Nursing Practice I Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Practice I introduces students to the foundational concepts and skills essential for safe and effective nursing care. Emphasizing holistic, patient-centered care, the course covers basic nursing procedures, health assessment techniques, infection control, therapeutic communication, and documentation. Students engage in laboratory simulations and supervised clinical experiences to build competence in vital sign measurement, hygiene assistance, mobility support, and the administration of basic treatments. This course lays the groundwork for developing critical thinking, ethical decision-making, and professional behaviors necessary for practicing within diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White
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61 Chapters
2346 Verified Questions
2346 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When considering delegation of tasks,the student nurse is aware that unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)can only perform tasks that are:
A)designated by employer policies and procedures
B)within the scope of practice of RNs and LP/VNs
C)prescribed by state laws
D)learned on the job
Answer: A
Q2) A disciplined intellectual process of applying skillful reasoning,imposing intellectual standards,and self-reflective thinking as a guide to belief or action is known as:
A)problem solving
B)metacognition
C)critical thinking
D)learning style
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Holistic Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a nurse suspects a coworker is taking clients' narcotics and using them on the job,which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Ask other staff if they have also noticed suspicious behavior related to this coworker.
B)Bring these concerns to the supervisor.
C)Post drug-abuse awareness materials where the coworker will see them.
D)Privately discuss these suspicions with the coworker.
Answer: B
Q2) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs,which of these levels of needs must be met for the life of the individual to be maintained?
A)love and belonging needs
B)physiologic needs
C)safety and security needs
D)self-actualization needs
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing educators provide learning experiences that focus on observing and providing care for living clients such as those in a hospital setting The nursing student is aware that this type of learning is:
A)clinical learning
B)didactic learning
C)group learning
D)staff-development learning
Answer: A
Q2) Which characteristic is associated with hospitals established during the rule of the Roman Empire?
A)They advocated that nurses provide clients with clean air and light.
B)They established formal training for caregivers.
C)They were staffed mostly by paid male nurses and male assistants.
D)They were primarily charitable institutions housed in monasteries and convents.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of law gives state boards of nursing the authority to make rules and regulations governing nursing as set forth in the nursing practice acts?
A)administrative
B)constitutional
C)criminal
D)statutory
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer.The client's respirations are dangerously decreased following administration of pain medication.The nurse is aware that if interventions are not taken immediately,the client's respirations will most likely result in the client's death.The nurse's actions represent:
A)active anesthesia
B)euthanasia
C)refusal of treatment
D)utility
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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about the role of the nurse in the multidisciplinary health care team is TRUE?
A)Nurses function in independent,interdependent,and dependent roles.
B)Nurses are responsible for leading the team in most situations.
C)Nurses are responsible for the follow-through of team decisions.
D)Nurses function only under the direction of other team members.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes and heart disease.The existence of both these illnesses in the client is considered to be a:
A)comorbidity
B)preemptive process
C)progressive mortality
D)tertiary illness
Q3) What term describes the entry into the health care system that occurs through a point designated by the health maintenance organization plan?
A)exclusive provider
B)preferred provider
C)primary health care plan
D)single point of entry
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Chapter 6: Arenas of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a client who has had a total knee replacement and requires additional therapy,which of these arenas would be MOST appropriate?
A)hospice
B)long-term care facility
C)subacute care unit
D)home
Q2) The required process for any health care facility that chooses to be reimbursed by the government through Medicare or Medicaid funds is called:
A)accreditation
B)approval
C)certification
D)licensure
Q3) For a new LP/VN graduate,which of these arenas of care offers the MOST opportunities for initial employment?
A)hospice
B)long-term care facility
C)diagnostic services unit
D)general nursing unit in an acute care hospital
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8
Chapter 7: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about the process of active listening is TRUE?
A)It is the behavior of listening and observing.
B)It is processing client statements and answering questions while providing daily nursing care.
C)It focuses on the client's nonverbal behavior.
D)It takes specialized preparation.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a stroke and is no longer able to speak.This condition is known as:
A)aphasia
B)arthria
C)dysarthria
D)dysphasia
Q3) The nurse uses telecommunications equipment and communication networks to transfer a request for medical supplies to a different location.This is an example of:
A)the computerized client record
B)Internet health continuum
C)proxemics
D)telehealth
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Chapter 8: Client Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing a planned,goal-directed education related to a specific topic.This is an example of:
A)formal teaching
B)informal teaching
C)kinesthetic teaching
D)learning
Q2) A nurse plans a diabetes education program that will be repeated quarterly for a group of clients who are diabetic.When preparing this educational program,the nurse acknowledges that this is considered:
A)formal teaching
B)informal teaching
C)kinesthetic teaching
D)learning
Q3) During the initial phase of teaching,which of these aspects is essential for the nurse to assess?
A)actual client learning needs
B)potential client learning needs
C)involvement of family members
D)client time management
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A goal for a client who has the nursing diagnosis Anxiety related to hospitalization is "The client will verbalize end or alleviation of periods of anxiety within 2 days of hospitalization." What type of goal does this statement represent?
A)focused
B)long-term
C)ongoing
D)short-term
Q2) The nurse uses an assessment model that is derived from Maslow's theory.This model is based upon:
A)body systems model
B)functional health patterns
C)hierarchy of needs
D)human response patterns
Q3) Which step of the nursing process involves determination of how successfully the client goals have been met?
