Nursing Practice
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Nursing Practice is a comprehensive course that focuses on equipping students with the essential skills, knowledge, and professional attitudes needed to deliver safe, ethical, and evidence-based patient care across various healthcare settings. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on clinical experiences, students learn critical concepts such as health assessment, patient advocacy, care planning, and interprofessional collaboration. The course emphasizes holistic care, patient safety, and culturally competent practices, preparing students to respond effectively to the complex needs of individuals, families, and communities within diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
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110 Chapters
1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about home administration of insulin to treat diabetes mellitus. As part of the teaching,the patient and nurse identify goals to maintain specific blood glucose ranges. This represents which aspect of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Evaluation
C) Implementation
D) Planning
Answer: D
Q2) A patient has been receiving intravenous penicillin for pneumonia for several days and begins to complain of generalized itching. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezing and notes a temperature of 38.5°C (101°F). Which is the correct action by the nurse?
A) Administer the next dose and continue to evaluate the patient's symptoms.
B) Ask the prescriber if an antihistamine can be given to relieve the itching.
C) Contact the prescriber to request an order for a chest radiograph.
D) Hold the next dose and notify the prescriber of the symptoms.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
Q2) Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease."
B) "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown."
C) "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans."
D) "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult male patient is 1 day postoperative from a total hip replacement. On a pain scale of 0 to 10,with 10 being the greatest pain,the patient reports a pain level of 10. Which medication would be most appropriate for the nurse to administer to this patient?
A) 60 mg morphine sulfate PO
B) 75 mg meperidine [Demerol] intramuscularly
C) 6 mg morphine sulfate intravenously
D) Fentanyl [Duragesic] patch 50 mcg transdermally
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?
A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given
B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead
C) Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available
D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:
A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.
B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.
C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.
Q2) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
C) It gives the receptor a new function.
D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep,and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects
B) Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia
C) Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine
D) Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a drug that induces P-glycoprotein. The nurse will explain that this drug may cause which effect on other drugs?
A) Decreased absorption in the intestines
B) Decreased elimination through the kidneys
C) Increased brain exposure
D) Increased fetal absorption
Q3) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?
A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.
B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.
C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.
D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a drug. Upon reading the medication guide,the nurse notes that the drug has been linked to symptoms of Parkinson's disease in some patients. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to report these symptoms, which are known to be teratogenic effects.
B) Observe the patient closely for such symptoms and prepare to treat them if needed.
C) Request an order to evaluate the patient's genetic predisposition to this effect.
D) Warn the patient about these effects and provide reassurance that this is expected.
Q2) A patient is taking a drug that has known toxic side effects. What will the nurse do?
A) Discontinue the drug at the first signs of toxicity.
B) Ensure that complete blood counts are ordered periodically.
C) Monitor the function of all organs potentially affected by the drug.
D) Teach the patient how to treat the symptoms if they develop.
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs,is awake and alert,and reports mild pain. What does the nurse recognize about this patient?
A) This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug.
B) This patient has developed a reaction known as tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug.
C) This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect.
D) This patient produces higher than normal hepatic enzymes as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?
A) Passivity and flat affect
B) Diarrhea and salivation
C) A shrill cry and irritability
D) Restless sleep and seizures
Q2) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus
B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers
C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy
D) To resume the medication in her second trimester
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11
Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
Q2) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication,the nurse will assess the infant for:
A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.
B) shorter period of the drug's effects.
C) signs of drug toxicity.
D) unusual CNS effects.
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on changes in hepatic function in older adult patients,which adjustment should the nurse expect for oral medications that undergo extensive first pass metabolism?
A) A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule.
B) The interval between doses should be increased.
C) No change is necessary; metabolism will not be affected.
D) The interval between doses should be reduced.
Q2) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?
A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.
B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.
C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.
D) Request an order for renal function tests.
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist drug. What does the nurse understand about this drug?
A) It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes.
B) It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process.
C) It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes.
D) It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic processes.
Q2) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?
A) Blocking transmitter reuptake
B) Inhibiting transmitter release
C) Interfering with transmitter storage
D) Preventing activation of receptors
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress,the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q2) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth,constipation,and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm Hg. The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist,who will order:
A) activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent.
B) an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors.
C) an antipsychotic medication to treat the patient's central nervous system symptoms. D) ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.
Q2) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV
B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]
C) An acetylcholinesterase activator
D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine,including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?
A) Donepezil [Aricept]
B) Edrophonium [Reversol]
C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]
D) Physostigmine
Q2) Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]?
A) "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs."
B) "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier."
C) "It does not cause any side effects."
D) "It can be given by all routes."
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hepatitis requires endotracheal intubation. Which agent does the nurse expect to be administered to facilitate this procedure?
A) Atropine
B) Cisatracurium [Nimbex]
C) Rocuronium [Zemuron]
D) Vecuronium [Norcuron]
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:
A) has fallen asleep.
B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.
C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.
D) may need mechanical ventilation.
Q3) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?
A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication
B) Muscles in the lower extremities
C) Muscles controlling the glottis
D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine is administered to a patient who has been experiencing hypotensive episodes. Other than an increase in blood pressure,which indicator would the nurse use to evaluate a successful response?
