Nursing Practice Laboratory
Question Bank
Course Introduction
The Nursing Practice Laboratory course provides students with hands-on experience to develop and refine essential nursing skills in a controlled and supportive environment. Emphasizing both foundational and advanced procedures, the course allows students to practice patient assessment, medication administration, wound care, infection control, and emergency response techniques using simulation models and real-life scenarios. Guided by experienced instructors, students receive constructive feedback to enhance their clinical competence, critical thinking, and confidence, preparing them for real-world patient care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 9th Edition by Perry
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44 Chapters
1281 Verified Questions
1281 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ is a guide for making accurate,timely,and appropriate clinical decisions.
Answer: Evidence-based practice
Q2) The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction.The type of study that would best capture this information would be a:
A)randomized controlled trial.
B)qualitative study.
C)case control study.
D)descriptive study.
Answer: B
Q3) When a PICOT question is developed,the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:
A)P.
B)I.
C)C.
D)O.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is being admitted to the intensive care department with multiple fractures and internal bleeding.Which of the following are considered roles of the nurse in this situation?
A)Anticipate physical and social deficits to resuming normal activities.
B)Involve the family and significant others in the plan of care.
C)Assist in making health care resources available to the patient.
D)Identify the psychological needs of the patient.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) The patient is admitted to the unit for a cardiac catheterization.Which of the following can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
A)Obtaining admission vital signs
B)Preparing the patient's room
C)Gathering and securing personal care items
D)Orienting patient and family to the nursing unit
Answer: B,C,D
Q3) The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is _______________. Answer: communication
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Chapter 3: Communication and Collaboration
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of verbal communication for a therapeutic reason is known as ___________________.
Answer: therapeutic silence
Q2) The patient has been agitated for the entire morning but refuses to say why he is angry.Instead,whenever the nurse speaks to him,he smiles at her while clenching his fist at the same time.The nurse states,"I can see that you're smiling,but I sense that you are really very angry." This is an example of ___________________.
Answer: sharing perceptions
Q3) The patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of headache,nausea,and dizziness.She states that she has a final exam in the morning and needs to do well on it to pass the course,but she can't seem to get into it.She appears nervous and distracted,and is unable to recall details.She most likely is showing manifestations of _____ anxiety.
A)mild
B)moderate
C)severe
D)panic state of
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient was in bed with all side rails up.During the night,the patient tried to get up to go to the bathroom and fell while trying to climb over the side rails.After meeting the patient's needs and assessing that the patient was not harmed,what step should the nurse take (if any)?
A)Complete an incident report and put it in the medical record.
B)Chart what happened and state that an incident report has been filled out.
C)Do nothing because the patient was not harmed.
D)Document what happened in the patient record without mentioning the incident report.
Q2) When making written entries in the patient's medical record,describe the nursing care provided and the ____________.
Q3) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the
Q4) A preprinted guideline used to care for patients with similar health problems is known as the:
A)acuity record.
B)standardized care plan.
C)patient care summary.
D)flow sheet.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has an order to be off the floor for 15 minutes every 2 hours to smoke a cigarette.The patient has just returned from his "cigarette break." The nurse is about to take the patient's temperature orally and should:
A)wait about 15 minutes before taking his temperature.
B)give him oral fluids to rinse the nicotine away before taking his temperature.
C)give him a stick of chewing gum to chew and then take his temperature.
D)take his oral temperature and record the findings.
Q2) _____________ occurs when the systolic blood pressure falls to 90 mm Hg or below.
Q3) When the benefits of the different types of blood pressure monitoring devices are compared,which of the following patients would be the best candidate for noninvasive electronic blood pressure measurement?
A)A 49-year-old postsurgical patient with no history of heart disease on q15min vital signs
B)A 22-year-old patient undergoing active grand mal seizures
C)A 68-year-old patient with diagnosed peripheral vascular disease
D)A 54-year-old patient with chronic atrial fibrillation
Q4) To take a manual blood pressure,the nurse places the cuff of the _____________ around the patient's upper arm.
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been in the ICU following an acute myocardial infarction 3 days earlier.During an initial assessment of the patient,the nurse detects a heart murmur that the patient did not have previously.The nurse should __________________.