A)assessment
B)evaluation
C)implementation
D)planning
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Chapter 10: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process in which certain goals must be achieved during each stage of the life cycle and that set the stage for future learning is known as:
A)cognitive abilities
B)critical learning
C)developmental tasks
D)physical development
Q2) When a child makes the "right" choice of behaviors,this is an example of:
A)ethics
B)moral maturity
C)religious adaptation
D)spirituality
Q3) Which of the following nursing actions is essential when caring for a neonate?
A)conducting psychosocial assessments
B)monitoring nutritional status
C)providing a sterile environment to protect from infection
D)providing grandparents with support
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Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client claims to have a nonbelief in God or any other deity.This is BEST described as:
A)agnosticism
B)atheism
C)Darwinism
D)existentialism
Q2) When a nurse is unsure if the client has understood a teaching or message,which of these actions should be taken?
A)Ask the client if the message is understood.
B)Ask the client to repeat or demonstrate the process.
C)Document the teaching session.
D)Reteach the concept.
Q3) When a nurse is caring for a client whose culture considers personal touch as negative,what can the nurse do to express caring and acceptance to the client?
A)Assign personal care responsibilities to a family member.
B)Wear gloves when providing personal care.
C)Smile frequently at the client.
D)Stand a respectful distance away from the client.
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Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client who is experiencing moderate anxiety?
A)hopelessness
B)post-trauma syndrome
C)ineffective coping
D)spiritual distress
Q2) The student nurse has a test scheduled for next week and is anxious to do well.Thus the student nurse spends many hours studying for the test.Which of these terms BEST describes this situation?
A)catharsis
B)distress
C)eustress
D)internal stress
Q3) When an individual is taught a behavior,what is the process known as before the behavior becomes an automatic response?
A)adaptive reflection
B)cognitive reframing
C)conditioning
D)crisis intervention
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Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about grief is TRUE?
A)It is prolonged and dysfunctional.
B)It involves intense psychological and physical responses occurring after a loss.
C)It is abnormal in many situations.
D)It occurs primarily in highly civilized societies.
Q2) The loss of someone or something,such as the death of a loved one or the theft of one's property,represents what kind of loss?
A)actual
B)anticipated
C)situational
D)perceived
Q3) What is the nurse's FIRST priority when implementing care for a client who is dying?
A)providing technically proficient care to the client
B)supporting the client's family
C)communicating caring to the client and family
D)assisting the family in making funeral arrangements
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15
Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who is having a ruptured appendix removed before peritonitis develops.This is BEST described as which type of prevention?
A)physical prevention
B)primary prevention
C)secondary prevention
D)tertiary prevention
Q2) Health promotion can BEST be defined as:
A)avoiding illness
B)preventing illness
C)choosing healthy behaviors
D)maintaining current health status
Q3) Which of the following groups is at the center of the prevention health care team as having the ultimate responsibility for health care?
A)specialist physicians
B)psychologists
C)clients
D)occupational therapists
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Self-Concept
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who has lost her hair after undergoing chemotherapy treatments for cancer.How the client perceives her appearance can BEST be described as:
A)physical self
B)body image
C)hormonal changes
D)side effect of treatments
Q2) When assessing the client's self-concept,body image,or role performance,the nurse's priority would be which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)nonverbal actions
B)poor hygiene
C)excessive grooming
D)interactions with others
E)withdrawal
F)lack of appetite
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Chapter 16: Spirituality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has received a terminal diagnosis.Which statement by the client causes the nurse the greatest concern?
A)"I had a feeling the news was going to be bad."
B)"This runs in my family.I knew there was a chance it would be terminal."
C)"Why did this happen to me? I thought I was taking care of my health."
D)"Why is God angry with me? Do I deserve this punishment?"
Q2) Providing spiritual care to a client requires the nurse to have a comfort level with this type of care and:
A)the use of touch
B)conscientious thought and personal reflection
C)knowledge of religions
D)prior spiritual experiences
Q3) When caring for clients whose values and beliefs are considerably different,a dilemma for the nurse exists if there is:
A)conflict with what the nurse believes
B)conflict with what the physician believes
C)conflict with what the client believes
D)conflict with facility policies
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Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a Chinese American client and understands that an essential component of traditional Chinese healing practice includes:
A)Ayurveda
B)herbalism
C)meridianism
D)shamanism
Q2) The client uses a macrobiotic diet.The nurse is aware that this includes the main use of which types of food?
A)meat and eggs
B)brown rice and whole grains
C)tropical sweet foods
D)fruits and vegetables
Q3) The client is using a measurement of physiologic responses to learn to manipulate the autonomic nervous system through mental activity.This is an example of:
A)biofeedback
B)imagery
C)meditation
D)relaxation
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19
Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age is it recommended that solid foods be introduced to an infant?
