff to address which point of care exemplar?

A) Care coordination

B) Documentation

C) Electronic records

D) Fall prevention

Q2) A sentinel event refers to which situation?

A) An event that could have harmed a patient, but serious harm didn't occur because of chance.

B) An event that harms a patient as a result of underlying disease or condition.

C) An event that harms a patient by omission or commission, not an underlying disease or condition.

D) An event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response.

Q3) Which is an essential element of a standard order set to verify a medication order?

A) Volume only

B) Number of tablets

C) Metric dose/strength

D) Hour of administration

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Technology and Informatics

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Q1) To design and implement a decubitus ulcer risk management protocol in the electronic health record, the informatics nurse would first perform which action?

A) Build the screens in the electronic health record.

B) Determine evidence supporting decubitus ulcer risk management.

C) Develop the training program for staff.

D) Select the appropriate standardized language.

Q2) Florence Nightingale, the first nurse informatician, sought hospital data for comparison purposes to compete which goal?

A) Allow faster and accurate diagnosis.

B) Better coordinate care.

C) Improve the efficiency of care.

D) Show people how their money was spent.

Q3) The staff nurse who uses informatics in promoting quality patient care is most likely to access data in which domain?

A) Certified clinical information systems (CIS)

B) Clinical health care informatics

C) Public health/population informatics

D) Translational bioinformatics

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Chapter 49: Evidence

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Q1) The nurse is conducting a review of the literature for pain management techniques. Which of the following would the nurse consider when conducting research that yields solid EBP? (Select all that apply.)

A) Search the literature to uncover evidence to answer the question.

B) Evaluate the outcome.

C) Use the nursing process to evaluate evidence.

D) Evaluate the evidence found.

E) Develop an answerable question.

F) Develop a question that has not been answered.

G) Apply the evidence to the practice situation.

Q2) The nurse administrator is doing a study that entails gathering data about new employees over a 10-year period. Which research method would be the best one to use for this type of study?

A) Quantitative longitude cohort

B) Qualitative longitudinal

C) Qualitative interview

D) Qualitative case study

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Chapter 50: Health Care Quality

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Q1) A student nurse is talking with his instructor. The student asks how quality of care is evaluated. What is the best response by the instructor?

A) "Quality of care is evaluated by the patient getting well."

B) "Quality of care is evaluated on the basis of process and outcomes."

C) "Quality of care is evaluated by the physician's assessment."

D) "Quality of care is evaluated by the patient's satisfaction."

Q2) A student nurse and clinical instructor are discussing quality in health care. The instructor knows the student understands when the student makes which statement?

A) "Quality is apparent in all health care."

B) "Quality is an outcome of health care."

C) "Quality is seen and unseen in health care."

D) "Quality is achieved by collaboration in health care."

Q3) What are two major foci of The Joint Commission (TJC) in the delivery of health care?

A) Cost containment; safety

B) Safety; quality

C) Quality; assessment

D) Assessment; evaluation

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Chapter 51: Care Coordination

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Q1) Student nurses are being questioned by the nursing instructor about the health care coordination system. The instructor knows the students understand health care delivery when making which statement?

A) "Health care is available for everyone at every time."

B) "Health care needs are best met with a collaborative effort."

C) "Health care is adequately meeting the needs of the homeless populations."

D) "Health care needs are mostly in third world countries."

Q2) Nurses work to serve the population, and they know that which priority population needs to be served by care coordination?

A) Most vulnerable and the frail

B) Uninsured and the very young

C) Underinsured and the elderly population

D) Whole population of the community

Q3) For children and teens, which model includes school-based services?

A) Social

B) Integrated

C) Medically-Oriented

D) Nurse-Oriented

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Chapter 52: Caregiving

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Q1) Caregivers are often categorized by their relationship to the person being cared for. Which of the following are the roles? (Select all that apply.)

A) Grandparent

B) Spouse

C) Parent

D) Adult children

E) Neighbor/friend

F) Young children

Q2) The nurse is counseling a woman who is caring for her 83-year-old father. The father has had mental changes and is becoming more confused. The father lives with the daughter in her home. The nurse knows the daughter understands the father's care needs when she states which of the following?

A) "Dad will only need my help for a short time, and then he will get better."

B) "I can leave dad alone during the day; I'll just deadbolt the door."

C) "I can send dad to the adult daycare; that way I can work and care for him at night."

D) "Dad misses mom since she passed; he will be okay in a few weeks."

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Chapter 53: Palliation

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Q1) When considering the trajectory of a specific disease, what is the most important Chapter?