Q2) How should the nurse document an exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine found during the assessment of a 90-year-old patient?
A)Lordosis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Kyphosis
Q3) ________________ is a major cause of lung cancer,cerebrovascular disease,heart disease,and chronic lung disease.
Q4) The nurse is preparing to examine a patient who has chronic lung disease.She realizes that the patient most likely will need to be in which position for the examination?
A)Sitting upright
B)Supine
C)Side-lying
D)Prone
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Chapter 7: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has come to the emergency department complaining of coughing up bloody sputum.The patient has a 30-year history of smoking and has lost 15 pounds in the last month.What will the nurse expect the sputum specimen to be evaluated for?
A)Culture and sensitivity
B)Acid-fast bacilli (AFB)
C)Cytology
D)Chemical analysis
Q2) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
Q3) Which of the following is the site of choice for obtaining samples for an arterial blood gas (ABG)?
A)Radial artery
B)Brachial artery
C)Femoral artery
D)Popliteal artery
Q4) When blood specimens are drawn,which of the following statements is true?
A)Draw cryoglobulin levels using test tubes placed on ice.
B)To test ammonia and ionized calcium levels,warm the test tubes.
C)To draw for lactic acid levels,do not use a tourniquet.
D)To draw for vitamin levels,use light to determine density.
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Chapter 8: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which circumstances should a nurse contact the physician to postpone an angiography?
A)If a patient has been nothing by mouth (NPO)for only 1 hour.
B)If a patient's femoral site has been shaved and cleansed with an antiseptic.
C)If the patient received Benadryl as a preprocedure medication.
D)When test results reveal a blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level of 15 mg/100 mL and a creatinine level of 0.8 mg/mL.
Q2) Which is the appropriate patient position for a lumbar puncture?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Sims'
D)Lateral recumbent
Q3) For an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy,a nurse should:
A)remove the patient's dentures.
B)suction the patient every 5 minutes.
C)place the patient in high-Fowler's position.
D)provide fluids immediately after the test is finished.
Q4) _____________________ is often used for diagnostic or surgical procedures that do not require complete anesthesia in acute care,surgical care,and outpatient care settings.
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Chapter 9: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If hands are not visibly soiled,the nurse may use an alcohol-based hand rub in which of the following situations?
A)Before having direct contact with patients
B)After contact with a patient's intact skin
C)After contact with body fluids or excretions
D)After removing gloves
Q2) For an infection to take place,which of the following must be present?
A)Pathogen and reservoir
B)Portals of exit and entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Susceptible host
Q3) _______________,also known as sterile technique,includes procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms from an area.
Q4) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing)microorganisms.
Q5) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A)put the patient in a private room.
B)place the patient on standard precautions.
C)wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient.
D)place the patient on contact precautions.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Sterile Technique
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires a sterile dressing change for a mid-abdominal surgical incision.An appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement in maintaining sterile asepsis is to:
A)put sterile gloves on before opening sterile packages.
B)discard items that may have been in contact with the area below waist level.
C)place the povidone-iodine bottle well within the sterile field.
D)place sterile items on the very edge of the sterile drape.
Q2) A sterile field consists of which of the following?
A)Sterile tray
B)Work surface draped with a sterile towel
C)Table covered by a large sterile drape
D)Patient's bedside table
Q3) When the following concepts are compared,which is most important in maintaining a safe environment by following aseptic principles?
A)Performing a surgical hand scrub
B)Applying a sterile gown
C)Recognizing the importance of following aseptic principles
D)Applying a mask and protective eyewear
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Chapter 11: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To transfer the patient who has normal weight bearing and upper body strength out of bed to a chair,what should the nurse do?
A)Grab the patient under the axilla to lift.
B)Have the patient move forward with the weak side.
C)Have the patient put on shoes with nonskid soles.
D)Place the chair in a position 90 degrees opposite the bed.
Q2) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
Q3) Which of the following risk factors contribute to complications of immobility?
A)Paralysis
B)Traction
C)Arterial insufficiency
D)Incontinence
E)Constipation
Q4) A nursing skill that helps a weakened or dependent patient or patients with restricted mobility to attain positions to regain optimal independence is known as
Q5) Plantar flexion contracture,otherwise known as _____________,is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported,weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q6) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Exercise Mobility
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been treated for a broken leg.She needs to teach the patient how to use crutches.Which crutch gait is most appropriate for this patient?
