Nursing Practice Test
Preparation
Course Introduction
Nursing Practice is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with foundational and advanced clinical skills essential for the nursing profession. Emphasizing patient-centered care, the course covers assessment techniques, intervention strategies, and evidence-based practice in various healthcare settings. Students engage in simulated and real-world clinical experiences to develop competencies in communication, critical thinking, and ethical decision-making. The course also addresses interdisciplinary collaboration, cultural sensitivity, and the integration of technology in patient care, preparing future nurses to deliver safe, effective, and compassionate care in diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1303 Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25895
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
Q2) What are the properties of an ideal drug?
A) Irreversible action
B) Predictability
C) Ease of administration
D) Chemical stability
E) A recognizable trade name
Answer: B, C, D
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25896
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who will be taking an antihypertensive medication. Which action by the nurse is part of the assessment step of the nursing process?
A) Asking the prescriber for an order to monitor serum drug levels
B) Monitoring the patient for drug interactions after giving the medication
C) Questioning the patient about over-the-counter medications
D) Taking the patient's blood pressure throughout the course of treatment
Answer: C
Q2) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.
B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.
C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.
D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25897
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?
A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects
B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment
C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group
D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25898
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply?
A) "This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally."
B) "This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled."
C) "This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form."
D) "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach."
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?
A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given
B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead
C) Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available
D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25899
Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
C) It gives the receptor a new function.
D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
Q2) A patient is receiving digoxin twice daily. When assessing the patient before giving a dose, the nurse counts a pulse of 60 beats/min and learns that the patient is experiencing nausea. The nurse consults a drug manual and verifies that the ordered dose is correct. What should the nurse do?
A) Contact the prescriber to report the symptoms.
B) Delay the dose so the drug can clear from receptor sites.
C) Give the medication as ordered, because the dose is correct.
D) Request an antinausea medication from the prescriber.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25900
Sample Questions
Q1) A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep, and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects
B) Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia
C) Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine
D) Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably
Q2) The prescriber has ordered an antibiotic for a patient with a bacterial infection. The nurse provides patient education at discharge and instructs the patient to take the drug on an empty stomach. When should the patient take the drug?
A) 1 hour or more before a meal
B) Only after an 8-hour fast
C) Only after the patient has missed a meal
D) At least 2 hours after a meal
E) Shortly before a meal
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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25901
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being discharged after surgery. During the admission history, the nurse learned that the patient normally consumes 2 or 3 glasses of wine each day. The prescriber has ordered hydrocodone with acetaminophen [Lortab] for pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for acetaminophen without hydrocodone for pain.
B) Suggest that the patient use ibuprofen for pain.
C) Tell the patient not to drink wine while taking Lortab.
D) Tell the patient to limit wine intake to 1 or 2 glasses per day.
Q2) Which patients are at increased risk for adverse drug events?
A) A 2-month-old infant taking a medication for gastroesophageal reflux disease
B) A 23-year-old female taking an antibiotic for the first time
C) A 40-year-old male who is intubated in the intensive care unit and taking antibiotics and cardiac medications
D) A 7-year-old female receiving insulin for diabetes
E) An 80-year-old male taking medications for COPD
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25902
Sample Questions
Q1) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:
A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.
B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.
C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response.
D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results?
A) Albumin
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
C) Hepatic enzymes
D) Serum electrolytes
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus
B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers
C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy
D) To resume the medication in her second trimester
Q2) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.
B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.
C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.
D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.
Q3) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25904
Sample Questions
Q1) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily
Q2) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."
B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."
C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."
D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."
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12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25905
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on changes in hepatic function in older adult patients, which adjustment should the nurse expect for oral medications that undergo extensive first-pass metabolism?
A) A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule.
B) The interval between doses should be increased.
C) No change is necessary; metabolism will not be affected.
D) The interval between doses should be reduced.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge.
B) Give the patient detailed written information about each drug.
C) Cluster medication administration times as much as possible.
D) Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.
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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25906
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuropharmacology. Which statement by a student about peripheral nervous system (PNS) drugs indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Drugs affecting axonal conduction have a variety of uses."
B) "Drugs that alter synaptic transmission can be highly selective."
C) "Many PNS drugs act by altering synaptic transmission."
D) "These drugs work by influencing receptor activity."
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist drug. What does the nurse understand about this drug?
A) It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes.
B) It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process.
C) It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes.
D) It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic processes.
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25907
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q2) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25908
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV
B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]
C) An acetylcholinesterase activator
D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]
Q2) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB) and reports occasional constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Oxybutynin short-acting syrup
B) Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets
C) Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch
D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25909
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The prescriber has ordered neostigmine [Prostigmin]. An important initial nursing action before administration of the medication includes assessing:
A) the ability to raise the eyelids.
B) level of fatigue.
C) skeletal muscle strength.
D) swallowing ability.
Q2) A nurse is helping a nursing student who is administering a medication to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will ask the patient to sip some water before giving the medication."
B) "I will let the patient sleep after giving the medication, because rest is important."
C) "I will record muscle strength assessments before and after I give the medication."
D) "I will report excessive salivation to the patient's prescriber."
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25910
Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure, the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
A) Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure.
B) Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade.
D) Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuromuscular blocking agents. For what may these agents be used?