A) Decrease in pulse
B) Increase in urine output
C) Weight gain
D) Improved gastric motility
Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse why epinephrine,and not other adrenergic agonists,is used to treat anaphylactic shock. What will the nurse tell the student?
A) "Epinephrine is the only adrenergic agonist that may be given parenterally."
B) "Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors."
C) "Other adrenergic agonists have more severe adverse effects and are not safe in the doses needed to treat anaphylaxis."
D) "Other adrenergic agonists have little or no effects on beta<sub>2</sub>-adrenergic receptors."
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing phentolamine [OraVerse] with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Phentolamine can be used to block both epinephrine- and norepinephrine-mediated vasoconstriction."
B) "Phentolamine can be used to prevent tissue necrosis after extravasation of drugs such as norepinephrine."
C) "Phentolamine is a competitive adrenergic agonist that acts selectively on alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors."
D) "Side effects of phentolamine may include tachycardia and hypotension."
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors on arterioles and veins."
B) "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure."
C) "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output."
D) "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions,adverse effects,and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?
A) "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia."
B) "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects."
C) "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication."
D) "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."
Q2) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has begun taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy,especially when standing up from a sitting position. What will the nurse recommend?
A) An alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication
B) Discussing amantadine with the prescriber
C) Increasing salt and water intake
D) Taking a drug holiday
Q2) A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa [Dopar] for years will now receive levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The nurse explains the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
A) "Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the central nervous system."
B) "Carbidopa reduces the incidence of nausea and vomiting."
C) "Combination products reduce peripheral cardiovascular side effects."
D) "Combination products cause fewer dyskinesias and decreased psychosis."
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store,which is three blocks from their home. That evening,the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?
A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.
B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.
C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.
D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.
Q2) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse?
A) Confusion and memory impairment
B) Dizziness and headache
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.
B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.
C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.
D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.
Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis is to begin treatment with interferon beta. The patient comes to the clinic to have pretreatment laboratory tests. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about these tests?
A) "After the first year of treatment, I will need once yearly blood work."
B) "I will need to have lab tests done every 3 months for the first year."
C) "If my liver function tests are abnormal, I will need to stop using this drug."
D) "These lab tests will measure liver and bone marrow function."
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg three times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL,and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine
B) Extended-release phenytoin
C) An increased dose of phenytoin
D) Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine
Q2) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for epilepsy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should brush and floss my teeth regularly."
B) "Once therapeutic blood levels are reached, they are easy to maintain."
C) "I can consume alcohol in moderation while taking this drug."
D) "Rashes are a common side effect but are not serious."
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26
Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
Q2) Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons? (Select all that apply.)
A) To enhance absorption
B) To reduce the risk of toxicity
C) To prevent bradycardia
D) To shorten the duration of action
E) To prolong anesthesia
Q3) A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent?
A) "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours."
B) "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection."
C) "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug."
D) "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."
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Page 28
Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
Q2) A patient in the postanesthesia recovery unit received ketamine [Ketalar] for right open reduction internal fixation surgery. What drug would be beneficial as a premedication to help minimize adverse reactions?
A) Methohexital [Brevital]
B) Sevoflurane [Ultane]
C) Atropine [Sal-Tropine]
D) Diazepam [Valium]
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29
Chapter 28:
Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8421
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic four times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.
B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.
C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.
D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.
Q2) A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative patient. Which are appropriate routine nursing actions when giving this drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) Counting respirations before and after giving the medication
B) Encouraging physical activity and offering increased fluids
C) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure closely for hypertension
D) Palpating the patient's lower abdomen every 4 to 6 hours
E) Requesting an order for methylnaltrexone [Relistor] to prevent constipation
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer is admitted to the hospital. The nurse obtains an admission history and learns that the patient has been taking oxycodone and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)for a year. The patient reports a recent increase in the intensity of pain,along with a new pain described as "burning" and "shooting." The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will order:
A) a combination opioid/NSAID and an adjunctive analgesic.
B) a fentanyl transdermal patch, acetaminophen, and an adjunctive analgesic.
C) an increase in the oxycodone and NSAID doses.
D) intramuscular morphine sulfate and acetaminophen.
Q2) An 8-year-old child with advanced cancer has an order for oxycodone [OxyContin] PO,PRN for moderate to severe pain. The nurse notes that the child is constantly playing computer games and repeatedly denies having pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the oxycodone at regular intervals around the clock.
B) Contact the provider to discuss using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).
C) Reassure the child's parent that the child will ask for pain medication as needed.
D) Tell the child to notify the nurse when pain is present.
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches? (Select all that apply.)
A) Divalproex [Depakote]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Timolol
D) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
E) Acebutolol
Q2) A patient who has a history of asthma experiences three or four migraine headaches each month. The patient uses sumatriptan [Imitrex] as an abortive medication and has developed medication overuse headaches. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to prevent migraines. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which preventive medication with the provider?
A) Botulinum toxin
B) Meperidine [Demerol]
C) Timolol
D) Topiramate [Topamax]
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA)drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?
A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist
B) Giving an anticholinergic medication
C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug
Q2) A patient with schizophrenia receives a dose of risperidone [Risperdal Consta] IM. The nurse teaching this patient about this medication will make which statement?