A)Four-point gait
B)Three-point gait
C)Two-point gait
D)Swing-to gait
Q2) When teaching the use of a three-point crutch gait,the nurse should instruct the patient to move:
A)both crutches and the affected leg first,then the stronger leg.
B)the right crutch,left foot,left crutch,and right foot in sequence.
C)the left crutch and right foot,then move the right crutch and left foot.
D)both crutches,then lift and swing the legs forward as far as the crutches.
Q3) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
Q4) The nurse is concerned that the patient may fall while he is ambulating.To help her maintain control while the patient walks,the nurse may apply a ______________ around the patient's waist.
Q5) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
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Chapter 13: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following problems that may occur with the use of an air-fluidized bed,which is of greatest concern to the nurse?
A)Nausea
B)Anxiety
C)Slight disorientation
D)Insensible fluid loss
Q2) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q3) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Q4) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q5) The patient will be going home but still requires an air-fluidized bed.Before discharge,it will be necessary for the company that is leasing the bed to inspect the home for accessibility and ________________.
Q6) A full or double-wide _____________ can accommodate a patient up to 1000 pounds.
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Chapter 14: Patient Safety
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to prevent a patient from aspirating during a seizure?
A)Insert an oral airway.
B)Restrain the patient securely.
C)Sit the patient upright.
D)Turn the patient onto his/her side.
Q2) To promote patient safety,government standards regarding mechanical and physical restraints state that:
A)alternative measures are to be implemented before restraints are used.
B)the nurse's judgment is all that is required for restraint use.
C)restraints should be used immediately for all patients who may need them.
D)restraints cannot be used except to prevent others from being harmed.
Q3) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Q4) Health care facilities must provide employees access to information about the properties of particular chemicals and information for handling substances in a safe manner.Facilities do this by providing ______________.
Q5) It is important for nurses to understand what patients perceive as ___________ so that patients will become partners in programs to prevent them.
Q6) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 10 minutes is known as _______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disaster Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is brought into the emergency department as part of a mass casualty incident (MCI).The patient has white powder on his clothes,and it is suspected that the patient has been exposed to anthrax.What should the nurse do first?
A)Cut off the patient's clothing and place it in a plastic bag.
B)Have the patient remove his sweater by pulling it over his head.
C)Avoid using oxygen that could decrease the patient's oxygen drive.
D)Provide the patient with appropriate antibiotics.
Q2) The dispersal of radioactive material via a "dirty bomb" or by deliberate contamination of food supplies or water supplies is known as a _________________.
Q3) The nurse has arrived at the scene of a natural disaster and is assigned to care for four patients.To which patient should the nurse provide care first?
A)Patient with a closed head injury with no changes in level of consciousness
B)Patient with a 3-cm laceration to the forearm
C)Patient who is breathing 8 times per minute
D)Patient with a displaced wrist fracture
Q4) The strategic plan of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)in the event of a disaster first focuses on __________________.
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Chapter 16: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catheter migration into the______________ can produce dangerously high medication levels.Only physicians and nurse anesthetists administer drugs in this space.
Q2) Offering the patient a backrub before preparing for sleep can promote relaxation and comfort.An effective backrub takes:
A)1 to 2 minutes.
B)3 to 6 minutes.
C)7 to 10 minutes.
D)11 to 15 minutes.
Q3) The patient had knee-replacement surgery and has a local infusion pump to provide a local anesthetic to the surgical site.The patient puts on the call light and complains that pain at the site is more intense than it has ever been and is getting worse.The nurse checks the site and finds that the dressing is damp but intact.The infusion pump is pumping,and there is medication in the bag.The most probable cause of the problem might be the:
A)catheter may be clogged.
B)pump may be releasing too much drug into the site.
C)catheter may be displaced.
D)patient may be exaggerating the pain.
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Chapter 17: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Grief that occurs before an actual loss or death and involves gradual disengagement from what is being lost is known as which type of grief?
A)Anticipatory
B)Complicated
C)Uncomplicated
D)Normal
Q2) Before allowing the family of a deceased patient to view the body,the nurse should:
A)insert the patient's dentures.