A)as soon as possible
B)at 2 months
C)at 3 months
D)at 4 to 6 months
Q2) Most nutrients are water soluble and can be absorbed directly through:
A)loops
B)filaments
C)polyps
D)villi
Q3) When preparing the client for a meal,a nurse's FIRST responsibility is:
A)ensuring that the client is ready to eat
B)identifying the client's tray and ensuring that the correct diet has been sent
C)positioning the client comfortably upright with the overbed table over the client's lap
D)removing any offensive sights and smells from the room
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Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with restless leg syndrome.Assessment data for this client would include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)legs jumping involuntarily
B)itching of the legs and feet
C)paralysis of the feet
D)decrease in pulse in the feet
E)tingling of the legs and feet
F)deep aching in the feet
Q2) During which stage of sleep would you expect your client's vital signs to be higher than while awake?
A)stage 1 non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep
B)stage 2 NREM sleep
C)stage 3 to 4 NREM sleep
D)rapid eye movement (REM)sleep
Q3) A client who has been experiencing sleep disturbance should be encouraged to:
A)take a 1-hour nap at midday
B)sleep whenever possible
C)go to bed as early as possible
D)use bedtime rituals consistently
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce bathroom hazards,a nurse should teach a client to do which of the following?
A)Position throw rugs around tubs,showers,and sinks.
B)Use hot water liberally.
C)Install grab bars near the tub or shower.
D)Keep extra toilet tissue within easy reach.
Q2) Which of these statements regarding the use of physical restraints is TRUE?
A)The need for a health care provider's order varies from state to state.
B)Physical restraints are applied when chemical restraints are ineffective.
C)The nurse's responsibility in meeting the client's basic needs increases.
D)Restraints must be reevaluated during every shift for need and correct placement.
Q3) When discussing the use of crutches by a client,a nurse should include which of these safety measures?
A)Position the crutch tips to move with the stronger side while allowing the weaker side to rest.
B)The axillary crutch should fit firmly under the arms to bear weight properly.
C)Metal crutches provide greater stability than wooden crutches.
D)The rubber tips should be inspected regularly and replaced if loose or worn.
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Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an initial exposure to an antigen,the T cells stimulate the production of B cells,which then produce antibodies specific to the antigen.This process is collectively referred to as:
A)acquired immunity
B)humoral immunity
C)specific immune defense
D)vaccination
Q2) Which of these terms refers to microorganisms that are always present but usually not harmful to clients?
A)pathogens
B)protozoa
C)resident flora
D)transient flora
Q3) Microorganisms that cause influenza,chickenpox,and hepatitis B are:
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoa
D)viruses
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Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with pneumonia has a repeat chest X-ray in the radiology department.The nurse places which of the following on the client for transport?
A)a face shield
B)a surgical mask
C)an N-95 respirator
D)gloves and a gown
Q2) A nurse observes a certified nursing assistant (CNA)wearing one pair of gloves when taking vital signs on all assigned clients.What action should the nurse take immediately?
A)Ask the CNA to explain the rationale for this in a private conference.
B)Ignore the behavior because the CNA is following agency procedure.
C)Report the CNA to the charge nurse.
D)Teach the CNA the correct procedure,stressing the rationale.
Q3) When following Standard Precautions,which personal protection equipment should be worn while attempting to control bleeding?
A)gloves only
B)gown,gloves,mask,and goggles
C)mask and gloves
D)none
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Chapter 23: Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three factors that determine the amount of poisoning caused by exposure to sarin are:
A)the amount of sarin,the amount of time,the type of sarin used
B)the amount of sarin,the route of exposure,and the time exposed
C)the amount of time,the route of exposure,and the type of sarin used
D)the amount of time,the type of sarin used,and the time exposed
Q2) In the event of a terrorist attack,which individuals are identified as those who will be "first responders"? (Select all that apply. )
A)primary care providers
B)nurses and EMS personnel
C)public health personnel
D)animal control
E)police and firemen
F)media personnel
Q3) Which of the following statements about the bubonic plague is NOT true?
A)is a disease of animals
B)may cause pneumonic plague
C)is transmitted from person to person
D)is frequently fatal
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an assigned client.The nurse recognizes the normal value of ionized serum calcium for adults is:
A)less than 4.5 mEq/L
B)4.5 to 5.6 mEq/L
C)5.7 to 9.0 mEq/L
D)9.1 to 10.5 mEq/L
Q2) A client's blood pH is 7.5.The nurse should recognize that this is considered to be:
A)critically decreased,in need of immediate intervention
B)decreased
C)normal
D)slightly increased
Q3) When fluid accumulates in tissue spaces,the resulting condition is called
A)edema
B)dehydration
C)decompartmentalization
D)fluid insufficiency
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Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing an intradermal injection,the nurse would use which of these syringes and needles?
A)25-gauge 1/2-inch needle,insulin syringe
B)25-gauge 3/8-inch needle,tuberculin syringe
C)23-gauge 1-inch needle,3 mL syringe
D)21-gauge 1 1/2-inch needle,5 mL syringe
Q2) The nursing is caring for a client who received a central venous catheter and is monitoring for symptoms of a pneumothorax.Which of the following symptoms would the nurse be concerned about? (Select all that apply. )
A)elevation in temperature
B)sudden dyspnea
C)weak,rapid pulse
D)bounding,rapid pulse
E)hypotension
Q3) Which of these is the correct way for a nurse to document medication administration?
A)Record the drugs given during the shift before the shift ends.
B)Record the drugs immediately after administration to clients.
C)Record the drugs given by any member of the client-care team.
D)Record the drugs given by the client's pharmacy technician.