A) "You will experience therapeutic levels of this drug in 1 to 2 weeks."
B) "You will need injections of this drug every 6 weeks."
C) "You will need to take an oral antipsychotic drug for 3 weeks."
D) "You probably will not have extrapyramidal symptoms with this drug."
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33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning,the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities,has difficulty falling asleep,and has lost 5 pounds. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Grief and sadness
B) Hypomania
C) Major depression
D) Situational depression
Q2) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well,participates in usual activities,and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.
B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.
C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.
D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8426
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium [Valproate] has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted.
B) Contact the provider to report these findings.
C) Give the patient information about weight loss.
D) Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level,the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium level
B) Complete blood count with differential
C) Liver function tests
D) Renal function tests
E) Serum potassium
F) Thyroid function tests
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8427
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:
A) does not depress the central nervous system.
B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.
C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.
D) potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.
Q2) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired of being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?
A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."
B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."
C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."
D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8428
Sample Questions
Q1) During an admission history,a patient reports a frequent need to return to a room multiple times to make sure an iron or other appliance is unplugged. What does the nurse understand about this patient's behavior?
A) It helps the patient reduce anxiety about causing a fire.
B) It usually is treated with alprazolam [Xanax].
C) It seems perfectly normal to the patient.
D) It will best respond to deep brain stimulation.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension,poor concentration,and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Buspirone [Buspar]
D) Paroxetine [Paxil]
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8429
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent thinks a school-aged child has ADHD. The nurse asks the parent to describe the child's behaviors. Which behaviors are characteristic of ADHD? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anxiety
B) Compulsivity
C) Hyperactivity
D) Inattention
E) Impulsivity
Q2) A child will begin taking methylphenidate [Ritalin] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Important baseline information about this patient will include:
A) results of an electrocardiogram (ECG).
B) family history of psychosis.
C) height and weight.
D) renal function.
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38
Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8430
Sample Questions
Q1) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."
B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."
C) "Preexisting psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."
D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8431
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:
A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."
B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."
C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."
D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."
Q2) During a health history,the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8432
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."
B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."
C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."
D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."
Q2) A patient reports a desire to stop smoking and asks what is available without a prescription to help with smoking cessation. The nurse tells the patient that which method is best?
A) Abrupt discontinuation to shorten withdrawal effects
B) Nicotine replacement and 1-800-QUITNOW
C) Nicotine replacement products tapered over a year
D) Support groups without the use of medications
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433
Sample Questions
Q1) A college student is brought to the emergency department by a group of friends who report that they had been dancing at a nightclub when their friend collapsed. The patient has a temperature of 105°F and shows jaw clenching and confusion. The nurse will expect to administer which medication?
A) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
B) Haloperidol [Haldol]
C) Methadone
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of dizziness,lightheadedness,and a pulsating headache. Further assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg and palpitations. The patient's friends tell the nurse that they were experimenting with "poppers." The nurse will expect to administer which medication?
A) Diazepam [Valium]
B) Haloperidol [Haldol]
C) Methylene blue and supplemental oxygen
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8434
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
B) Oxygen saturation of 90%
C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Q2) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Elevated creatinine clearance
B) Elevated serum potassium level
C) Normal blood glucose level
D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8435
Sample Questions
Q1) Which order for potassium (KCl)would the nurse question? (Select all that apply.)
A) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids
B) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis
D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water
E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push
Q2) A nurse is caring for a child whose respirations are shallow and marked by a prolonged expiratory phase. The nurse auscultates wheezes and poor air movement bilaterally. The child's respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute,and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8436
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
Q2) A patient is taking a beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:
A) cardiac afterload.
B) cardiac preload.
C) myocardial contractility.
D) venous return.
Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8437
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who is not taking any other medications is prescribed aliskiren [Tekturna],a direct renin inhibitor (DRI). The nurse reviews medication information with the patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If I get pregnant, I should stop taking this drug by the second trimester."
B) "If I take this drug with a high-fat meal, it will be more effective."
C) "I should restrict my potassium intake while taking this drug."
D) "I should take this medication 1 hour before sitting down to a meal."
Q2) A prescriber orders ramipril [Altace] for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."
B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."
C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."
D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8438
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate:
A) administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and atropine and glucagon.
B) assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion.
C) placing the patient in an upright position.
D) preparing to administer a beta blocker.
Q2) A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?
A) "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine."
B) "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will need to take this drug once a day."
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8439
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) fluid retention.
C) rebound hypertension.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon?
A) "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster."
B) "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators."
C) "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given."
D) "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8440
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is in labor. The woman reports having had mild preeclampsia with a previous pregnancy. The nurse notes that the woman has a blood pressure of 168/102 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug?
A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
B) Hydralazine (Apresoline)
C) Magnesium sulfate
D) Sodium nitroprusside
Q2) A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet.
B) Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests.
C) Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm.
D) Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8441
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure who has been given digoxin [Lanoxin] daily for a week complains of nausea. Before giving the next dose,the nurse will:
A) assess the heart rate (HR) and give the dose if the HR is greater than 60 beats per minute.
B) contact the provider to report digoxin toxicity.
C) request an order for a decreased dose of digoxin.