B)lower the head of the bed.
C)fold the arms and hands over the chest.
D)leave all of the old dressings and tape in place.
Q3) A new staff member is working with a patient who is dying.A nurse evaluates that this new employee requires additional teaching when he or she is observed:
A)limiting the family's visiting hours.
B)staying with the patient and family as much as possible.
C)finding a quiet place for family members to gather.
D)asking the family if they would like to help with preparing the body.
Q4) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ are mucous membranes with underlying supportive tissue that encircle the neck of erupted teeth to hold them in place.
Q2) _____________ is balding patches in the periphery of the hairline.
Q3) When taking a shower in the home setting,the patient at risk for falls may benefit from:
A)installation of grab bars.
B)adhesive strips applied to the tub floor.
C)addition of a shower chair or stool.
D)a hydraulic lift.
Q4) The patient requires postural drainage 3 times a day.Which of the following bed positions would be most appropriate for this task?
A)Fowler's position
B)Trendelenburg's position
C)Reverse Trendelenburg's position
D)Semi-Fowler's position
Q5) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
Q6) Regular oral hygiene is necessary to maintain the integrity of tooth surfaces and to prevent gum inflammation known as ____________.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse decides that assistive personnel can provide care to a patient with contact lenses when the assistive personnel states:
A)"If I am in a hurry,I will use tap water for rinsing the lenses."
B)"Gloves aren't necessary; the eye is a clean organ."
C)"I will check with the patient to see if the lenses are disposable."
D)"It is normal for contact lens wearers to have red,teary eyes."
Q2) The nurse caring for a comatose patient determines that he is wearing contact lenses.Which of the following nursing interventions will the nurse use when removing the contact lenses?
A)Put on snug,powdered,clean gloves.
B)Ask the patient to look down to expose the lower eyeball.
C)Use the fingernail to slide the lens off of the cornea.
D)Inspect the eye after the lenses have been removed.
Q3) How should the nurse position the ear when performing ear irrigation for a 2-year-old patient?
A)Instill the irrigating solution quickly and forcefully.
B)Pull the pinna up and back.
C)Direct the fluid toward the anterior aspect of the ear canal.
D)Pull the pinna down and back.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medication errors include which of the following?
A)Administration of the wrong medication
B)Administration via the wrong route
C)Inaccurate prescribing
D)Failing to administer a medication
Q2) When controlled substances are administered,which action is required by the nurse?
A)Discard and sign for unused quantities.
B)Count the amount of medication daily.
C)Keep narcotics to be given with other patient medications.
D)Have a second nurse witness disposal of unused portions and sign the record.
Q3) The prescribed dose of Tylenol is given to a patient.The nurse recognizes the name Tylenol as which of the following?
A)Chemical name
B)Trade name
C)Generic name
D)United States Pharmacopeia
Q4) The prescriber orders 3 mg/kg/d of a medication to be given in 3 equal doses.The patient weighs 44 pounds.The nurse calculates that the proper amount per dose is
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Chapter 21: Administration of Nonparenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse administers eardrops in the patient's left ear.Which of the following positions is appropriate after instillation of the drops?
A)Prone
B)Upright
C)Right lateral
D)Dorsal recumbent with hyperextension of the neck
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a jejunostomy tube to a patient who is receiving continuous tube feedings.The medication needs to be given on an empty stomach and comes only in tablet form.What action should the nurse take first?
A)Add the medications directly to the tube feeding.
B)Flush the tubing before the medication is given.
C)Stop the feeding 30 minutes before medication administration.
D)Dissolve the medication in cold water.
Q3) Handheld devices that deliver inhaled medication in a fine powder to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q4) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Administration of Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV)antibiotic using a mini-infusion pump.Which action should the nurse do first?
A)Place the syringe into the mini-infusion pump.
B)Hang the pump on an IV pole.
C)Connect the end of the mini-infusion tubing to the main IV line.
D)Apply pressure to the syringe plunger to fill the tubing with medication.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to give a medication by intravenous (IV)bolus.When assessing the patient's IV insertion site,the nurse notes that it is warm,reddened,and tender.What action should the nurse take first?
A)Slow the infusion rate and slowly inject the medication.