A) Analgesia
B) Electroshock therapy
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Mechanical ventilation
E) Surgery
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18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25911
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching parents how to use an EpiPen for their child, who has a peanut allergy. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "After using the EpiPen, we must go to the emergency department."
B) "The EpiPen should be stored in the refrigerator, because epinephrine is sensitive to heat."
C) "The teacher should call us when symptoms start so that we can bring the EpiPen to school."
D) "We should jab the device into the thigh until it is empty of solution."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."
B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."
C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."
D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25912
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors on arterioles and veins."
B) "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure."
C) "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output."
D) "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."
Q2) A nurse prepares to administer propranolol [Inderal] to a patient recovering from acute myocardial infarction. The patient's heart rate is 52 beats/min, and the rhythm is regular. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Request an order for atropine.
C) Withhold the dose and document the pulse rate.
D) Withhold the dose and notify the prescriber.
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25913
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for reserpine [Serpasil] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Depressive side effects are common and will improve over time."
B) "I should report gastrointestinal side effects to the provider."
C) "I should stand up slowly when getting up and lie down if I feel dizzy."
D) "Therapeutic effects may not be optimal for a couple of weeks."
Q2) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?
A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.
B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.
C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.
Q3) Clonidine is approved for the treatment of which conditions?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Opioid withdrawal
D) Severe pain
E) Smoking cessation
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21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25914
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:
A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.
B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.
C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system.
D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.
Q2) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25915
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole [Mirapex] that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is:
A) sleep attacks.
B) dizziness.
C) hallucinations.
D) dyskinesias.
Q2) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking rotigotine [Neupro] to treat Parkinson disease. What will the nurse include in teaching?
A) "If you develop nausea and vomiting, you should stop taking the medication."
B) "If you need to stop this drug, your provider will order a gradual withdrawal."
C) "You will start this drug regimen with a higher than usual loading dose."
D) "You will take this medication by mouth with food."
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25916
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse?
A) Confusion and memory impairment
B) Dizziness and headache
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness
Q2) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."
B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."
C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."
D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25917
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL 3 times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site, despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?
A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.
B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.
C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.
D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].
Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."
B) "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."
C) "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."
D) "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25918
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-kg child has been taking valproic acid [Depakote] for 1 week to treat a seizure disorder. The child is receiving 200 mg PO twice daily. The child's parents report no improvement in seizure activity. The nurse will anticipate that the provider will order which change in this child's drug regimen?
A) Adding another seizure medication to supplement the valproic acid
B) Changing to phenytoin [Dilantin] since the valproic acid is not effective
C) Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 300 mg PO twice daily
D) Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 200 mg 3 times daily
Q2) A nurse is discussing partial versus generalized seizures with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Febrile seizures are a type of generalized tonic-clonic seizure."
B) "Generalized seizures are characterized by convulsive activity."
C) "Partial seizures do not last as long as generalized seizures."
D) "Patients having partial seizures do not lose consciousness."
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25919
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
A) Preparing to support respirations
B) Administering an antidote to baclofen
C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures
D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?
A) Weakness and dizziness
B) Fatigue and drowsiness
C) Seizures and hallucinations
D) Respiratory depression and coma
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25920
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
Q2) Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons?
A) To enhance absorption
B) To reduce the risk of toxicity
C) To prevent bradycardia
D) To shorten the duration of action
E) To prolong anesthesia
Q3) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered?
A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure
B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects
C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region
D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater
E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25921
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
Q2) A patient in the postanesthesia recovery unit received ketamine [Ketalar] for right open reduction internal fixation surgery. What drug would be beneficial as a premedication to help minimize adverse reactions?
A) Methohexital [Brevital]
B) Sevoflurane [Ultane]
C) Atropine [Sal-Tropine]
D) Diazepam [Valium]
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29
Chapter 28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?
A) Decreased analgesic effect
B) Decreased constipation
C) Increased euphoria
D) Increased respiratory depression
Q2) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.
B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.
C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.
D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.
Q3) Which side effects of opioid analgesics can have therapeutic benefits?
A) Biliary colic
B) Cough suppression
C) Suppression of bowel motility
D) Urinary retention
E) Vasodilation
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer who has been receiving an opioid analgesic reports having pain at a new location even though the previous pain is well controlled. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) breakthrough pain.
B) drug-seeking behavior.
C) infection or metastasis.
D) tolerance to drug therapy.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."
B) "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."
C) "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."
D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what?
A) Female gender
B) Male gender
C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting
D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)
E) Auras before the onset of headache pain
F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain
Q2) A patient who has a history of asthma experiences three or four migraine headaches each month. The patient uses sumatriptan [Imitrex] as an abortive medication and has developed medication overuse headaches. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to prevent migraines. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which preventive medication with the provider?
A) Botulinum toxin
B) Meperidine [Demerol]
C) Timolol
D) Topiramate [Topamax]
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with schizophrenia and the provider orders thioridazine. The patient asks the nurse why the provider hasn't ordered olanzapine [Zyprexa], which the patient has seen advertised on television. Which response by the nurse is the most important reason that this patient is not receiving olanzapine?
A) "Olanzapine is more expensive than thioridazine."
B) "Olanzapine causes more metabolic side effects than thioridazine."
C) "Thioridazine has fewer side effects than olanzapine."
D) "Thioridazine has a faster onset of action than olanzapine."
Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a patient about to begin taking an FGA drug for schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about side effects of these drugs?
A) "Dry mouth and constipation are uncommon with this medication."
B) "I may experience gynecomastia and galactorrhea."
C) "I may feel lightheaded or dizzy and should sit or lie down if this occurs."
D) "Sedation may occur initially, but will subside in 1 to 2 weeks."
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:
A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.
B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.
C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.
D) take the medication once daily in the morning.
Q2) A patient taking fluoxetine [Prozac] complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday?
A) "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage."
B) "Discontinue the drug for 1 week."
C) "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday."
D) "Take the drug every other day."
Q3) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?
A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used
B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice
C) To list all foods eaten that day
D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.
B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.
D) Request an order for amiloride [Midamor].
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level, the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests?
A) Calcium level
B) Complete blood count with differential
C) Liver function tests
D) Renal function tests
E) Serum potassium
F) Thyroid function tests
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will:
A) contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem].
B) instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation.
C) request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep.
D) suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.
Q2) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:
A) does not depress the central nervous system.
B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.
C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.
D) potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."
B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."
C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."
D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."
Q2) A patient describes feelings of anxiety and fear when speaking in front of an audience and is having difficulty at work because of an inability to present information at meetings 3 or 4 times each year. The patient is reluctant to take long-term medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax] as needed
B) Cognitive behavioral therapy
C) Paroxetine [Paxil]
D) Psychotherapy
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions 11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?
A) "I can take it during pregnancy."
B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."
C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."
D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."
Q2) A patient who is morbidly obese is admitted for treatment. The prescriber orders lisdexamfetamine [Vyvanse]. The nurse will be concerned if this patient shows signs of: A) anorexia.
B) dyspnea.
C) insomnia.
D) loquaciousness.
Q3) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.
B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.
C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.
D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:
A) addiction.
B) psychologic dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) withdrawal syndrome.
Q2) A patient is ready for discharge home from a lengthy hospital stay after a motor vehicle accident. The patient suffered multiple fractures and required large doses of morphine for several weeks. The nurse preparing the patient for discharge notes that the patient requests the maximum dose of the oral opioid analgesic at the exact intervals it is prescribed. The nurse is correct to suspect what has occurred?
A) Addiction
B) Compulsive drug seeking
C) Cross-tolerance
D) Drug tolerance
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:
A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."
B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."
C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."
D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."
Q2) During a health history, the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered nicotine nasal spray for a patient to assist with smoking cessation. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the medication?
A) "This will produce a steady level of nicotine to reduce your cravings."
B) "You should gradually reduce the dose after 3 months of use."
C) "You should use 1 spray in each nostril per dose up to 5 times per hour."
D) "You will not develop dependence on the nicotine in the nasal spray."
Q2) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix], which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."
B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."
C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."
D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of dizziness, lightheadedness, and a pulsating headache. Further assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg and palpitations. The patient's friends tell the nurse that they were experimenting with "poppers." The nurse will expect to administer which medication?
A) Diazepam [Valium]
B) Haloperidol [Haldol]
C) Methylene blue and supplemental oxygen
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
Q2) A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids takes an overdose of barbiturates. The nurse preparing to care for this patient will anticipate:
A) a severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are reversed. B) minimal respiratory depression, because the patient has developed a tolerance to opioids.
C) observing pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and possibly coma in this patient. D) using naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the barbiturates, because cross-tolerance is likely.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?
A) Frequent nocturia
B) Headaches
C) Ringing in the ears
D) Urinary retention
Q2) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to:
A) reduce intracranial pressure.
B) reduce renal perfusion.
C) reduce peripheral edema.
D) restore extracellular fluid.
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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L, a chloride level of 95 mEq/L, and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?
A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.
B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.
C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.
D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?
A) Antacids
B) Aspirin
C) Laxatives
D) Potassium supplements
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of:
A) decreased force of ventricular contraction.
B) increased force of ventricular contraction.
C) decreased ventricular filling.
D) increased ventricular filling.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Increased stroke volume
C) Decreased myocardial contractility
D) Increased myocardial contractility
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
Q2) A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom?
A) It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred.
B) It is a common side effect that occurs in almost all patients taking the drug.
C) It may be uncomfortable enough that the drug will need to be discontinued.
D) It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time.
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."
B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."
C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon?
A) "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster."
B) "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators."
C) "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given."
D) "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."
Q2) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?
A) Decreased cardiac preload
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Increased tissue perfusion
D) Increased ventricular contraction
Q3) A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects, the nurse caring for this patient will:
A) caution the patient not to get up abruptly.
B) encourage the patient to increase fluid intake.
C) tell the patient to report shortness of breath.
D) warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25941
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."
B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."
C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."
D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."
Q2) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha<sub>1</sub> blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.
B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.
C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.
D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.
Q3) Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol
B) Hydralazine and minoxidil
C) Spironolactone and amiloride
D) Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has heart failure and is taking an ACE inhibitor. The patient has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication to counter this development?
A) Aldosterone antagonist
B) Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)
C) Beta blocker
D) Direct renin inhibitor (DRI)
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with heart failure is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes a pulse of 90 beats/min. The nurse will observe this patient closely for:
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) jugular vein distension.
D) shortness of breath.