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Chapter 26: Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's pulse pressure should be between how many mmHg?
A)10 and 20
B)30 and 40
C)50 and 60
D)70 and 80
Q2) When assessing a client's breath sounds,the nurse hears high-pitched,whistling sounds during both inhalation and exhalation.These breath sounds are called:
A)crackles
B)pleural friction rubs
C)sibilant wheezes
D)sonorous wheezes
Q3) The client is admitted in an emergency situation.The nurse is aware that the client's health history should be obtained:
A)after the emergency has passed
B)while the client is undergoing medical treatment for the emergency
C)before the physical assessment,as is usually done
D)within the physical examination
Q4) Convert between Fahrenheit and Celsius temperatures. 36.5 degrees Celsius
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Chapter 27: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory of pain proposes that pain can be relieved by blocking the transmission of pain impulses to the brain by physical modalities and altering the individual's thought processes,emotions,or other behaviors?
A)gate control theory
B)Kussmaul's theory
C)perception modulation
D)transduction
Q2) A client states,"I can't take the morphine now because I might need it later when the pain gets worse." Which of these responses by the nurse would be BEST?
A)"If you're afraid of becoming addicted,don't worry.The dose can be increased if that happens."
B)"I'm not going to stand here and let you suffer.You need to take the medication."
C)"The dose of morphine can safely be increased if the effects lessen over time.There's no need for you to suffer now."
D)"You're in charge of your pain management."
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has just completed a respiratory aerosol treatment.When should a prescribed arterial blood gas specimen be obtained?
A)immediately
B)30 minutes after completion of administration
C)prior to the administration of such a treatment
D)15 minutes after completion of administration
Q2) When obtaining blood samples from a central line,what action must the nurse take?
A)Discard the first sample in the amount indicated by agency protocol.
B)Suggest that another venue be used.
C)Withdraw a greater amount of blood than required,with a peripheral stick.
D)Withdraw only the amount of blood required for the ordered tests,and document amount in nurse's notes according to agency policy.
Q3) During the collection of a 24-hour urine,how should the specimen be treated?
A)kept at room temperature for 24 hours
B)kept on ice or refrigerated during collection
C)saved until at least 1,000 mL have been obtained
D)strained at the conclusion of 24 hours
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Chapter 29: Basic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regardless of the type of facility involved,it is MOST important for an admitting nurse to introduce him- or herself to the client and family and determine the client's:
A)immediate reaction to the assigned room
B)understanding of why admission is necessary
C)willingness to follow agency policies
D)readiness to wear designated hospital gown
Q2) To administer a large-volume enema to a client,the nurse should place the client in which of these positions?
A)position of comfort for the client
B)prone,with legs extended
C)left lateral with right leg sharply flexed
D)right lateral with left leg sharply flexed
Q3) When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on an adult client,what compression-to-ventilation rate should be maintained?
A)1 compression and 1 ventilation
B)5 compressions and 1 ventilation
C)10 compressions and 2 ventilations
D)15 compressions and 2 ventilations
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Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protective devices should a nurse wear when preparing to perform oropharyngeal suction on a client?
A)gown and gloves
B)gown,mask,and goggles
C)gloves only
D)gown and mask only
Q2) A nurse is to administer nitroglycerin ointment to a client.It is essential that the nurse FIRST:
A)squeeze the dosage on the medication measuring strip
B)take the client's apical pulse
C)remove the current strip and clean the site before applying new ointment in another site
D)ask the client about any episodes of angina before applying new ointment
Q3) A client has a prescription for an ice bag to be applied to a sprained ankle.The nurse would return to remove the ice bag in:
A)10 minutes
B)20 minutes
C)45 minutes
D)1 hour
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44563
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing for placement of a nasogastric tube in a client and will use which type of technique for this procedure?
A)sterile
B)clean
C)medically aseptic
D)surgically aseptic
Q2) At what level should a nurse attach a secondary administration set (piggyback)medication bag to a primary bag of IV solution?
A)at the same level
B)below the level
C)above the level
D)It makes no difference as long as the piggyback drips without problem.
Q3) A client is to receive 1,000 mL of 5% dextrose in water over a 12-hour period.What is the hourly flow rate?
A)50 mL/hr
B)83 mL/hr
C)100 mL/hr
D)166 mL/hr
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Chapter 32: Anesthesia
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44564
Sample Questions
Q1) A client's preanesthetic preparation for surgery in which general anesthesia will be administered includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)being admitted to the hospital the day prior to the surgery
B)withholding of food and fluids for at least 8 hours before the procedure
C)signing a form indicating informed consent for administration of anesthesia
D)taking regularly scheduled medications on the day of surgery with a minimal amount of water
E)limiting visitors to reduce stress and anxiety prior to surgery
Q2) A client is receiving postsurgical analgesia via epidural block.It is essential that the nurse monitor the client for which of these side effects?
A)bladder distention
B)headache
C)pressure necrosis
D)respiratory depression
Q3) Before surgery the nurse would do which of the following?
A)Administer preoperative medications as ordered.
B)Document what the client ate for dinner the night before.
C)Give the client water up until the time of surgery.
D)See that the client's family is available.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Surgery
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult client had a colon resection 8 days ago.The client experiences a gush of serosanguinous drainage from the wound,feels the abdominal incision "give," and calls the nurse.Viscera are protruding from the wound.Which of these actions must the nurse take FIRST?