B)Discontinue the IV infusion.
C)Inject a local anesthetic to relieve the tenderness.
D)Apply warm compresses over the insertion site.
Q3) The nurse is preparing an injection of 0.45 mL of medication for a pediatric patient.Which syringe is most appropriate?
A)Tuberculin syringe
B)Insulin syringe
C)3-mL syringe
D)10-mL syringe
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator and the low-pressure alarm sounds.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A)Assess for secretions in the airway and suction the patient.
B)Administer a sedative to the patient to prevent coughing.
C)Assess the endotracheal tube cuff to make sure it is deflated.
D)Check the ventilator tubing and reconnect if disconnected.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for hypoxia and observes a bluish discoloration in the following areas.Which areas indicate hypoxia?
A)Oral mucosa
B)Conjunctiva of the eye
C)Around the lips
D)On the nail beds
Q3) The nurse is caring for several patients receiving oxygen by various delivery systems.Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates proper use of the oxygen device?
A)No mist is noted in a face tent.
B)The reservoir of the rebreathing mask collapses on inhalation.
C)The flow rate is between 1 and 6 L/min for a nasal cannula.
D)The flow rate for an oxygen hood is set at 3 L/min.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse positions the patient flat on the back with a small pillow under the knees to drain the right and left _____________________.
Q2) A patient has retained secretions in the right and left lower lobe superior bronchi.A nurse is demonstrating to family members how to perform percussion and vibration.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Positioning the patient in a chair leaning forward on a table
B)Asking the patient to lie flat on the stomach with a pillow under the stomach
C)Assisting the patient to the right side with the arm overhead and the feet elevated
D)Asking the patient to lie on the left side with the head elevated
Q3) The nurse receives orders on several patients for chest percussion,vibration,and shaking.The nurse is aware that chest physiotherapy maneuvers are indicated for which patient?
A)18-year-old who sustained thoracic trauma from a motor vehicle accident
B)75-year-old with osteoporosis who is underweight
C)15-year-old with cystic fibrosis
D)20-year-old with a fractured clavicle
Q4) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
Q2) The nurse is preparing to suction an infant with a tracheostomy tube.Which action by the nurse follows appropriate procedure?
A)Using a suction catheter that is half the diameter of the tracheostomy tube
B)Suctioning 0.2 to 0.5 inches beyond the tip of the tracheostomy tube
C)Hyperoxygenating with 90% oxygen to avoid oxygen toxicity
D)Using less than 150 mm Hg negative pressure
Q3) A patient has been on mechanical ventilation with an endotracheal tube for 1 week.Which intervention by the nurse will help prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A)Providing oral care with a toothbrush at least twice daily
B)Changing the ventilator circuits at least every 72 hours
C)Removing subglottal secretions before every position change
D)Maintaining endotracheal cuff pressures at 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
Q4) A _______________ is inserted directly into the trachea through a small incision made in the patient's neck.
Q5) A patient has extremely copious and thick oral secretions.The nurse provides oropharyngeal suctioning using a _________________ suction device.
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Chapter 26: Cardiac Care
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35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70395
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that it is a priority to obtain the 12-lead ECG on the patient newly admitted with chest pain because the ECG must be obtained within how many minutes of the onset of pain?
A)3 minutes
B)5 minutes
C)8 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q2) ECG tracings that cannot be interpreted are known as _________________.
Q3) The nurse determines the needs to obtainment of a 12-lead ECG on a patient.The nurse assesses two identifiers to ensure patient safety.This practice is in compliance with which safety organization?
A)American Nurses Association
B)The Joint Commission
C)The National Hospital Association for Patient Safety
D)Magnet Credentialing
Q4) Some patients may have allergies,or more commonly,sensitivities to the adhesive used to affix the leads.In these cases,_____________ are available from various manufacturers.
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Chapter 27: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a chest tube.Attached to the top of the patient's bed are two shodded hemostats.In which situations would these be used?
A)To assess an air leak
B)To quickly empty or change disposable systems
C)To quickly seal off the lungs if the system becomes disconnected
D)To assess whether the patient is ready to have the chest tube removed
Q2) The patient's chest tube is attached to a one-way flutter valve that allows air to escape the chest cavity and prevents air from reentering.How does the nurse document this finding?