Q3) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25943
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing adenosine with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adenosine acts by suppressing action potentials in the SA and AV nodes."
B) "Adenosine can be used to prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome."
C) "Adenosine has a half-life that lasts only a few seconds and must be given intravenously."
D) "Adenosine is not effective for treating atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias."
Q2) A prescriber orders verapamil [Covera-HS] for a patient who is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and warfarin. The nurse will expect the prescriber to ____ the dose of ____.
A) lower; digoxin
B) increase; digoxin
C) lower; warfarin
D) increase; warfarin
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of elevated triglycerides and LDL cholesterol begins taking nicotinic acid [Niacin]. The patient reports uncomfortable flushing of the face, neck, and ears when taking the drug. What will the nurse advise the patient?
A) "Ask your provider about taking an immediate-release form of the medication."
B) "Ask your provider about assessing your serum uric acid levels which may be elevated."
C) "You should stop taking the Niacin immediately since this is a serious adverse effect."
D) "You should take 325 mg of aspirin a half hour before each dose of Niacin to prevent this effect."
Q2) A nurse is providing patient education about colesevelam [Welchol], a bile-acid sequestrant. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Colesevelam will reduce my levels of low-density lipoprotein."
B) "Colesevelam will augment my statin drug therapy."
C) "I will not have to worry about having as many drug interactions as I did when I took cholestyramine."
D) "I will need to take supplements of fat-soluble vitamins."
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes nitroglycerine to treat stable angina reports having erectile dysfunction and states that he plans to ask his primary provider for a prescription for tadalafil [Cialis]. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "You may take these two drugs together safely as long as you take them as directed."
B) "You should not take tadalafil and nitroglycerine within 30 to 60 minutes of each other."
C) "You should discuss another antiangina medication with your provider."
D) "You should avoid sexual activity since this increases oxygen demands on the heart."
Q2) A nursing student is helping to care for a patient who takes verapamil for stable angina. The nurse asks the student to explain the purpose of verapamil in the treatment of this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "It relaxes coronary artery spasms."
B) "It reduces peripheral resistance to reduce oxygen demands."
C) "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility."
D) "It relaxes the peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. An electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. The patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:
A) administer aspirin when cardiac enzymes are completed.
B) give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours.
C) give tenecteplase [TNKase] immediately.
D) obtain an order for an INR.
Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg, which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?
A) Aspirin
B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]
C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]
D) Warfarin [Coumadin]
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should take which medications indefinitely?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Alteplase
C) Aspirin
D) Beta blockers
E) Clopidogrel
Q2) A patient who is receiving reperfusion therapy has a history of heparin-induced thrombosis (HIT). The patient has a creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min. In addition to the fibrinolytic agent, which medication will the nurse expect to administer to this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Bivalirudin [Angiomax]
C) Clopidogrel [Plavix]
D) Fondaparinux [Arixtra]
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives, a low-grade temperature elevation, and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:
A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
B) give an antipyretic medication.
C) give oral diphenhydramine.
D) provide respiratory support.
Q2) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:
A) on demand when bleeding occurs.
B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.
C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.
D) prophylactically 3 times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving oral iron for iron deficiency anemia. Which antibiotic drug, taken concurrently with iron, would most concern the nurse?
A) Tetracycline
B) Cephalosporin
C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
D) Penicillin
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include:
A) determining the cause of the anemia.
B) giving intravenous iron dextran.
C) giving oral carbonyl iron [Feosol].
D) teaching about dietary iron.
Q3) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?
A) Alcoholism
B) Sprue
C) Gastrectomy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL, up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) adding an antihypertensive drug.
B) discontinuing the ESA.
C) giving heparin.
D) increasing the dose of the ESA.
Q2) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?
A) Filgrastim [Neupogen]
B) Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]
C) Oprelvekin [Neumega]
D) Sargramostim [Leukine]
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes?
A) Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.
B) The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled.
C) Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia.
D) Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.
Q2) Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug?
A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
B) In the morning and at 4:00 PM
C) Once daily at bedtime
D) After meals and at bedtime
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T? level is 0.5 mg/dL, and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV.
C) Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid).
D) Suggest that the provider lower the dose.
Q2) The nurse prepares a patient with Graves' disease for radioactive iodine (¹³¹I) therapy. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of ¹³¹I therapy?
A) "I will have to isolate myself from my family for 1 week so that I don't expose them to radiation."
B) "This drug will be taken up by the thyroid gland and will destroy the cells to reduce my hyperthyroidism."
C) "This drug will help reduce my cold intolerance and weight gain."
D) "I will need to take this drug on a daily basis for at least 1 year."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP) and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."
B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."
C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."
D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."
Q2) A patient with acromegaly asks the nurse about treatments for this condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Drugs are generally used after surgical and radiation therapies have been tried.
B) Drug therapy is easy to administer.
C) Drug therapy is inexpensive.
D) Drug therapy is generally short term.
Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males?
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."
B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."
D) "I should report excessive urine output."
Q2) A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM; a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition?
A) Addison's disease
B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C) Cushing's syndrome
D) Secondary adrenal insufficiency
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT) for menopause asks the nurse why she cannot take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:
A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.
B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.
C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).
D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Q2) A patient who is at risk for osteoporosis will begin taking the selective estrogen receptor modulator raloxifene [Evista]. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) Raloxifene reduces the risk of thromboembolism.
