Nursing Practice Exam
Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Nursing Practice is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and essential clinical skills required for professional nursing.
Emphasizing patient-centered care, the course covers critical topics such as health assessment, infection control, medication administration, and evidence-based interventions across diverse healthcare settings. Students engage in hands-on laboratory sessions and supervised clinical experiences, allowing them to develop competence in patient care, effective communication, ethical decision-making, and interprofessional collaboration. By the end of the course, students are prepared to deliver safe, compassionate, and holistic care, meeting the complex needs of individuals, families, and communities throughout the healthcare continuum.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order, with 1 as the first phase and 5 as the last phase.
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Assessment
D) Implementation
E) Human needs statement
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Q2) The patient is to receive oral guaifenesin (Mucinex) twice a day. Today, the nurse was busy and gave the medication 2 hours after the scheduled dose was due. What type of problem does this represent?
A) "Right time"
B) "Right dose"
C) "Right route"
D) "Right medication"
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs would be affected by the first-pass effect when administered?
A) Morphine given by IV push injection
B) Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixirs
D) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) tablets
E) Transdermal nicotine patches
F) Esomeprazole (Nexium) capsules
G) Penicillin given by IV piggyback infusion
Answer: C, D, F
Q2) A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. _______
Answer: 400 mg
A drug's half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 800 mg equals 400 mg.
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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that an elderly patient may experience a reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid. This change may result in which effect?
A) Delayed gastric emptying
B) Increased gastric acidity
C) Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
D) Altered absorption of some drugs
Answer: D
Q2) For accurate medication administration to pediatric patients, the nurse must take into account which criteria?
A) Organ maturity
B) Renal output
C) Body temperature
D) Height
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a busy night shift, a new nurse administered an unfamiliar medication without checking it in a drug handbook. Later that day, the patient had a severe reaction because he has renal problems, which was a contraindication to that drug. The nurse may be liable for which of these?
A) Medical negligence
B) Nursing negligence
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Autonomy
Q2) A patient has been selected as a potential recipient of an experimental drug for heart failure. The nurse knows that when informed consent has been obtained, it indicates which of these?
A) The patient has been informed that he or she will need to stay in the study until it ends.
B) The patient will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues.
C) The patient will receive the actual drug during the experiment.
D) The patient has had the study's purpose, procedures, and possible benefits as well as risks involved explained to him.
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When given a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, "I haven't seen that pill before. Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and verifies that it is listed. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It's listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it."
B) "Go ahead and take it, and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C) "It wouldn't be listed here if it were not ordered for you!"
D) "Let me check on the order first before you take it."
Q2) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q3) When taking a telephone order for a medication, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Verify the order with the charge nurse.
B) Call back the prescriber to review the order.
C) Repeat the order to the prescriber before hanging up the telephone.
D) Ask the pharmacist to double-check the order.
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who will be self-administering a metered-dose inhaler. Which statement reflects a measurable outcome?
A) The patient will know about self-administration of a metered-dose inhaler.
B) The patient will understand the principles of self-administration of a metered-dose inhaler.
C) The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of self-administering a metered-dose inhaler.
D) The patient will comprehend the proper technique of self-administering a metered-dose inhaler.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the teaching plan for a clinic patient who was seen for a sinus infection. Which of these outcomes reflect the affective domain of learning?
A) The patient will take the prescribed antibiotic for the full 14 days of the prescription.
B) The patient will demonstrate correct nasal spray self-administration.
C) The patient will list signs and symptoms that need to be reported immediately if they occur.
D) The patient will list measures to take to reduce allergy triggers at home.
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy. She shows the nurse a list of herbal remedies that she wants to buy so that she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Most herbal remedies are not harmful and are safe for use during pregnancy."
B) "Please read each label carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings."
C) "Keep in mind that products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of the herbal products."
D) "It's important to remember that herbal remedies do not have proven safety ratings for pregnant women."
Q2) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the best definition of eugenics?
A) The use of gene therapy to prevent disease
B) The development of new drugs based on gene therapy
C) Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D) The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q2) The nurse is explaining the Human Genome Project to colleagues. Which of these is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) The study of genetic diseases.
B) The study of genetic traits in humans.
C) The discovery new genetic diseases.
D) To describe the entire genome of a human being.
Q3) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?