A)Heimlich chest drain valve
B)Pneumovax
C)Water seal
D)Pleurovac
Q3) A pneumothorax can be caused by which of the following?
A)Trauma
B)Rupture of a blister
C)Emphysema
D)Dyspnea
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Chapter 28: Emergency Measure for Life Support
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the event of cardiopulmonary arrest,all patients receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)unless otherwise indicated in the patient's _________________.
Q2) The nurse finds a patient lying on the bathroom floor.The patient is unresponsive and has a pulse but is not breathing.What is the nurse's first action?
A)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device.
B)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device and watch for chest movement.
C)Give two breaths using a bag-mask device.
D)Start chest compressions until an automated external defibrillator (AED)is available.
Q3) The nurse enters her patient's room to find him unresponsive.She begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)according to protocol.How deep should the nurse do chest compressions in this pulseless adult?
A)1 toinches in depth
B)to 3 inches in depth
C)to 1 inch in depth
D)to 2 inches in depth
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Chapter 29: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting the physician during the insertion of a central line into the subclavian vein.How should the nurse cleanse the area?
A)With chlorhexidine in a back and forth scrubbing motion
B)With chlorhexidine followed by alcohol in a back and forth scrubbing motion
C)With alcohol in a circular motion for 5 minutes
D)With antimicrobial solution that must be dabbed dry with a sterile towel
Q2) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when changing the dressing at a peripheral intravenous (IV)catheter site?
A)Wear sterile gloves to remove the old dressing.
B)Keep one finger over the IV catheter until the tape is replaced.
C)Cleanse with an antiseptic solution in a circular manner toward the site.
D)Tape the connection between the IV catheter port and the tubing.
Q3) For which patients are electronic infusion devices (EIDs)used?
A)Those who require low hourly rates
B)Those who are at risk for volume overload
C)Those who have impaired renal clearance
D)Those who are receiving fluids that require a specific hourly volume
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Chapter 30: Blood Therapy
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to receive 2 units of packed red blood cells (RBCs).Before administering the blood,what does the nurse need to do?
A)Insert an 18-gauge intravenous (IV)cannula.
B)Have the patient complete a consent form.
C)Obtain pretransfusion vital signs.
D)Notify the physician for a temperature of 37°C.
Q2) What is the purpose of administering a transfusion?
A)Restore intravascular volume.
B)Restore the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
C)Provide clotting factors.
D)Improve blood pressure.
Q3) For how long may blood preserved with citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD)be stored (unfrozen)before use?
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)3 months
Q4) The presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells determines ___________________ in the ABO system.
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Chapter 31: Oral Nutrition
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient for nutritional status.Which laboratory value may indicate compromised protein status?
A)Serum albumin level of 4.0 g/dL
B)Prealbumin level of 12 g/dL
C)Total lymphocyte count of 1600 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
D)Prealbumin level of 35 g/dL
Q2) The nurse will collaborate with a ___________ to develop a nutritional plan for a patient identified as being at nutritional risk.
Q3) Which of the following are signs of iron (Fe<sup>2+</sup>)deficiency?
A)Pale eye membranes
B)Cheilosis (redness/swelling)of the lips
C)Spongy,bleeding gingiva
D)Glossitis
Q4) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to use to prevent aspiration when assisting a patient with meals?
A)Keep the patient's head back and straight.
B)Offer thin-consistency foods.
C)Provide large amounts of fluids.
D)Have the patient sit up for 30 minutes after eating.
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Chapter 32: Enteral Nutrition
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has inserted a nasogastric (NG)feeding tube.The feeding tube has a stylet in place to aid insertion.What should the nurse do once the tube is in place?
A)Remove the stylet immediately.
B)Reinsert the stylet if the radiograph determines incorrect placement.
C)Fasten the end of the NG tube to the patient's gown using tape and a safety pin.
D)Leave the stylet in place and obtain a chest/abdomen radiograph.
Q2) Before insertion of a nasogastric (NG)tube,of which finding should the physician be notified?
A)Patent nares
B)Absent bowel sounds
C)Evident gag reflex
D)Impaired swallowing
Q3) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel,and used in feeding the patient for short periods is known as a _____________.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient in a chronic vegetative state with inadequate gastric emptying.The nurse would anticipate finding in a ________ tube placed to assist with this patient's nutritional needs.