B) The drug is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.
C) Use of this drug increases the risk of endometrial carcinoma.
D) Vasomotor symptoms are a common side effect of this drug.
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent female patient with multiple sexual partners asks a nurse about birth control methods. The patient tells the nurse she tried oral contraceptives once but often forgot to take her pills. The nurse will recommend discussing which contraception with the provider?
A) An intrauterine device with a spermicide
B) DMPA (Depo-Provera) and condoms
C) Tubal ligation and condoms
D) Progestin-only oral contraceptives
Q2) A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC) and reports breast tenderness, edema, and occasional nausea. What will the nurse recommend?
A) The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin.
B) The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control.
C) The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen.
D) The patient should take the OC at bedtime to reduce side effects.
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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives an injection of human chorionic gonadotropin after follicular maturation has been induced with another agent. The patient comes to the clinic 2 days later complaining of headache, irritability, and fatigue. What will the nurse do?
A) Perform a urine pregnancy test.
B) Reassure the patient that these are known adverse effects.
C) Request an order for a serum estrogen level.
D) Review the patient's abdominal ultrasound.
Q2) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."
B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."
C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."
D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has received two doses of dinoprostone [Prepidil] to initiate labor. It has been 6 hours since the last dose. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4 cm, but contractions are diminishing in intensity and frequency. What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer oxytocin.
B) Monitor urine output.
C) Prepare for a cesarean section.
D) Watch closely for fetal distress.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the obstetric unit in preterm labor at 36 weeks' gestation. The prescriber orders a tocolytic agent. When teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse will tell her that tocolytics:
A) are given until term to reduce fetal mortality.
B) are used to help the fetal lungs mature.
C) help delay delivery while glucocorticoids are given.
D) help treat the infections that cause preterm labor.
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-year-old male patient diagnosed with hypogonadism will begin testosterone injections. What will the nurse include when teaching the family about this therapy?
A) Annual x-rays of the hands and wrists are necessary to monitor epiphyseal closure.
B) Gynecomastia may occur and is a common side effect.
C) Injections are given every 2 to 4 weeks for 3 to 4 years.
D) Use of this drug may lead to prostate cancer later in life.
Q2) A clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent male patient who has been receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism via a transdermal patch. The patient's last clinic visit was 4 weeks earlier. Which part of the interval history is of most concern to the nurse?
A) Five-pound weight gain
B) Increased growth of pubic hair
C) Rash at the site of the patch
D) Presence of acne
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are contraindications for taking sildenafil [Viagra]?
A) Patients who are taking nitroglycerin for angina pectoris
B) Patients with nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION) in one eye
C) Patients with BPH who are taking alpha<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic antagonists
D) Patients with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg
E) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) in the past 6 months
Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]."
B) "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia."
C) "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil."
D) "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antibodies. The nurse correctly explains that which type of response is triggered when antigens bind to antibodies on mast cells or basophils?
A) Acquired immune response
B) Autoimmune response
C) Hypersensitivity reaction
D) Transplant rejection
Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old child is scheduled to receive the MMR vaccine, pneumococcal vaccine (PCV), Varivax, and hepatitis A vaccine. The child's parents request that the MMR vaccine not be given, saying that, even though there is no demonstrated link with autism, they are still concerned about toxic levels of mercury in the vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Most U.S.-made vaccines have zero to low amounts of mercury."
B) "Other vaccine preparations contain mercury as well."
C) "Thimerosal is a nontoxic form of mercury."
D) "You can get more mercury from breast milk and many foods on the market."
Q2) The parents of an infant who will be attending day care tell the nurse that they do not want their child vaccinated against rotavirus because an older cousin developed intussusception after receiving this vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Intussusception is much less serious than getting the disease."
B) "It was probably just a coincidental reaction to the vaccine."
C) "The newer vaccines for rotavirus are not associated with intussusception."
D) "Your child will have herd immunity and won't need the vaccine."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) An immigrant child is in the clinic for MMR vaccination. The nurse learns that the child has recently received an immune globulin injection for a viral infection, currently has an upper respiratory infection with a temperature of 100°F, and has a recent history of thrombocytopenia, which has resolved. What does the nurse tell the child's parents?
A) "The vaccine is contraindicated in this child because of the history of thrombocytopenia."
B) "The child should be brought back for the vaccine when the temperature is back to normal."
C) "The child is at increased risk of developing autism from this vaccine."
D) "The vaccine must be postponed for 3 months after administration of the immune globulin."
Q2) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:
A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."
B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."
C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."
D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-month-old child develops an urticarial reaction after a transfusion. The prescriber orders intravenous promethazine [Phenergan]. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the medication as ordered.
B) Monitor the child for bronchoconstriction.
C) Question the order.
D) Request an order to give the drug orally.
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?
A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]
B) Activated charcoal
C) Hemodialysis
D) Respiratory support
Q2) A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL, and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?
A) Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.
B) Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.
C) Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.
D) Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.
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73
Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months remarks to the nurse, "It's a good thing my symptoms are better, because my mother has been quite ill, and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The nurse will report this to the provider and ask about:
A) reducing the patient's dose.
B) using every other day dosing.
C) increasing the patient's dose.
D) tapering the dose.
Q2) A patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for several months arrives in the clinic. The nurse notes that the patient's cheeks appear full and that a prominent hump of fat is present on the upper back. The nurse will ask the provider to order which test(s)?