A)Cover the viscera with sterile saline dressings.
B)Notify the surgeon of the situation.
C)Place the client on NPO,and begin preparation for emergency surgery.
D)Place the client in the semi-Fowler's position.
Q2) A client who has a history of angina is scheduled for a hernia repair tomorrow.Which of these nursing interventions is MOST likely to prevent postoperative complications for this client?
A)forcing fluids by mouth
B)careful monitoring of intravenous (IV)infusions
C)resuming food intake as soon as possible
D)maintaining a high Fowler's position
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Chapter 34: Oncology
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In teaching the client about reducing the risk factors for the development of cancer,the nurse is aware that which of the following foods can have the greatest increase for the risk of cancer?
A)broccoli and cauliflower
B)fried foods
C)chicken and fish
D)cake and bread
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who undergoes a radical mastectomy for localized breast cancer.What type of surgery does this represent?
A)curative
B)elective
C)palliative
D)reconstructive
Q3) Surgery that reestablishes function or improves cosmetic effect is classified as:
A)curative
B)elective
C)palliative
D)reconstructive
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Chapter 35: Respiratory System
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When blood within the pulmonary capillary network is oxygenated,it travels to the heart via which structure?
A)aorta
B)atrium
C)pulmonary vein
D)ventricle
Q2) A client has a tension pneumothorax,and a thoracotomy tube is placed.What is the MOST appropriate nursing goal for the client?
A)The client will complete an entire course of antibiotic therapy.
B)The client will have a respiratory rate and color within normal limits and clear breath sounds upon auscultation.
C)The client will increase activity without complaint or fatigue.
D)The client will verbalize an understanding of the disease process and its treatments.
Q3) What is the purpose of the alveolar macrophages?
A)to produce mucus
B)to produce surfactant
C)to remove foreign particles
D)to release histamine
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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is bradycardia usually treated?
A)administration of atropine
B)administration of epinephrine
C)beta blockers,calcium channel blockers,and digitalis
D)Valsalva's maneuvers
Q2) During a client's routine physical examination,an aortic aneurysm is detected.The client is distressed and says,"I know this is wrong because I don't have any symptoms or problems!" Which of these responses should the nurse make?
A)"Aneurysms are caused by a hereditary lack of elastin in the arterial wall.Have any relatives had this problem?"
B)"Aneurysms are often asymptomatic until they start leaking or pressing on other structures."
C)"Didn't you see the X-ray pictures of the aneurysm?"
D)"Why don't you seek a second opinion?"
Q3) Which area of the heart is MOST commonly affected by myocardial infarction (MI)?
A)left atrium
B)left ventricle
C)right atrium
D)right ventricle
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about clients who have pernicious anemia is TRUE?
A)They must avoid fish and whole grains.
B)They must be monitored closely for symptoms of gastric carcinoma.
C)They must increase vitamin C intake.
D)They must receive intramuscular injections of iron dextran.
Q2) When aplastic anemia occurs without a known cause,it is thought to be due to:
A)genetic factors
B)chemical exposure
C)occult bleeding
D)transient infection
Q3) Parenteral administration of iron should be administered by which route?
A)intradermal
B)intramuscular Z-track
C)intravenous
D)subcutaneous
Q4) Persons with which type of blood are considered universal donors?
A)A
B)B
C)AB D)O
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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client develops peritonitis as a result of a ruptured appendix.The nurse should carefully monitor the client for evidence of which of these complications?
A)hypothermia
B)thrombosis
C)hepatitis
D)paralytic ileus
Q2) Which of these statements about Crohn's disease is TRUE?
A)It affects only the mucosal lining of the bowel.
B)It is treated by colostomy.
C)It can occur anywhere in the small and large intestines.
D)It can produce 15 to 20 liquid stools containing blood daily.
Q3) When do clients who have gastric ulcers MOST often complain of pain?
A)2 hours before meals
B)1 to 2 hours after eating
C)3 to 4 hours after eating
D)whenever the stomach is empty
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Chapter 39: Urinary System
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a client about peritoneal dialysis,the nurse should stress:
A)eating a meal before each session
B)having family members or friends available for assistance
C)staying in bed for the duration of the procedure
D)strict aseptic care of the catheter site
Q2) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)is administered to a client to treat urolithiasis.Which of these aspects should the client anticipate following this treatment?
A)IV fluids for 72 hours
B)remaining NPO for 12 hours
C)normal skin appearance
D)bloody urine for 1 to 2 days
Q3) With the progression of chronic renal disease,fluid restrictions are necessary.Which fluid intake schedule would be MOST appropriate for each 24-hour period?
A)250 cc days;200 cc evenings;350 cc nights
B)300 cc days;250 cc evenings;250 cc nights
C)400 cc days;200 cc evenings;200 cc nights
D)500 cc days;200 cc evenings;100 cc nights
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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a closed below-the-knee amputation of the left leg.The nurse recognizes the client will be scheduled to spend some time in the prone position each day to:
A)increase muscle strength of the thigh muscles
B)prevent contractures of the hip
C)prevent edema of the stump
D)prevent thrombophlebitis
Q2) When assessing a client who has a musculoskeletal disorder,on which of these aspects should the nurse focus?