D) review the serum electrolyte values and withhold the dose if the potassium level is greater than 3.5 mEq/L.
Q2) A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A) Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level.
B) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity.
D) Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8442
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications,the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG)and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement.
B) Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose.
C) Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose.
D) Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.
Q2) A nurse is discussing adenosine with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adenosine acts by suppressing action potentials in the SA and AV nodes."
B) "Adenosine can be used to prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome."
C) "Adenosine has a half-life that lasts only a few seconds and must be given intravenously."
D) "Adenosine is not effective for treating atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias."
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8443
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing discharge teaching instructions for a patient taking cholestyramine [Questran]. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take warfarin [Coumadin] 1 hour before my medicine."
B) "I will increase the fluids and fiber in my diet."
C) "I can take cholestyramine with my hydrochlorothiazide."
D) "I will take digoxin 4 hours after taking the cholestyramine."
Q2) A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor. Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?
A) "Statins reduce the risk of morbidity from influenza."
B) "You should come into the clinic for liver enzymes in 1 month."
C) "Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with normal LDL levels."
D) "You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods."
Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?
A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels
B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke
C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients
D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8444
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes nitroglycerine to treat stable angina reports having erectile dysfunction and states that he plans to ask his primary provider for a prescription for tadalafil [Cialis]. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "You may take these two drugs together safely as long as you take them as directed."
B) "You should not take tadalafil and nitroglycerine within 30 to 60 minutes of each other."
C) "You should discuss another anti-angina medication with your provider."
D) "You should avoid sexual activity since this increases oxygen demands on the heart."
Q2) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
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53
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8445
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin,the nurse will notify the provider and:
A) administer the dose as ordered.
B) request an order to decrease the dose.
C) request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).
D) request an order to increase the dose.
Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg,which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?
A) Aspirin
B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]
C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]
D) Warfarin [Coumadin]
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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8446
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has undergone a PCI,and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months,along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do?
A) Question the need for heparin.
B) Request an order for a beta blocker.
C) Request an order for aspirin.
D) Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.
Q2) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin,a beta blocker,and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m²,and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) An antihypertensive medication
B) Counseling about a weight loss diet
C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor
D) High-dose statin therapy
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
Q2) A patient with epistaxis and a history of hemophilia A is admitted to the unit and is scheduled for replacement therapy. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]
B) Aminocaproic acid [Amicar]
C) Desmopressin [Stimate]
D) Factor VIII
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital. The patient's initial laboratory results reveal megaloblastic anemia. The patient complains of tingling of the hands and appears confused. The nurse suspects what in this patient?
A) Celiac disease
B) Folic acid deficiency
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include:
A) determining the cause of the anemia.
B) giving intravenous iron dextran.
C) giving oral carbonyl iron [Feosol].
D) teaching about dietary iron.
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL,up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) adding an antihypertensive drug.
B) discontinuing the ESA.
C) giving heparin.
D) increasing the dose of the ESA.
Q2) A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will:
A) reduce the ESA dose.
B) discontinue the ESA.
C) order a blood transfusion.
D) order heparin.
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug?
A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
B) In the morning and at 4:00 PM
C) Once daily at bedtime
D) After meals and at bedtime
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes recently became pregnant. The nurse plans a blood glucose testing schedule for her. What is the recommended monitoring schedule?
A) Before each meal and before bed
B) In the morning for a fasting level and at 4:00 PM for the peak level
C) Six or seven times a day
D) Three times a day, along with urine glucose testing
Q3) A patient with type 1 diabetes who takes insulin reports taking propranolol for hypertension. Why is the nurse concerned?
A) The beta blocker can cause insulin resistance.
B) Using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis.
C) Propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking.
D) The beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451
Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.
B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.
C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.
D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine [Synthroid]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider."
B) "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."
C) "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the Synthroid."
D) "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of Synthroid."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8452
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale,dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
D) Water intoxication
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent,the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.
C) Notify the prescriber.
D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.
Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8453
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily."
B) "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop."
C) "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses."
D) "When I am sick, I should take three times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."
Q2) A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider?
A) Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen
B) Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity
C) Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily
D) Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an afternoon dose
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT)for menopause asks the nurse why she can't take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy,has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease,and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:
A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.
B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.
C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).
D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."
B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."
C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."
D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8455
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC)and reports breast tenderness,edema,and occasional nausea. What will the nurse recommend?
A) The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin.
B) The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control.
C) The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen.
D) The patient should take the OC at bedtime to reduce side effects.
Q2) A patient who is taking a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several weeks,the patient tells the nurse she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What will the nurse tell her to do?
A) Change to condoms instead of oral contraceptives.
B) Discuss an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen.
C) Request a decreased dose of carbamazepine.
D) Stop taking the oral contraceptive immediately.
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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8456
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple?
A) "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months."
B) "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications."
C) "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders."
D) "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."
Q2) A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant,thick,and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication?
A) Clomiphene [Clomid]
B) Estrogen
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Progesterone
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term,and her labor is being induced with oxytocin [Pitocin]. The patient is having increased frequency,duration,and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs?
A) Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes.
B) Individual contractions last 2 minutes.
C) Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions.
D) Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.