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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
Q2) A patient says he prefers to chew rather than swallow his pills. One of the pills has the abbreviation SR behind the name of the medication. The nurse needs to remember which correct instruction regarding how to give this medication?
A) Break the tablet into halves or quarters.
B) Dissolve the tablet in a small amount of water before giving it.
C) Do not crush or break the tablet before administration.
D) Crush the tablet as needed to ease administration.
Q3) When adding medications to a bag of intravenous (IV) fluid, the nurse will use which method to mix the solution?
A) Shaking the bag or bottle vigorously
B) Turning the bag or bottle gently from side to side
C) Inverting the bag or bottle one time after injecting the medication
D) Allowing the IV solution to stand for 10 minutes to enhance even distribution of medication
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old field hockey player fell and twisted her ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic?
A) Synthetic opioid, such as meperidine (Demerol)
B) Opium alkaloid, such as morphine sulfate
C) Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCL (Narcan)
D) Nonopioid analgesics, such as indomethacin (Indocin)
Q2) A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The radiographs show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "It would be best for you not to take anything if you are planning to drive your truck."
B) "We will discuss with your doctor about taking an opioid because that would work best for your pain."
C) "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 1000 mg per day."
D) "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 3000 mg/day."
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Page 12
Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the effects of inhaled and intravenous general anesthesia, which includes which of these?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Increased glomerular filtration
C) CNS depression
D) Hypotension
E) Decreased hepatic clearance
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer dexmedetomidine (Precedex) to a patient. Which is an appropriate indication for dexmedetomidine?
A) Procedural sedation
B) Surgeries of short duration
C) Surgeries of long duration
D) Postoperative anxiety
E) Sedation of mechanically ventilated patients
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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13
Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) A musculoskeletal injury
B) Insomnia
C) Epilepsy
D) Agitation
Q2) A 50-year-old man who has been taking phenobarbital for 1 week is found very lethargic and unable to walk after eating out for dinner. His wife states that he has no other prescriptions and that he did not take an overdose-the correct number of pills is in the bottle. The nurse suspects that which of these may have happened?
A) He took a multivitamin.
B) He drank a glass of wine.
C) He took a dose of aspirin.
D) He developed an allergy to the drug.
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?
A) Eye examination
B) Height and weight
C) Liver function studies
D) Hearing test
Q2) A patient who started taking orlistat (Xenical) 1 month ago calls the clinic to report some "embarrassing" adverse effects. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of "not being able to control my bowel movements." Which statement is true about this situation?
A) These are expected adverse effects that will eventually diminish.
B) The patient will need to stop this drug immediately if these adverse effects are occurring.
C) The patient will need to increase her fat intake to prevent these adverse effects.
D) The patient will need to restrict fat intake to less than 30% of total calories to help reduce these adverse effects.
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking an AED for several years as part of his treatment for focal seizures. His wife has called because he ran out of medication this morning and wonders if he can go without it for a few days until she has a chance to go to the drugstore. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "He is taking another antiepileptic drug, so he can go without the medication for a week."
B) "Stopping this medication abruptly may cause withdrawal seizures. A refill is needed right away."
C) "He can temporarily increase the dosage of his other antiseizure medications until you get the refill."
D) "He can stop all medications because he has been treated for several years now."
Q2) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking selegiline (Eldepryl) for a few months, and recently the prescriber increased his dose to 20 mg/day. Today, during his office visit, he tells the nurse that he forgot and had a beer with dinner last evening, and "felt awful." What did the patient most likely experience?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Urinary discomfort
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
A) Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given.
B) Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
C) There are concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy.
D) Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the central nervous system.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil) for 6 months. The patient wants to go to a party and asks the nurse, "Will just one beer be a problem?" Which advice from the nurse is correct?
A) "You can drink beer as long as you have a designated driver."
B) "Now that you've been on the drug for 6 months, there will be no further dietary restrictions."
C) "If you begin to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, you'll need to stop drinking."
D) "You need to avoid all foods that contain tyramine, including beer, while taking this medication."
Q2) The nurse reads in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse interprets that the patient may have which disorder?
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Depression
C) Schizophrenia
D) Bipolar disorder
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18
Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old male patient stopped smoking 6 months ago. He tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders if he is ever going to feel "normal" again. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It's possible that these cravings will never stop."
B) "These cravings may persist for several months."
C) "The cravings tell us that you are still using nicotine."
D) "The cravings show that you are about to experience nicotine withdrawal."