A)client's medical history
B)client's specific muscle or joint disorders
C)client's functional abilities
D)client's basic bone structure
Q3) Teaching for the client with gout would include avoiding foods high in purine,such as:
A)asparagus
B)broccoli
C)spinach
D)potatoes
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Chapter 41: Neurological System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is being evaluated every 8 hours using the Glasgow Coma Scale.At 0800 the client's score is 13,and at 1600 the client's score is 10.Which action should the nurse take NEXT?
A)Bring the score to the health care provider's attention during rounds.
B)Call the health care provider now.
C)Chart the score and repeat the evaluation as ordered.
D)Chart the score and repeat the evaluation in 4 hours.
Q2) Clients with a left-sided stroke tend to have which deficit?
A)agnosia
B)aphasia
C)anosognosia
D)unilateral neglect
Q3) Which of these is the MOST important indicator of a change in the client's neurological status?
A)level of consciousness
B)pupil reaction
C)headaches
D)muscle strength
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43
Chapter 42: Sensory System
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client is seeing a specialist who evaluates hearing and determines the extent and types of hearing loss.The nurse explains the client will be seeing:
A)an audiologist
B)a hearing-aid specialist
C)an ophthalmologist
D)an otolaryngologist
Q2) A client with cataracts has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury related to difficulty in processing visual images and altered depth perception.The MOST appropriate goal for this diagnosis is that the client will:
A)accept wearing glasses or contact lenses
B)avoid activities associated with increased potential for injury
C)demonstrate improved ability to process visual stimuli and communicate visual limitations
D)discuss the impact of vision loss on lifestyle
Q3) Functions of the middle ear include:
A)creation of cerumen
B)equilibrium
C)pressure equalization
D)closure of the oval window
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Chapter 43: Endocrine System
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44575
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention would be included in the care of a client who has hyperparathyroidism?
A)Encourage the client to alternate rest and activity periods.
B)Place the client in a room with reverse ventilation.
C)Encourage the client to increase ambulation each day.
D)Encourage the family to seek hospice care for the client.
Q2) Which complication of insulin therapy is characterized by a rapid decrease in serum glucose,usually at night,causing the release of glucose-elevating hormones and an elevated glucose level in the morning,which may be inadvertently treated with an increased insulin dose?
A)dawn phenomenon
B)insulin resistance
C)lipodystrophy
D)Somogyi phenomenon
Q3) The diet of the client with Addison's disease should emphasize which aspect?
A)avoiding canned and other prepared foods
B)choosing foods high in sodium and low in potassium with adequate calories
C)restricting caloric intake
D)restricting sodium and increasing fluid intake
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Reproductive System
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44576
Sample Questions
Q1) A vacuum constriction device (VCD)may be used to promote an erection by:
A)strengthening penile vasculature
B)increasing blood supply to the penis
C)reducing inhibitions
D)enhancing sensation
Q2) A client has a breast tumor 3 centimeters in diameter,with no lymph nodes involved or metastases evident.The client's cancer would be considered to be in which stage?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q3) Initial treatment for clients who have premenstrual syndrome (PMS)includes which of the following?
A)analgesics such as acetaminophen,naproxen,ibuprofen
B)psychological evaluation
C)supplemental estrogen
D)tranquilizers and antidepressants
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Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44577
Sample Questions
Q1) The destructive,inflammatory changes occurring in the tertiary stage of syphilis involves which organ system?
A)multiple
B)central nervous
C)epidermal
D)reproductive
Q2) In addition to the use of nonbarrier methods of birth control,which factor has led to the dramatic increase of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)in the last two decades?
A)asymptomatic disease carriers
B)careful reporting of STIs
C)antibiotic-resistant organisms
D)more sex education programs in schools
Q3) When a client is diagnosed with gonorrhea,which treatment regime is considered MOST effective?
A)a single dose of ciprofloxacin,followed by a 7-day course of oral doxycycline
B)a single injection of penicillin G benzathine
C)doxycycline 100 mg orally,twice daily for 7 days
D)treatment of symptoms only with acyclovir
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Chapter 46: Integumentary System
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57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44578
Sample Questions
Q1) What is considered the BEST treatment for a port-wine angioma?
A)surgical debridement
B)cosmetics
C)radical surgical excision
D)skin grafting over the lesion
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who has an ulceration appearing as a deep crater with undermining of adjacent tissue loss.The nurse recognizes that this client has which type of ulcer present?
A)stage I
B)stage II
C)stage III
D)stage IV
Q3) Which of these statements about exfoliative dermatitis is TRUE?
A)Overwhelming systemic infections or massive loss of body fluids and electrolytes can cause death.
B)Severe pruritus can be controlled with oral antihistamines.
C)Skin inflammation will gradually heal.
D)Systemic symptoms include weight loss.
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Chapter 47: Immune System
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early signs and symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)dementia complex include:
A)psychotic behaviors
B)depression
C)hyperactive behavior
D)inability to concentrate
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).The nurse understands that the therapeutic management of the client does NOT include:
A)using antiretrovirals to prolong the HIV stage
B)preventing opportunistic infections from occurring
C)radiation to inhibit HIV replication
D)medications to treat opportunistic infections
Q3) How is active acquired immunity obtained?