A) Hospital admissions

B) Physical functioning

C) Quality of life

D) Symptom management

Q2) The student demonstrates a lack of understanding of palliative care when making which statement?

A) "Palliative care is designed to promote comfort."

B) "Palliative care is designed to reduce disease exacerbations."

C) "Palliative care is designed to decrease acute care hospital admissions."

D) "Palliative care is designed to promote a cure for chronic disease."

Q3) What is the most prominent goal of palliative care?

A) Integrate into chronic disease management sooner rather than later.

B) Enroll the patient into the Medicare Hospice Benefit.

C) Ensure that the patient has a 6-month prognosis.

D) Reserve this type of care until the patient is actively dying.

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Chapter 54: Health Disparities

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Q1) Which is the best strategy the nurse manager should include when working to reduce health care disparities on a medical-surgical unit?

A) Less diverse workforce

B) Increase interpreter availability

C) Authoritarian leadership

D) Annual staff training

Q2) An experienced nurse tells the student nurse, "I have found that most Hispanic immigrants live in unsanitary conditions but are hard workers." How should the student nurse best classify this statement?

A) Stereotyping

B) Prejudice

C) Discrimination

D) Misinformed

Q3) Before beginning work on a culturally diverse hospital unit, the nurse should perform which action first?

A) Improve self-awareness of one's own biases

B) Attend an anti-discrimination rally or march

C) Build rapport and trust with the patients

D) Take a foreign language class

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Health Care Organizations

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Q1) A hospital organization is applying for Magnet status to show excellence in nursing practice. What components would indicate that the hospital is meeting Magnet principles? (Select all that apply.)

A) The education budget for nursing has been cut to provide for new laboratory equipment.

B) On average, 40% of new nurses are leaving within 1 year of hire.

C) Nurses are active participants on all major hospital committees.

D) Quality improvement projects are planned and evaluated by nurses.

E) Patient care outcome data are reported in the annual executive board meeting.

Q2) A nurse is interviewing at an agency owned by a national religious organization that serves homeless and uninsured patients. A large poster display shows a proposed addition that would add 16 beds to the facility that will be funded from profits of the previous 3 years of operation. The nurse recognizes that the agency is most likely what type of agency?

A) For-profit

B) Not-for-profit

C) Publicly-owned

D) Investor-owned

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Chapter 56: Health Care Economics

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Q1) A student asks the instructor about health care economics. The instructor knows the student understands when the student makes which statement?

A) "The elderly population uses most of the health care services."

B) "Everyone should have health insurance to obtain services."

C) "Health care dollars should be partitioned by the government."

D) "Resources will be needed to serve health care issues."

Q2) What do the economics of health care include?

A) Medicare and Medicaid dollars

B) Patients' rights

C) Equal distribution of health care

D) Nurse salaries

Q3) An accountable care organization (ACO) seeks to deliver which of the following aspects of health care? (Select all that apply.)

A) Lessen Medicare payments

B) Integrate care

C) Enhance evidence-based practices

D) Manage acute conditions

E) Support hospice charges

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58

Chapter 57: Health Policy

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Q1) Nurses can be health advocates in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)

A) Supporting their professional nursing organization when discussing upcoming legislation

B) Discussing the upcoming classes with a neighbor

C) Rallying for coverage for childhood immunizations

D) Arranging for a patient to meet with case management for home health care

E) Discussing a patient they are concerned about with a fellow student in the public cafeteria

Q2) Which level of government is responsible for the regulation of a nurse's license?

A) Federal government

B) State government

C) Local government

D) International coalition

Q3) A definition of health policy includes which of the following elements?

A) Funding for public education

B) Appropriation of funds for roadwork

C) Selection of congressional members of committees

D) Public policy made to support health-related goals

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 59

Chapter 58: Health Care Law

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2379

Sample Questions

Q1) In which of the following answers is the hospital in compliance with the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act and Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act of 1986 (EMTALA)?

A) The emergency department staff asks a patient to stay in the waiting room until the patients with insurance are treated.

B) The emergency registration personnel explain to a patient that they must have proper identification to receive treatment.

C) A patient with chest pain is triaged directly to a room for evaluation and registration information is obtained after the patient is stabilized.

D) The emergency department physician discharges and instructs a patient who is actively suicidal to go the neighbor facility that has psychiatric services.

Q2) What is one of the major attributes of health care law?

A) It defines the expected behavior of persons in the business of health care.

B) The law or rule is easy to interpret and comply with.

C) It is established by any health care authority.

D) The creator must be an expert in health care.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 60

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