A) Liver function tests
B) Serum electrolytes
C) Tuberculin skin test
D) Vitamin D levels
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking hydroxychloroquine [Plaquenil] for rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is currently taking high-dose NSAIDs and methotrexate. What will the nurse teach the patient?
A) That an eye exam is necessary at the beginning of therapy with this drug
B) That the dose of NSAIDs may be decreased when beginning hydroxychloroquine
C) To obtain tests of renal and hepatic function while taking this drug
D) To stop taking methotrexate when starting hydroxychloroquine
Q2) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.
A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.
B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.
D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.
Q2) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Colchicine
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Urate-lowering drugs
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a woman who will begin taking supplemental calcium. Which statement by the woman indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Chewable calcium tablets are not absorbed well and are not recommended."
B) "I should not take more than 600 mg of calcium at one time."
C) "I should take enough supplemental calcium to provide my total daily requirements."
D) "If I take calcium with green, leafy vegetables, it will increase absorption."
Q2) A postmenopausal patient develops osteoporosis. The patient asks the nurse about medications to treat this condition. The nurse learns that the patient has a family history of breast cancer. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
A) Estrogen estradiol
B) Pamidronate [Aredia]
C) Raloxifene [Evista]
D) Teriparatide [Forteo]
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with asthma is referred to an asthma clinic. The patient reports daily symptoms requiring short-acting beta<sub>2</sub>-agonist treatments for relief. The patient has used oral glucocorticoids three times in the past 3 months and reports awakening at night with symptoms about once a week. The patient's forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<sub>1</sub>) is 75% of predicted values. The nurse will expect this patient to be started on which regimen?
A) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA with a SABA as needed
B) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and a SABA as needed
C) Daily medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA combination
D) No daily medications; just a SABA as needed
Q2) A parent asks a nurse about growth suppression resulting from the use of an inhaled glucocorticoid in children. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) Growth may be slowed, but eventual adult height will not be reduced.
B) The growth rate is not impaired, but overall height will be reduced.
C) The growth rate slows while the drug is used and only resumes when the drug is stopped.
D) Long-term use of the drug results in a decrease in adult height.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child has a cough, runny nose, congestion, and fever, and the parents ask the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter product. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Any product will be effective when combined with vitamin C and zinc."
B) "It is best to use single-agent medications to treat individual symptoms."
C) "The fever indicates that your child may need an antibiotic; you should call your provider."
D) "You should ask your provider to prescribe a combination product that will treat multiple symptoms."
Q2) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."
B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate [Carafate] and ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions."
B) "Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart."
C) "Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects."
D) "Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity."
Q2) Which nonpharmaceutical interventions can be used to reduce symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Avoiding late-night meals
B) Consuming a glass of wine with meals
C) Drinking soft drinks
D) Losing weight
E) Stopping smoking
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.
B) Give another dose of the psyllium.
C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.
D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.
Q2) A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do?
A) Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention.
B) Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead.
C) Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake.
D) Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent, crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy, for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to:
A) use antispasmodic medications.
B) avoid food containing lactose and gluten.
C) keep a food, stress, and symptom diary.
D) use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.
Q2) A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug?
A) "Loperamide is used for moderate to severe symptoms only."
B) "This drug is useful as prophylaxis to prevent symptoms."
C) "This drug is only effective to treat certain infectious agents."
D) "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking iron supplements to treat anemia. The nurse will recommend that the patient take the iron with which food to facilitate absorption?
A) Cereal
B) Dairy products
C) Orange juice
D) Red meats
Q2) An adult who has been self-medicating, using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level, complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking:
A) niacin.
B) thiamine.
C) riboflavin.
D) pyridoxine.
Q3) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?
A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)
B) Thiamin (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
D) Vitamin D
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Page 83
Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse which weight-loss diet is most effective. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Low-fat diets may be easiest for weight loss, because fat has a higher concentration of calories than proteins and carbohydrates."
B) "Most diets don't work very well for long-term maintenance, so you should ask your provider about medications to lose weight."
C) "You should be able to lose 30 to 40 lb in the first 6 months of an effective weight-loss diet."
D) "You should select a diet that has a higher fat ratio to prevent hunger between meals."
Q2) A female patient with diabetes who is obese will begin taking lorcaserin [Belviq] to help with weight loss. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "This drug is safe to take if you become pregnant."
B) "This drug does not have serious adverse effects."
C) "You may need to check your blood glucose levels more often."
D) "You will need to increase your insulin dose to prevent hyperglycemia."
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?
A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."
B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."
C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."
D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."
Q2) A child has received amoxicillin [Amoxil] for three previous ear infections, but a current otitis media episode is not responding to treatment. The nurse caring for this child suspects that resistance to the bacterial agent has occurred by which microbial mechanism?
A) Alteration of drug target molecules
B) Antagonist production
C) Drug inactivation
D) Reduction of drug concentration at the site of action
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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Q1) A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.
B) Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time.
C) Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.
D) Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin, both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do?
A) Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing.
B) Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin.
C) Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam [Zosyn] be used.
D) Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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Q1) A prescriber has ordered cefoxitin for a patient who has an infection caused by a gram-negative bacteria. The nurse taking the medication history learns that the patient experienced a maculopapular rash when taking amoxicillin [Amoxil] several years earlier. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the cefoxitin and observe for any side effects.