Q2) A patient has received two doses of dinoprostone [Prepidil] to initiate labor. It has been 6 hours since the last dose. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4 cm,but contractions are diminishing in intensity and frequency. What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer oxytocin.
B) Monitor urine output.
C) Prepare for a cesarean section.
D) Watch closely for fetal distress.
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66
Chapter 65: Androgens
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a female patient with anemia who has had cancer chemotherapy and who will begin treatment with testosterone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Facial hair may develop with this drug but will go away over time."
B) "I may experience an increase in breast size while taking this drug."
C) "Testosterone may increase my high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and reduce my low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol."
D) "Testosterone treats anemia by stimulating the synthesis of a renal hormone."
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. What statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not shower or swim for at least 5 to 6 hours after application."
B) "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied."
C) "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days."
D) "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results."
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who will receive tadalafil [Cialis] for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports that he expects to have sexual activity three or four times a week. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) Adverse effects of tadalafil resolve more quickly than those of sildenafil.
B) There is an increased risk of priapism with frequent sexual activity.
C) He should take tadalafil 30 to 60 minutes before sexual activity.
D) He should talk to his provider about daily dosing of tadalafil.
Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:
A) doxazosin [Cardura].
B) finasteride [Proscar].
C) silodosin [Rapaflo].
D) a transurethral prostatectomy.
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone organ transplantation. Because the sequence of amino acids in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)molecules of the donor is different from that of the patient,the nurse will expect to administer which class of drugs?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Immune globulins
D) Immunosuppressants
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461
Sample Questions
Q1) An immigrant child is in the clinic for MMR vaccination. The nurse learns that the child has recently received an immune globulin injection for a viral infection,currently has an upper respiratory infection with a temperature of 100°F,and has a recent history of thrombocytopenia,which has resolved. What does the nurse tell the child's parents?
A) "The vaccine is contraindicated in this child because of the history of thrombocytopenia."
B) "The child should be brought back for the vaccine when the temperature is back to normal."
C) "The child is at increased risk of developing autism from this vaccine."
D) "The vaccine must be postponed for 3 months after administration of the immune globulin."
Q2) An otherwise healthy child receives a varicella virus vaccine. Three weeks later the parent calls to report that the child has a mild case of chickenpox and wonders how this could happen after the vaccination. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) "A varicella-like rash can occur after the vaccine is given."
B) "The vaccine was probably ineffective."
C) "This represents a serious vaccine side effect."
D) "Give the child aspirin to treat any fever that may occur."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient after recent renal transplantation. The patient is taking sirolimus [Rapamune] to prevent transplant rejection. What other medications would the nurse expect the patient to be taking?
A) Rifampin and ketoconazole
B) Carbamazepine and phenobarbital
C) Cyclosporine and glucocorticoids
D) Amphotericin B and erythromycin
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],a glucocorticoid,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine."
B) "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly."
C) "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections."
D) "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."
Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?
A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]
B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]
C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]
D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has ordered intravenous promethazine [Phenergan] for an adult patient postoperatively to prevent nausea and vomiting (N/V). What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug at a rate of 25 mg/min or more to achieve maximum effects.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using dimenhydrinate [Dramamine] instead.
C) Ensure that the IV is infusing freely through a large-bore needle.
D) Monitor the patient closely for cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q2) An 18-month-old child develops an urticarial reaction after a transfusion. The prescriber orders intravenous promethazine [Phenergan]. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the medication as ordered.
B) Monitor the child for bronchoconstriction.
C) Question the order.
D) Request an order to give the drug orally.
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has arthritis is breast-feeding her infant and asks the nurse if it is safe to take NSAIDs while nursing. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) NSAIDs are safe to take while breast-feeding.
B) NSAIDs are not safe, even in small amounts.
C) She should take only COX-2 inhibitors while breast-feeding.
D) She should request a prescription for narcotic analgesics.
Q2) A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."
B) "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."
C) "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."
D) "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."
Q3) A patient who takes daily doses of aspirin is scheduled for surgery next week. The nurse should advise the patient to:
A) continue to use aspirin as scheduled.
B) reduce the aspirin dosage by half until after surgery.
C) stop using aspirin immediately.
D) stop using aspirin 3 days before surgery.
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is a long-distance runner has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis in both knees and will begin glucocorticoid therapy. When teaching the patient about the medication,the nurse will include what information?
A) "By reducing inflammation, this drug will slow the progression of your disease."
B) "Glucocorticoids are used as adjunctive therapy during acute flare-ups."
C) "Oral glucocorticoids cause less toxicity than intra-articular injections."
D) "You may resume running when the pain and swelling improve."
Q2) A patient is about to receive prednisone for tendonitis. The nurse reviewing the chart would be concerned about which of the following in the patient's medical history?
A) Asthma and allergic rhinitis
B) Gouty arthritis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Systemic fungal infection
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan)with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug?
A) "Angioedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild."
B) "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed."
C) "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion."
D) "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely."
Q2) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test.
A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:
A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept.
B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.
C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis.
D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who will begin taking colchicine for gout reports taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs,simvastatin,amoxicillin,and digoxin. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic while this patient is taking colchicine.
B) Notify the provider about the potential risk of muscle injury when simvastatin is taken with colchicine.