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Chapter 33: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving PN.As part of therapy,the patient undergoes routine bedside glucose monitoring that reveals which expected outcome?
A)Lower than normal blood glucose to determine adequate tolerance for PN
B)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to meet increased cellular needs
C)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to prevent infection or systemic sepsis
D)Normal blood glucose to prevent associated complications
Q2) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has had a central venous access device (CVAD)in place.The patient complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.These assessment findings are symptoms of which severe complication?
A)Exit site infection
B)Catheter-related sepsis
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hyperglycemia
Q3) If parenteral nutrition (PN)must be discontinued suddenly,hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 34: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________ involves the insertion of a urinary catheter directly into the bladder through the lower abdominal wall.Urine drains from the catheter into a urinary drainage bag.
Q2) Which symptom is the patient with fluid overload likely to exhibit?
A)Oliguria
B)Distended neck veins
C)Increased skin temperature
D)Increased urine specific gravity
Q3) Which activities related to urinary elimination may be delegated to a nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
A)Catheterization
B)Positioning the patient
C)Evaluating alternatives to catheter use
D)Assessing urinary drainage
Q4) On the basis of the nurse's assessment of kidney function for an adult patient,which finding is normal?
A)10 mL/hr
B)20 mL/hr
C)30 mL/hr
D)100 mL/hr
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70404
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to verify nasogastric (NG)tube placement?
A)Ask the patient to speak.
B)Inspect the posterior pharynx.
C)Aspirate back on the syringe.
D)Obtain an x-ray of the placement.
E)Auscultate the lung fields.
Q2) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
Q3) The patient is being prepped for surgery and has an order for "enemas until clear."
The nurse realizes that she will be giving a maximum of how many enemas?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q4) While the nurse is administering an enema with a standard enema bag,which intervention is important to implement?
A)Keeping the solution at room temperature
B)Positioning the patient on the right side
C)Raising the enema bag to 12 inches above the patient
D)Instructing the patient to release the enema solution as soon as possible
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Chapter 36: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a urinary diversion.The nurse notices that the patient has a temperature of 102° F and foul-smelling urine.What action should the nurse take?
A)Obtain a urine culture from the patient's pouch.
B)Catheterize the patient to obtain a sterile urine specimen.
C)Notify the physician.
D)Realize that these are normal findings.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an ostomy.The nurse notices that the effluent ranges from a thick liquid to a semi-formed stool.The nurse recognizes that this is indicative of which location?
A)Descending colon
B)Ileal portion of the small-intestine
C)Sigmoid colon
D)Transverse or ascending colon
Q3) An ostomy that is created from a portion of the ileum to form a stoma through which urine can exit the body is called a(n)_____________.
Q4) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
Q5) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small-intestine is an ____________.
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Chapter 37: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing care for an ambulatory surgical patient,the nurse recognizes that which assessment indicates that the patient meets discharge criteria?
A)The patient is able to drive home alone.
B)Some respiratory depression is evident.
C)The oxygen saturation level is at 85%.
D)No intravenous (IV)narcotics have been given in the past 30 minutes.
Q2) The goal of prophylactic antibiotic therapy is to protect the patient from infection with as little risk as possible.To achieve this goal,the nurse recognizes that antibiotics should be administered when they will be most beneficial.When would that be?
A)Twenty-four hours before surgery
B)For 2 weeks after surgery
C)For no longer than 24 hours after surgery
D)When signs of infection first appear
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Chapter 38: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the circulating nurse's primary responsibility?
A)The nurse is a "sterile" member of the surgical team.
B)The nurse provides the surgeon with instruments.
C)The nurse is a "nonsterile" member of the surgical team.
D)The nurse performs delegated medical functions or skills.
Q2) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
Q3) The consequences of double gloving during surgery include which of the following?
A)Decreased need for handwashing
B)Decreased risk for exposure to bloodborne pathogens
C)Increased perforations to the innermost glove
D)Decreased risk for surgical wound infection
E)Increased patient cost
Q4) The _________________ is a nurse with advanced education who assists the surgeon with the surgical procedure,performing a combination of nursing and delegated medical functions and/or skills.