Q2) A 29-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with the following symptoms: restlessness, hyperactive reflexes, talkativeness, confusion and periods of panic, and tachycardia. The nurse suspects that he may be experiencing the effects of taking which substance?
A) Opioids
B) Alcohol
C) Stimulants
D) Depressants
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is on a low-dose dobutamine drip for heart failure. She had been feeling better but now has a sense of tightness in her chest, palpitations, and a bit of anxiety. Her heart rate is up to 110 beats/min, and her blood pressure is 150/98 mm Hg (increased from previous readings of 86 beats/min and 120/80 mm Hg). What is the nurse's immediate concern for this patient?
A) She is experiencing normal adverse effects of dobutamine therapy.
B) She may be experiencing an allergic reaction to the dobutamine.
C) The medication may be causing a worsening of a preexisting cardiac disorder.
D) The dosage of the dobutamine needs to be increased to control the symptoms better.
Q2) An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
A) Volume restoration
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Decreased urine output
D) Reduced anxiety
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing Class II heart failure. The nurse expects which beta blocker to be ordered for this patient?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Carvedilol (Coreg)
C) Labetalol (Normodyne)
D) Esmolol (Brevibloc)
Q2) A patient is taking an alpha blocker as treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The nurse will monitor for which potential drug effect?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Decreased urine flow
D) Discolored urine
Q3) A patient is going home with a new prescription for the beta-blocker atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse will include which content when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) Never stop taking this medication abruptly.
B) The medication will be stopped once symptoms subside.
C) If adverse effects occur, stop taking the drug for 24 hours, and then resume.
D) Be watchful for first-dose hypotension.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing teaching regarding drug therapy to the husband of a woman with Alzheimer's disease. She was diagnosed 3 months ago, has mild memory loss, and will be receiving donepezil (Aricept). What is the drug's expected action?
A) Prevents memory loss in later stages
B) Reverses the course of Alzheimer's disease
C) Provides sedation to prevent agitation and restlessness
D) May help to improve the mood and decrease confusion
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with Sjögren's syndrome will be given cevimeline (Evoxac) for the treatment of xerostomia. The nurse will monitor for what therapeutic effect?
A) Reduction of salivation
B) Stimulation of salivation
C) Reduction of gastrointestinal peristalsis
D) Improvement of fine-motor control
Q3) A patient is receiving memantine (Namenda) 10 mg PO daily. The patient is unable to swallow pills, so an oral solution that contains 2 mg/mL is ordered. Identify how much will the patient receive per dose. _______
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q2) A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a procedure. The patient weighs 110 pounds; the medication is available in a strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will draw up into the syringe. _______
Q3) A patient has received an accidental overdose of intravenous atropine. Which drug will the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
C) Dicyclomine (Bentyl)
D) Physostigmine (Antilirium)
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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing drug therapy for hypertension. According to the JNC-8 guidelines, antihypertensive drug therapy for a newly diagnosed hypertensive African-American patient would most likely include which drug or drug classes?
A) Vasodilators alone
B) ACE inhibitors alone
C) Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretics
D) Beta blockers with thiazide diuretics
Q2) During a follow-up visit, the health care provider examines the fundus of the patient's eye. Afterward, the patient asks the nurse, "Why is he looking at my eyes when I have high blood pressure? It does not make sense to me!" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "We need to monitor for drug toxicity."
B) "We must watch for increased intraocular pressure."
C) "The provider is assessing for visual changes that may occur with drug therapy."
D) "The provider is making sure the treatment is effective over the long term."
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
A) "Watch for unusual weight loss."
B) "Monitor your pulse for increased heart rate."
C) "Use the hot tub and sauna at the gym as long as time is limited to 15 minutes."
D) "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia."
Q2) A calcium channel blocker (CCB) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instruction is correct?
A) Chew the tablet for faster release of the medication.
B) To increase the effect of the drug, take it with grapefruit juice.
C) If the adverse effects of chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea occur, discontinue the medication immediately.
D) A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur.
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Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Increased blood vessel dilation
C) Increased force of cardiac contractions
D) Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart
Q2) Which drug classes are considered first-line treatment for heart failure?
A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B) Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
C) Digoxin (cardiac glycoside)
D) Beta blockers
E) Nesiritide (Natrecor), the B-type natriuretic peptide
Q3) The nurse is reviewing discharge teaching for a patient who will be taking digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid which foods when taking the digoxin?