A)by antibodies produced by another human being or an animal
B)by exposure to a disease itself or its vaccine
C)by innate resistance to illnesses specific to other species
D)by transmission of antibodies through fetal circulation
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Chapter 48: Mental Illness
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44580
Sample Questions
Q1) Most hospital readmissions for the client who has schizophrenia are the result of which of these factors?
A)injuries caused by self-harming behaviors
B)noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen
C)side effects of pharmacological therapies
D)worsening of symptoms despite medication and outpatient therapy
Q2) A client who has ADHD experiences impaired social interaction with the peer group.Which of these nursing interventions is appropriate?
A)Allow the client to work out problems with peers unless help is requested.
B)Explain to the child those behaviors that are acceptable.
C)Limit the child's interactions with peers.
D)Reinforce any change in behavior.
Q3) A client who is taking lithium to control bipolar disorder should understand the need to have which of these done monthly?
A)complete blood count,bleeding time,and hepatic function studies
B)lithium tolerance test
C)serum lithium level
D)24-hour urine creatine clearance test
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During detoxification,an alcoholic client becomes hypoglycemic.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Administer dextrose.
B)Encourage the client to eat to minimize withdrawal symptoms.
C)Give the client thiamine prior to dextrose administration.
D)Administer oxygen before starting an IV.
Q2) When a person has prolonged abuse of opioids,which of these conditions may occur?
A)cirrhosis
B)esophageal varices
C)fecal impaction
D)overdose
Q3) Which of these terms describes the recurrent use of a substance where abstinence does not cause withdrawal symptoms?
A)abuse
B)dependence
C)intoxication
D)tolerance
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Chapter 50: The Older Adult
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44582
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these musculoskeletal changes is a result of normal aging?
A)Joints develop degenerative changes.
B)Coordination and endurance are unaffected.
C)Muscle mass and elasticity remain unchanged.
D)Osteoporosis is to be expected.
Q2) Which of these changes in the gastrointestinal system of an older adult client place the client at risk?
A)Alcohol is absorbed faster.
B)Saliva production decreases.
C)Gag reflex is less effective.
D)Liver size increases.
Q3) Which of these neurological changes are part of normal aging?
A)Intellect remains unchanged,but capacity for learning is diminished.
B)Need for sleep decreases.
C)Short-term memory may be somewhat diminished without changes in long-term memory.
D)Cerebral blood flow and oxygen use increases.
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Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44583
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are benefits of urgent care centers? (Select all that apply. )
A)easily gained appointments
B)fast paced,similar to a hospital emergency department
C)provides care for clients with severe trauma
D)serves the needs of a growing community
E)accepts all forms of insurance
F)is designed to treat acute illnesses and injuries
Q2) When providing client teaching in the ambulatory care setting,the nurse customizes education to the client's:
A)gender,educational level,and cognitive status
B)culture,educational level,and socioeconomic status
C)age,socioeconomic status,and availability
D)age,educational level,and health status
Q3) The criteria for a client to be admitted to a restorative care program is:
A)mentally stable,able to learn,able to sit supported for at least 1 hour
B)medically stable,able to learn,able to sit supported for at least 1 hour
C)mentally stable,able to learn,willing to participate
D)medically stable,unable to perform activities of daily living (ADLs),willing to participate
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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Initial treatment of simple strains and sprains uses the RICE formula,which means
A)regular iced compression of extremity
B)radiological examination,isotonic movement,continuity,and edema
C)rest,ice,compression,and elevation
D)restrain,immobilize,comply with treatment,and eliminate causative factors
Q2) A small child has had vomiting and diarrhea for more than 12 hours,unrelieved by the medication prescribed by a pediatrician earlier in the day.The child is listless but awake and refuses anything offered by mouth;vital signs are normal.In which of these triage categories would the child be placed?
A)emergent
B)priority
C)nonurgent
D)urgent
Q3) The initial focus of the nursing management of clients who are in shock is to:
A)identify the type of shock
B)initiate appropriate interventions quickly
C)discuss client status with the family
D)administer medications as ordered
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54
Chapter 53: Integration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing the health records of assigned clients.The nurse plans care knowing that which client is likely at risk for the development of third-spacing? (Select all that apply. )
A)the client with cirrhosis
B)the client with diabetes mellitus
C)the client with sepsis
D)the client with renal failure
E)the client with pneumonia
Q2) A client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is a 60-year-old male who is 30 pounds overweight.He is married and has two grown children.What are several things the nurse who is assigned to this client needs to do before developing a plan of care for the client?
Q3) A 60-year-old male client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is 30 pounds overweight and knows very little about his condition.What are the major points that the nurse should include in this client's teaching plan?
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Chapter 54: Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon examination,a normal umbilical cord should contain:
A)one artery and one vein
B)one artery and two veins
C)two arteries and one vein
D)two arteries and two veins
Q2) Which of the following factors place a woman at risk of nutritional inadequacy during pregnancy?
A)adolescence
B)anxiety
C)multiple gestation
D)previous pregnancies
Q3) When a primigravida comes for her 20-week prenatal visit,which of these presumptive signs of pregnancy would the nurse expect the client to report?