B) Give the cefoxitin and have epinephrine and respiratory support available.
C) Request an order for a different, nonpenicillin, noncephalosporin antibiotic.
D) Request an order to administer a skin test before giving the cefoxitin.
Q2) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?
A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.
B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.
D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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Q1) Which infections may be treated with linezolid [Zyvox])?
A) Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) that is penicillin sensitive
B) Nosocomial pneumonia caused by methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)
C) Pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma avium
D) Superficial methicillin-resistant S. aureus skin infections (MRSA)
E) Vancomycin-resistant infections
Q2) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given:
A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.
B) to patients taking calcium supplements.
C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.
D) with dairy products or antacids.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease, and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response?
A) "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects."
B) "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums."
C) "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions."
D) "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time?
A) 4:00 AM
B) 7:00 AM
C) 7:45 AM
D) 8:45 AM
Q2) A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug, the nurse may expect to administer which agent?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Neuromuscular blocker
D) Vancomycin
Q3) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely?
A) A 6-day-old newborn
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A woman breast-feeding an infant
E) An elderly patient with renal disease
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) [Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later, the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for:
A) birth defects.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) rash.
D) kernicterus.
Q2) A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another, more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient."
B) "Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance."
C) "Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work."
D) "Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression."
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, dysuria, and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment?
A) Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy
B) Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy
C) Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics
D) Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics
Q2) An older male patient comes to the clinic with complaints of chills, malaise, myalgia, localized pain, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. The nurse would most likely suspect that the patient has:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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Q1) Which patient should begin treatment for tuberculosis?
A) A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration
B) A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration
C) A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration
D) An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration
Q2) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis with a short course of daily rifampin. The patient asks why rifapentine [Priftin] cannot be used, because it can be given twice weekly. What will the nurse tell this patient about rifapentine?
A) It is more toxic than rifampin.
B) It is not approved for treatment of latent TB.
C) It is not well absorbed and thus not as effective.
D) It will stain contact lenses orange.
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer oral ofloxacin to a patient. While taking the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin and theophylline. The correct action by the nurse is to request an order to:
A) reduce the dose of ofloxacin.
B) increase the dose of ofloxacin.
C) increase the dose of theophylline.
D) monitor coagulation levels.
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin?
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications?
A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
B) Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
C) Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
D) Morphine sulfate [Morphine] and acetaminophen [Tylenol]
Q2) A patient will begin treatment with posaconazole [Noxafil] to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis that has not responded to fluconazole. The provider has ordered 200 mg 3 times daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss decreasing the dose to twice daily.
C) Discuss a 400-mg twice daily drug regimen with the provider.
D) Suggest to the provider that this dose may be too high for this indication.
Q3) Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for which systemic mycosis?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Dermatophytosis
D) Histoplasmosis
E) Mucormycosis
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Page 94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has lamivudine-resistant hepatitis B and has been taking entecavir [Baraclude] for 2 years. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has recommended taking the drug for another year. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Entecavir can reverse fibrosis and cirrhosis of the liver when taken long term."
B) "It is necessary to continue taking entecavir to avoid withdrawal symptoms."
C) "The drug will be given until the infection is completely eradicated."
D) "You will need to continue taking entecavir to prevent lactic acidosis and hepatotoxicity."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous acyclovir [Zovirax]. To prevent nephrotoxicity associated with intravenous acyclovir, the nurse will:
A) hydrate the patient during the infusion and for 2 hours after the infusion.
B) increase the patient's intake of foods rich in vitamin C.
C) monitor urinary output every 30 minutes.
D) provide a low-protein diet for 1 day before and 2 days after the acyclovir infusion.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse asks a graduate nurse, "When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed, which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who has recently started on delavirdine [Rescriptor]. Which concurrent prescription should the nurse question before administration?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
C) Morphine
D) Penicillin
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q2) A student has just performed a physical assessment on a patient who has an infection with B. anthracis. The student uses an alcohol hand rub while preparing to leave the room. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Ask the student to wash with soap and water before exiting the room.
B) Discuss the matter with the student later in a quiet area.
C) No action is required.
D) Report the student's action to the instructor.
Q3) A patient arrives in the emergency department with multiple dirty abrasions after a bicycle-automobile accident . Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone-iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
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Page 98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis, and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment, the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect?
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Q1) A recent immigrant from the Middle East is being treated for P. falciparum malaria and has completed a course of chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider about genetic screening for this patient before starting the next medication.
B) Contact the provider to discuss nondrug methods to prevent reinfection, such as DEET insect repellents.
C) Teach the patient to notify the provider if symptoms recur so that relapse medication may be started.
D) Tell the patient that no further treatment is necessary, because relapse is unlikely.
Q2) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention, the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine [Qualaquin]
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking metronidazole [Flagyl] for asymptomatic intestinal amebiasis complains of tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Encourage the patient to exercise to improve circulation.
B) Inform the patient that numbness is a common and reversible side effect.
C) Stress the need to avoid constrictive clothing and crossing the legs.
D) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.
Q2) A patient who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) and will receive parenteral pentamidine [Pentam 300].
The nurse caring for this patient will:
A) administer the drug with the patient supine and monitor the blood pressure closely.