A) Leafy green vegetables
B) Dairy products
C) Grapefruit juice
D) Bran muffins
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action?
A) Blocking slow calcium channels
B) Prolonging action potential duration
C) Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0
D) Decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4
Q2) A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?
A) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
B) Atenolol (Tenormin)
C) Lidocaine
D) Adenosine (Adenocard)
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
A) Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication
B) Massaging the site after injection
C) Use the same area for each injection.
D) Using a 1/2- to 5/8-inch 25- to 27-gauge needle
Q2) A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin K
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Potassium chloride
Q3) A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A) Dysrhythmias
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Anaphylactic reactions
D) Internal and superficial bleeding
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48008
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with coronary artery disease asks the nurse about the "good cholesterol" laboratory values. The nurse knows that "good cholesterol" refers to which lipids?
A) Triglycerides
B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
C) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Q2) A patient who has recently started therapy on a statin drug asks the nurse how long it will take until he sees an effect on his serum cholesterol. Which statement would be the nurse's best response?
A) "Blood levels return to normal within a week of beginning therapy."
B) "It takes 6 to 8 weeks to see a change in cholesterol levels."
C) "It takes at least 6 months to see a change in cholesterol levels."
D) "You will need to take this medication for almost a year to see significant results."
Q3) The medication order reads, "Give simvastatin (Zocor) 30 mg daily at bedtime, PO." The medication is available in 20-mg tablets. Identify how many tablets the nurse will administer to the patient. _______
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Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is started on a diuretic for antihypertensive therapy. The nurse expects that a drug in which class is likely to be used initially?
A) Loop diuretics
B) Osmotic diuretics
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
Q2) When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status?
A) Blood pressure and pulse
B) Serum potassium and sodium levels
C) Intake, output, and daily weight
D) Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference
Q3) Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure?
A) Intravenously, through a filter
B) By rapid intravenous bolus
C) By mouth in a single morning dose
D) Through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in an urgent care center and is receiving treatment for mild hyponatremia after spending several hours doing gardening work in the heat of the day. The nurse expects that which drug therapy will be used to treat this condition?
A) Oral supplementation of fluids
B) Intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer's solution
C) Normal saline infusion, administered slowly
D) Oral administration of sodium chloride tablets
Q2) The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion?
A) A patient with a coagulation disorder
B) A patient with severe anemia
C) A patient who has lost a massive amount of blood after an accident
D) A patient who has a clotting-factor deficiency
Q3) When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?
A) Seizures
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Diarrhea
D) Muscle weakness
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic response?
A) Improved appetite
B) Increased serum albumin levels
C) Increased serum potassium levels
D) Decreased urinary output
Q2) An 8-year-old child has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism and is being treated with somatropin. In follow-up visits, the nurse will monitor for which expected outcome?
A) Increased growth
B) Decreased urinary output
C) Increased muscle strength
D) Increased height when the child reaches puberty
Q3) Which of these hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Oxytocin
D) Growth hormone (GH)
E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012
Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the laboratory values of a patient who is taking antithyroid drugs, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased glucose levels
B) Decreased white blood cell count
C) Increased red blood cell count
D) Increased platelet count
Q2) A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, receives a prescription for a thyroid hormone replacement drug. The nurse assesses for which potential contraindication to this drug?
A) Infection
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Liver disease
D) Recent myocardial infarction
Q3) A patient who is taking propylthiouracil (PTU) for hyperthyroidism wants to know how this medicine works. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A) It promotes the formation of thyroid hormone.
B) It slows down the formation of thyroid hormone.
C) It destroys overactive cells in the thyroid gland.
D) It inactivates already existing thyroid hormone in the bloodstream.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be taking U-500 insulin. The nurse is reviewing the use of this drug. Which of these statements are true?
A) U-500 insulin is 5 times stronger than U-100 insulin.
B) U-500 insulin syringes must be used when giving U-500 insulin.
C) U-500 syringes can deliver 500 units of insulin.
D) Each line on a U-500 syringe measures 5 units of U-500 insulin.
E) U-500 insulin delivers a smaller dose of insulin in a single injection.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a group of patients about self-administration of insulin. What content is important to include?
A) Patients need to use the injection site that is the most accessible.
B) If two different insulins are ordered, they need to be given in separate injections.