C) Request an order for cardiorespiratory monitoring, because the patient is taking digoxin.
D) Suggest that the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) be withdrawn during colchicine therapy.
Q2) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."
B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."
C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."
D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are approved for treating osteoporosis in men? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alendronate [Fosamax]
B) Calcitonin
C) Raloxifene [Evista]
D) Teriparatide [Forteo]
E) Zoledronate [Reclast]
Q2) A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive."
B) "The drug may not be stable after 28 days."
C) "You are probably not giving the drug accurately."
D) "You should be giving the drug more frequently.
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with stable COPD is prescribed a bronchodilator medication. Which type of bronchodilator is preferred for this patient?
A) A long-acting inhaled beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
B) An oral beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
C) A short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) An intravenous methylxanthine
Q2) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with asthma is referred to an asthma clinic. The patient reports daily symptoms requiring short-acting beta<sub>2</sub>-agonist treatments for relief. The patient has used oral glucocorticoids three times in the past 3 months and reports awakening at night with symptoms about once a week. The patient's forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<sub>1</sub>)is 75% of predicted values. The nurse will expect this patient to be started on which regimen?
A) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA with a SABA as needed
B) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and a SABA as needed
C) Daily medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA combination
D) No daily medications; just a SABA as needed
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."
B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."
C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."
D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."
Q2) A patient asks the nurse what type of medications would be most effective for treating seasonal and perennial rhinitis. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) Pseudoephedrine [Sudafed]
B) Fluticasone propionate [Fluticasone]
C) Loratadine [Claritin]
D) Intranasal cromolyn sodium [Atrovent]
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which non-pharmaceutical intervention can be used to reduce symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoiding late-night meals
B) Consuming a glass of wine with meals
C) Drinking soft drinks
D) Losing weight
E) Stopping smoking
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Cimetidine [Tagamet]
B) Esomeprazole [Nexium]
C) Ranitidine [Zantac]
D) Sucralfate [Carafate]
Q3) When metronidazole [Flagyl] is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen,the patient must be instructed to do what?
A) Avoid any alcoholic beverages
B) Avoid foods containing tyramine
C) Take the drug on an empty stomach
D) Take the drug with food
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Laxatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking senna [Senokot] for several days,and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom?
A) It indicates that renal failure has occurred.
B) It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.
C) It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.
D) It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.
Q2) A 6-year-old child has frequent constipation. The nurse provides teaching after the parent asks the nurse why the provider recommended using laxatives only when needed. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Children who take laxatives regularly can become dehydrated."
B) "Chronic laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances."
C) "Frequent use of laxatives can cause diverticulitis."
D) "The normal reflex to defecate can be inhibited with overuse of laxatives."
Q3) Which laxatives may be used safely in infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Castor oil
B) Docusate sodium (Colace)
C) Glycerin suppositories
D) Lactulose
E) Milk of magnesia
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Page 81
Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8473
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy asks the nurse to recommend nonpharmaceutical therapies for morning sickness. What will the nurse suggest?
A) Avoiding fatty and spicy foods
B) Consuming extra clear fluids
C) Eating three meals daily
D) Taking foods later in the day
Q2) Which types of drugs are used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Aminosalicylates
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Immunomodulators
D) Opioid antidiarrheals
E) Sulfonamide antibiotics
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8474
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult who has been self-medicating,using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level,complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking:
A) niacin.
B) thiamine.
C) riboflavin.
D) pyridoxine.
Q2) A patient with hyperlipidemia has been told by the provider to take extra niacin. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) increase servings of poultry, fish, and cereals.
B) take nicotinamide supplements.
C) take nicotinic acid supplements.
D) take tryptophan supplements.
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse working in the newborn nursery how vitamin K deficiency is treated in newborns. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A newborn infant's intestinal flora will produce vitamin K."
B) "If coagulation studies show a bleeding disorder, oral menadione is given."
C) "Menadione is given intravenously shortly after delivery."
D) "Phytonadione is given intramuscularly immediately after delivery."
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Page 83
Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8475
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has received a prescription for orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss asks the nurse how the drug works. The nurse will tell the patient that orlistat works by:
A) altering how the body stores energy.
B) reducing the body's absorption of fats.
C) increasing the body's metabolic rate.
D) suppressing the appetite.
Q2) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."
B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."
C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."
D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent campaign,initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC),to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals,has what as one of its objectives?
A) Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside
B) Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines
C) Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics
D) Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse to clarify the differences between the mechanisms of spontaneous mutation and conjugation in acquired resistance of microbes. What will the nurse say?
A) Conjugation results in a gradual increase in resistance.
B) Conjugation results in random changes in the microbe's DNA.
C) Spontaneous mutation leads to resistance to only one antimicrobial agent.
D) Spontaneous mutation can transfer DNA from one organism to another.
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin.
B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases.
C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions.
D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
Q3) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].
B) ampicillin.
C) nafcillin.
D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].
Page 86
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefotaxime
D) Ceftaroline
Q2) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?
A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.
B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.
D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.
Q3) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
87
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children,tetracyclines should not be given:
A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.
B) to patients taking calcium supplements.
C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.
D) with dairy products or antacids.
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."
B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."
C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."