B) inform the patient to report coughing and shortness of breath.
C) teach the patient that darkening of the urine may occur with this drug.
D) tell the patient to report yellow discoloration of the sclerae.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Q1) Which patient should not use lindane?
A) A child with a history of seizures
B) A patient who has used lindane in the past 2 months
C) A person who weighs 115 pounds
D) A person with an autoimmune disorder
E) A person with atopic dermatitis
Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about treating a child for scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the treatment?
A) "I should wash all bedding and clothing as well as applying the medicine."
B) "I will apply the cream to the visible burrows and areas of itching."
C) "More than one application of the cream may be needed."
D) "The cream may cause systemic side effects."
Q3) A nurse is teaching a class at a community center on communicable diseases. Which statement by a member of the class best demonstrates understanding of the epidemiology of head lice?
A) "All socioeconomic groups are at risk for this infestation."
B) "Head lice affect only people in crowded environments."
C) "Head lice are transmitted only by direct person-to-person contact."
D) "The infestation can be acquired from house pets."
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Page 102
Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy?
A) Drugs used should have different mechanisms.
B) Each drug should be delivered by different routes.
C) Each drug should be effective.
D) Each drug should have different dosing schedules.
E) Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.
Q2) A patient asks a nurse about ways to minimize side effects of chemotherapy. Which response is correct?
A) "Avoid contact with people who are ill."
B) "Take antiemetics immediately after receiving chemotherapy."
C) "Treat fevers immediately with ibuprofen."
D) "Use a firm-bristled toothbrush to stimulate gums."
Q3) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F
D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis
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Page 103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient receiving cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan]. To protect against the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis, the nurse would expect to administer which drug?
A) Decadron
B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
C) Leucovorin
D) Mesna [Mesnex]
Q2) A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain?
A) Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic.
B) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells.
C) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals.
D) Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G0 phase.
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104
Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Q1) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:
A) kill existing cancer cells directly.
B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.
C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.
D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.
Q2) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."
B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."
C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."
D) "This drug must be given intravenously."
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcyla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?
A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.
B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.
C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.
D) Review renal function tests.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with wet ARMD who will begin receiving bevacizumab [Avastin]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should be able to improve my visual acuity by using this drug."
B) "I should report eye pain and photophobia to my provider if they occur."
C) "This drug will help suppress the growth of new blood vessels."
D) "This medication will not reduce the risk of blindness."
Q2) A patient begins using timolol [Timoptic] to treat primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). The nurse gives a dose and notes that the patient develops shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and auscultates wheezes in both lungs. The nurse will ask this patient about a history of which condition?
A) Asthma
B) Atrioventricular heart block
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Sinus bradycardia
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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Q1) A nurse is discussing the use of tazarotene [Tazorac] with a patient who has psoriasis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should use a sunscreen when using this medication."
B) "I understand the gel can cause staining of clothing."
C) "I will apply this once daily in the evening."
D) "I will apply the medication to dry skin."
Q2) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab] and benzoyl peroxide
D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]
Q3) A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drugs with the provider?
A) Higher potency topical glucocorticoids
B) Topical keratolytic agents
C) Topical immunosuppressants
D) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
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Page 107
Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a parent about the observation strategy for managing a 3-year-old child's ear infection. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not give analgesics, because they may mask important symptoms."
B) "I will give ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain or fever as needed."
C) "I will let my provider know if the symptoms are not better in 1 week."
D) "There is a slight risk of mastoiditis if antibiotic therapy is delayed."
Q2) The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?
A) Administering refrigerated drops
B) Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops
C) Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops
D) Inserting earplugs after administering the drops
Q3) Which are components of otitis externa management?
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
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Page 108
Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is receiving epoprostenol [Flolan] at a rate of 210 ng/min using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng/min
B) discuss these side effects with the provider.
C) prepare for a hospital admission.
D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.
Q2) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?
A) A beta blocker
B) A calcium channel blocker
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Warfarin
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Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage, the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
Q2) A patient in her twenties has frequent urinary tract infections, and her prescriber suggests drinking cranberry juice. She asks the nurse how drinking this can help. The nurse will tell her that cranberry juice:
A) acidifies the urine to slow the growth of the bacteria.
B) helps treat established infections.
C) prevents bacteria from adhering to the urinary tract wall.
D) reduces the odor of the urine.
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent brings a child to the emergency department, because the child drank a solution containing ferrous sulfate. The nurse will prepare for:
A) administration of activated charcoal.
B) gastric lavage.
C) peritoneal dialysis.
D) whole-bowel irrigation.
Q2) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at the grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
Q3) Which chelating agents can be used to treat iron toxicity?
A) Calcium EDTA
B) Deferoxamine [Desferal]
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Penicillamine
E) Succimer [Chemet]
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Page 111
Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse about who is eligible to receive anthrax vaccine [BioThrax]. The nurse will respond by saying that which groups of people would be candidates for this vaccine?
A) Hospital personnel
B) Laboratory workers
C) Military personnel
D) Nursing home residents
E) Veterinarians
Q2) A nurse responds when a patient asks why the smallpox vaccine is no longer given. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "The smallpox vaccine can cause serious side effects."
B) "The smallpox vaccine can confer protection when given after exposure."
C) "The smallpox vaccine is too expensive to give routinely."
D) "The smallpox vaccine may cause live virus to spread to others."
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