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Chapter 39: Pressure Injury Prevention and Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for her patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following?
A)A heat lamp to dry the wound
B)Application of topical antibiotics
C)Nutritional assessment
D)Maintaining moisture in the wound
Q2) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q3) Aggressive prevention measures should be implemented for a patient in the general population with a pressure ulcer risk on the Braden Scale of less than or equal to: A)16.
B)18.
C)20.
D)24.
Q4) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q5) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward,________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 40: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Q1) Which situation noticed during evaluation would determine that the staples or sutures should remain in place?
A)The wound edges are separated.
B)No drainage or erythema is present.
C)The patient is anxious about their removal.
D)A cosmetically aesthetic result would not be achieved.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient about his role in wound healing.Which of the following factors,if modified by the patient,can support adequate oxygenation at the tissue level?
A)Age
B)Smoking
C)Underlying cardiopulmonary conditions
D)Hemoglobin
Q3) The nurse is explaining healing of a full-thickness wound to a patient.Which of the following phases should the nurse include in the explanation?
A)Hemostasis
B)Inflammation
C)Proliferation
D)Maturation
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Chapter 41: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse remember to do when applying a hydrocolloid dressing?
A)Apply granules after applying the wafer.
B)Never use a secondary dressing.
C)Hold the dressing in place.
D)Use silk tape to hold the dressing in place.
Q2) Serious hemorrhaging has resulted in the patient experiencing a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.How should the nurse respond?
A)Initiate intravenous (IV)therapy.
B)Order blood for transfusions.
C)Remove and reapply any dressings.
D)Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes.
Q3) A _______________ is a clear,adherent,nonabsorptive,polyurethane moistureand vapor-permeable dressing that often is used for protection over high-friction areas and over intravenous (IV)catheters.
Q4) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
Q5) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
Q6) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
Q7) ___________ healing takes place when tissue is cleanly cut and the margins are reapproximated.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot compresses to an open wound?
A)Apply clean gloves.
B)Cover all wound surfaces.
C)Leave the application in place for 30 to 40 minutes.
D)Apply an electrical heating unit directly over the compress.
Q2) Which of the following conditions are best treated with cold therapy?
A)Localized inflammatory responses
B)Hemorrhage
C)Muscle spasm
D)Pain
Q3) ___________ exerts a profound physiological effect on the body,reducing inflammation caused by injury to the musculoskeletal system.
Q4) When the skin is exposed to warm or hot temperatures,which of the following occurs?
A)Vasodilatation
B)Vasoconstriction
C)Perspiration
D)Piloerection
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Chapter 43: Home Care Safety
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the home of an elderly patient for safety issues.Which of the following actions would reassure the nurse?
A)Cleaning the stove top
B)Putting a shower chair in the bathroom
C)Installing adequate lighting in all living areas
D)Placing emergency numbers close to the telephone
Q2) Common causes of falls in older patients include which of the following?
A)Gait disturbances
B)Muscle weakness
C)Visual impairments
D)Environmental hazards
Q3) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning,with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) Activities of daily living (ADLs)include the patient's ability to bathe,dress,go to the toilet,transfer,maintain continence,and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone,prepare meals,travel,do housework,take medication,and shop.
Q5) Dementia is characterized by a gradual,progressive,irreversible _______ dysfunction.
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Chapter 44: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient needs to be taught the signs of hypoxia.Which of the following outcomes are causes of hypoxia?
A)Incorrect flow rate
B)Poor tubing connection
C)Use of long oxygen tubing
D)Airway plugging
Q2) What is an appropriate technique to use when teaching an older patient about self-medication in the home?
A)Speak very loudly.
B)Teach the family separately.
C)Provide frequent pauses.
D)Provide fewer but longer teaching sessions.
Q3) What is an expected outcome after tracheostomy care is successfully performed?
A)A stoma site that is hard to the touch
B)An inner cannula that is free of secretions
C)Copious secretions obtained from suctioning
D)Bloody secretions that have been suctioned
Q4) A ___________________ delivers oxygen through a catheter permanently inserted into the trachea,thus allowing the patient to speak and bypassing anatomical dead space.
Page 46
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