A)Chadwick's sign
B)Hegar's sign
C)lightening
D)quickening
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Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent fetal infection,a cesarean birth is required for the pregnant client who is infected with which of these organisms at the time of delivery?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)herpes genitalis
C)rubella
D)toxoplasmosis
Q2) When a client undergoing treatment for severe preeclampsia complains of epigastric pain,the nurse should notify her health care provider immediately because the client is:
A)having a reaction to her medications
B)reverting to mild preeclampsia
C)going into labor
D)moving into eclampsia
Q3) Women who desire future fertility and who have an unruptured ectopic pregnancy less than 4 centimeters in size are candidates for which of these procedures?
A)methotrexate therapy
B)salpingostomy
C)laparotomy and salpingectomy
D)vacuum extraction of the products of conception
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Page 57
Chapter 56: The Birth Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a client receiving a secondary oxytocin infusion to induce or augment labor,the nurse would NOT discontinue the oxytocin in which of these situations?
A)when contractions occur every 2 minutes
B)when the fetal monitor shows no variability
C)when the contractions are of 40 to 60 seconds' duration
D)when the fetal monitor shows prolonged decelerations
Q2) A gravida II para I client who is at 40 weeks' gestation states,"I don't think I'm ready for labor.Last time,I experienced 'lightening' 2 weeks before now." Which of these responses should the nurse make?
A)"Lightening is an unpredictable sign of impending labor."
B)"Lightening may not occur in a multigravida until labor has started."
C)"You may be correct.It always occurs about 2 weeks before labor begins."
D)"You must have miscalculated your due date."
Q3) Which of these is considered to be a danger sign that may occur during labor?
A)fetal heart rate between 120 and 160 bpm with no late or variable decelerations
B)maternal temperature above 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
C)contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
D)flecks of vernix in amniotic fluid
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Postpartum Care
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client who is breastfeeding asks the nurse when her menstrual period will return.Which of these responses should the nurse make?
A)"It will largely depend on your breastfeeding pattern."
B)"It will occur within 3 months after the birth."
C)"It usually returns by 120 days postpartum."
D)"It usually takes place between 27 days and 2 months after birth."
Q2) Which of these descriptions of lochia is expected of a mother who had a cesarean delivery?
A)contains more clots than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
B)has rubra for a longer period of time than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
C)is greater in amount than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
D)is smaller in amount than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
Q3) To decrease the incidence of thromboembolic conditions in a postpartum client,the nurse would encourage the client to:
A)ambulate early and frequently after delivery
B)cross legs when sitting
C)rest in bed as much as possible
D)massage extremities and apply heat if discomfort or pain occurs
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Newborn Care
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn's birth weight is placed at the 8th percentile for week of gestation.According to the accepted classification range,the newborn would be classified in which of these categories?
A)appropriate for gestational age (AGA)
B)large for gestational age (LGA)
C)premature
D)small for gestational age (SGA)
Q2) When a nurse cares for a newborn who has spina bifida occulta,which of these signs would be evident?
A)a dimple at the base of the spine on the infant's back
B)a mild degree of paralysis of the lower extremities with no visible defect
C)paralysis of the lower extremities,including lack of sphincter control
D)progressive hydrocephalus and a protrusion of the meninges through the skin of the back
Q3) What is the most common cause of kernicterus in the newborn?
A)breastfeeding
B)dehydration
C)Rh incompatibility
D)transfusion reaction
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591
Sample Questions
Q1) When a 4-year-old client is being examined,which of these measurements would the nurse take?
A)length,head circumference,and weight
B)height,weight,and circumferences of head,chest,and abdomen
C)height and weight only
D)length and chest circumference only
Q2) For a child under age 2,which of these measurements should the nurse include in the child's assessment data?
A)height,weight,and chest circumference
B)length,weight,and circumferences of head,chest,and abdomen
C)length and weight only
D)circumferences of head,chest,and abdomen only
Q3) What is the MOST common and reliable method of calculating drug dosages for children?
A)according to body surface area
B)according to age
C)according to weight
D)according to standardized dosing
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Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant exhibiting a bluish discoloration surrounding the mouth would be experiencing:
A)acrocyanosis
B)central cyanosis
C)circumoral cyanosis
D)peripheral cyanosis
Q2) To improve ambulation in a child who has cerebral palsy,which of the following surgical interventions is indicated?
A)closure of the defect
B)lengthening of the Achilles tendon and releasing the hamstrings
C)placement of a VP shunt to relieve cerebral pressure
D)placing affected limbs in flexible casts
Q3) What is the earliest manifestation of cystic fibrosis?
A)circumoral cyanosis
B)insufficient lecithin level
C)meconium ileus
D)salty-tasting skin
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Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a child diagnosed with cellulitis,which area of the body would the nurse expect to be affected?
A)face and lower extremities
B)hands and arms
C)torso only
D)upper extremities only
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding suicide is TRUE?
A)Adolescents who have attempted suicide once are at greatest risk for attempting it again.
B)Boys attempt suicide more often than girls.
C)Girls commit suicide five times more often than do boys.
D)Suicide often has no warning signs.
Q3) Why is obesity in children difficult to treat successfully?
A)Favorite foods often are not nutritionally complete.
B)Children lack the support of caregivers who understand nutrition and food preparation.
C)Most overweight children are not interested in losing weight.
D)Physical exercise is difficult.
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