Q3) A patient who is taking doxycycline for a serious infection contacts the nurse to report anal itching. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) adding an antihistamine to the patient's drug regimen.
B) ordering liver function tests to test for hepatotoxicity.
C) prescribing an antifungal drug to treat a superinfection.
D) testing the patient for a C. difficile secondary infection.
Page 88
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to:
A) discontinue the gentamicin.
B) obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given
C) give an analgesic to control headache discomfort.
D) obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.
Q2) A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for a gentamicin peak level.
B) Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber.
C) Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation.
D) Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.
Q3) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely? (Select all that apply.)
A) A 6-day-old newborn
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A woman breast-feeding an infant
E) An elderly patient with renal disease
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever,pallor,and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed: A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
B) kernicterus.
C) hepatotoxicity.
D) hemolytic anemia.
Q2) A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient,the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient.
B) Obtain frequent blood glucose determinations while giving TMP/SMZ.
C) Suggest that the patient take a potassium supplement while taking TMP/SMZ.
D) Tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will:
A) begin a 2-week course of antibiotics.
B) evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract.
C) initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics.
D) treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.
Q2) A young,nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection is experiencing dysuria,urinary urgency and frequency,and suprapubic pain of 3 days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of urine. The nurse caring for this patient knows that which treatment is most effective?
A) A 14-day course of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid [Augmentin]
B) A 7-day course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
C) A single dose of fosfomycin [Monurol]
D) A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to begin treatment with isoniazid. The nurse learns that the patient also takes phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) increasing the phenytoin dose.
B) reducing the isoniazid dose.
C) monitoring isoniazid levels.
D) monitoring phenytoin levels.
Q2) A healthcare worker who is asymptomatic has a screening TST result of 10 mm of induration during a pre-employment physical. What will the nurse reading this test tell the patient?
A) "This is a negative test, so you are cleared for employment."
B) "You have latent TB and will need to take isoniazid for 6 to 9 months."
C) "You need to have a chest radiograph and a sputum culture."
D) "You will begin taking a four-drug regimen to treat tuberculosis."
Q3) Which patient(s)should be tested for latent TB? (Select all that apply.)
A) A day care employee
B) A worker in a mycobacteriology laboratory
C) A patient with cardiovascular disease
D) A patient with diabetes mellitus
E) An immigrant from a country where TB is prevalent
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug,the nurse reviews the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli. The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
B) Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain.
C) Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products.
D) Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids.
Q2) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bacitracin
B) Daptomycin
C) Ofloxacin
D) Polymyxin B
E) Rifampin
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485
Sample Questions
Q1) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous voriconazole [Vfend]. Shortly after the infusion starts,the patient tells the nurse,"Colors look different,and the light hurts my eyes." What will the nurse do?
A) Observe the patient closely for the development of hallucinations.
B) Reassure the patient that these effects will subside in about 30 minutes.
C) Stop the infusion and notify the provider of CNS toxicity.
D) Tell the patient that this is an irreversible effect of the drug.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications?
A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
B) Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
C) Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
D) Morphine sulphate [Morphine] and acetaminophen ]Tylenol]
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94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8486
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has lamivudine-resistant hepatitis B and has been taking entecavir [Baraclude] for 2 years. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has recommended taking the drug for another year. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Entecavir can reverse fibrosis and cirrhosis of the liver when taken long term."
B) "It is necessary to continue taking entecavir to avoid withdrawal symptoms."
C) "The drug will be given until the infection is completely eradicated."
D) "You will need to continue taking entecavir to prevent lactic acidosis and hepatotoxicity."
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why pegylated interferon alfa is used instead of regular interferon for a patient with hepatitis C. The nurse will tell the student that pegylated interferon:
A) decreases the need for additional medications.
B) has fewer adverse effects than interferon.
C) is administered less frequently than interferon.
D) may be given orally to increase ease of use.
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Page 95
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?
A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily
B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection
C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E
D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine [Retrovir]. Before administering the medication,the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?
A) Ketones in the urine and blood
B) Serum immunoglobulin levels
C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
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96
Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
Q2) A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia,vagina,and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication?
A) Acyclovir [Zovirax]
B) Azithromycin [Zithromax]
C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
D) Tinidazole [Tindamax]
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an abrasion,and the nurse is preparing to cleanse the area with iodine. Which preparation will the nurse use?
A) Free elemental iodine
B) Iodine solution
C) Iodine tincture
D) Povidone iodine
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. What action is most important for reducing the transmission of this disease?
A) Disinfecting the bedpan with an antiseptic solution
B) Using antibacterial hand soap when washing the hands
C) Using an alcohol-based hand rub after each patient contact
D) Wearing gloves while caring for the patient
Q3) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
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98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count,which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?
A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)
B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)
C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)
D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)
Q2) A patient is being treated for trichinosis. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has ordered prednisone in addition to the anthelmintic medication. The nurse will tell this patient that this is ordered to:
A) prevent swelling of the legs caused by larval infestation of lymphatics.
B) reduce the inflammation that occurs during larval migration.
C) suppress the patient's allergic response to the anthelmintic agent.
D) suppress dermatologic symptoms that occur with heavy infestation.
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who frequently travels to Africa has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The patient asks the nurse about medications to prevent relapse. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The form of malaria that you have does not relapse after a clinical cure has been achieved."
B) "Until you are no longer traveling to Africa, relapse drugs will be postponed."
C) "Using mosquito netting and DEET when you travel will prevent relapse."
D) "You will be given prophylactic medications when you travel to prevent relapse."
Q2) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."
C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."
D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."
Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip,and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures,the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?
A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Miltefosine [Impavido]
D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a class at a community center on communicable diseases. Which statement by a member of the class best demonstrates understanding of the epidemiology of head lice?
A) "All socioeconomic groups are at risk for this infestation."
B) "Head lice affect only people in crowded environments."
C) "Head lice are transmitted only by direct person-to-person contact."
D) "The infestation can be acquired from house pets."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how to examine children in a day care center for pediculus humanus capitis (head lice). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this teaching?
A) "Adult lice are easily visible on the hair shaft."
B) "Children from lower socioeconomic families are more likely to have lice."
C) "I may observe hives, boils, and impetigo on the child's scalp if lice are present."
D) "I should be careful to prevent the lice from jumping into my hair."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F
D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis
Q2) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.
B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.
C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.
D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cancer treatment. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the characteristics of cancer cells?
A) "Cancer cells are characterized by unrestrained growth and division."
B) "Division of cancer cells is characteristically rapid."
C) "Malignant cells of solid tumors do not invade other tissues."
D) "Telomerase is an enzyme produced by cancer cells that promotes metastases."
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Page 103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects?
A) Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics
B) Antiemetics, vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, and glucocorticoids
C) Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine
D) Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q2) A patient on an oncology unit has been receiving ifosfamide [Ifex] for a few days. Before administering the next dose,the nurse reviews the patient's laboratory test results. Which finding would cause the nurse to hold the dose?
A) Elevated white blood cell count
B) Low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
C) Low levels of ketones in the urine
D) Microscopic hematuria
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospital oncology unit to receive cetuximab [Erbitux]. The nurse notes that the prescriber has not ordered any other medications. The nurse will contact the prescriber to request an order for which medication in order to minimize cetuximab's side effects?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Epinephrine
C) Ondansetron [Zofran]
D) Magnesium supplements
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcycla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?
A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.
B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.
C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.
D) Review renal function tests.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been using latanoprost [Xalatan] ophthalmic drops. The patient tells the nurse,"My eyes used to be greenish-brown,but now they're brown." What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect.
B) Report this toxic effect to the patient's provider.
C) Tell the patient that this indicates an increased risk of migraine headaches.
D) Tell the patient that this effect will reverse when the medication is withdrawn.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication."
B) "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops."
C) "I will need to instill two eye drops 3 times daily in each eye."
D) "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops."
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has actinic keratosis and is unable to tolerate the effects of fluorouracil. The provider orders the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac sodium [Solaraze] 3% gel. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
A) "Apply this medication three times daily for 30 days."
B) "Dry skin, itching, and rash are common local side effects."
C) "This drug has the same risk of GI side effects as with oral NSAIDs."
D) "You do not need to protect your skin from sunlight with diclofenac."
Q2) A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drugs with the provider?
A) Higher potency topical glucocorticoids
B) Topical keratolytic agents
C) Topical immunosuppressants
D) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-month-old child attends day care and is seen in a clinic for a second middle ear infection since age 8 months. The parent calls the nurse to report that after the third day of giving amoxicillin [Amoxil],the child continues to have a temperature of 39.5°C and is unable to sleep well because of pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Encourage the parent to discuss amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] with the child's provider.
B) Recommend that the parent consider removing the child from day care to reduce exposure to infection.
C) Schedule a clinic appointment for the child to clinic to receive ceftriaxone [Rocephin] IM.
D) Tell the parent the child will probably need surgery for tympanostomy tubes to reduce infections.
Q2) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.
B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.
C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.
D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:
A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.
B) improve fetal neuromotor development.
C) increase fetal weight and length.
D) increase lung development in the fetus.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a premature infant who has received poractant alfa [Curosurf] 2.5 mL/kg via direct intratracheal instillation to prevent respiratory distress syndrome. The infant demonstrated initial improvement after the dose but has begun to deteriorate. Which treatment will the nurse expect the neonatologist to order?
A) A repeat dose of 1.25 mL/kg of poractant alfa
B) A repeat dose of 2.5 mL/kg of poractant alfa
C) A repeat dose of 5.0 mL/kg of poractant alfa
D) Administration of high-dose glucocorticoids
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage,the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at a grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingestion of an unknown substance. The patient has been vomiting and complains of abdominal pain. The nurse observes that the patient's oral mucous membranes are dry,the heart rate is 88 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. The nurse will prepare to initially:
A) administer an antiemetic.
B) give activated charcoal.
C) infuse normal saline as an IV bolus.
D) obtain blood for toxicology testing.
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department,nurses will prepare to:
A) administer antidotes.
B) give chelating agents.
C) provide respiratory support.
D) start hemodialysis.
Q2) A member of a community disaster response team received the smallpox vaccine 3 weeks ago and sees a nurse for a follow-up appointment. The nurse examines the area and should expect to see a:
A) necrotic vesicle.
B) small area of scarification.
C) small, fluid-filled blister.
D) red bump.
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