C) When mixing insulins, the cloudy (such as NPH) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first.
D) When mixing insulins, the clear (such as regular) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first.
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy has had surgery to correct an abdominal hernia. The nurse keeps in mind that which potential effect of this medication may have the most impact on the patient's recovery?
A) Hypotension
B) Delayed wound healing
C) Muscle weakness
D) Osteoporosis
Q2) A patient will be starting therapy with a corticosteroid. The nurse reviews the prescriber's orders and notes that an interaction may occur if the corticosteroid is taken with which of these drug classes?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Antibiotics
C) Opioid analgesics
D) Antidepressants
Q3) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
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35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education for a patient taking an oral contraceptive. Which drugs may cause interactions with oral contraceptives?
A) Cephalexin (Keflex)
B) Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
C) Warfarin (Coumadin)
D) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
E) Theophylline (Uniphyl)
Q2) A 51-year-old woman will be taking selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) as part of treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The nurse reviews potential contraindications, including which condition?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Breast cancer
C) Stress fractures
D) Venous thromboembolism
Q3) A patient is to receive medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) 700 mg weekly, intramuscularly, as part of palliative therapy for endometrial cancer. The medication is available in vials of 400 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up and administer with each injection. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection. _______
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient who will be starting androgen therapy. Which drug classes, if taken with androgens, may have an interaction with them?
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Nitrates
C) Beta blockers
D) Proton pump inhibitors
Q3) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur?
A) Heartburn
B) Bradycardia
C) Drowsiness
D) Palpitations
Q2) When teaching a patient who will be receiving antihistamines, the nurse will include which instructions?
A) "Antihistamines are generally safe to take with over-the-counter medications."
B) "Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption of the drug."
C) "Take the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal distress."
D) "Drink extra fluids if possible."
E) "Antihistamines may cause restlessness and disturbed sleep."
F) "Avoid activities that require alertness until you know how adverse effects are tolerated."
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018
Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating a patient's use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?
A) Notify the prescriber that the patient is unable to use the MDI.
B) Obtain an order for a peak flow meter.
C) Obtain an order for a spacer device.
D) Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally.
Q2) A patient has a metered-dose inhaler that contains 200 actuations ('puffs'), and it does not have a dose counter. He is to take two puffs two times a day. If he does not take any extra doses, identify how many days will this inhaler last at the prescribed dose.
Q3) A patient is taking a xanthine derivative as part of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives?
A) Diarrhea
B) Palpitations
C) Bradycardia
D) Drowsiness
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the medication orders for a patient who is taking penicillin, the nurse notes that the patient is also taking the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin). What possible effect may occur as the result of an interaction between these drugs?
A) The penicillin will cause an enhanced anticoagulant effect of the warfarin.
B) The penicillin will cause the anticoagulant effect of the warfarin to decrease.
C) The warfarin will reduce the anti-infective action of the penicillin.
D) The warfarin will increase the effectiveness of the penicillin.
Q2) During antibiotic therapy, the nurse will monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of these assessment findings may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Wheezing
B) Diarrhea
C) Shortness of breath
D) Swelling of the tongue
E) Itching
F) Black, hairy tongue
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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse checks the patient's laboratory work prior to administering a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 24 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?
A) Administer the vancomycin as ordered.
B) Hold the drug, and administer 4 hours later.
C) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
D) Repeat the test to verify results.
Q2) When a patient is on aminoglycoside therapy, the nurse will monitor the patient for which indicators of potential toxicity?
A) Fever
B) White blood cell count of 8000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) Tinnitus and dizziness
D) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient?
A) "Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine."
B) "Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting."
C) "Use a clean glove when applying this ointment."
D) "If your partner develops these lesions, then your partner can also use the medication."
E) "You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes."
F) "You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active."
Q2) The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct?
A) Infuse intravenous acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour.
B) Infuse intravenous acyclovir by rapid bolus.
C) Refrigerate intravenous acyclovir.
D) Restrict oral fluids during intravenous acyclovir therapy.
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42
Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?
A) Pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
B) Penicillins
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) Benzodiazepines
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antitubercular drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, "My urine is dark orange! What's wrong with me?" Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "You will need to stop the medication, and it will go away."
B) "It's possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked."
C) "This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked."
D) "This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let's review what to expect."
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has received a prescription for a 2-week course of antifungal suppositories for a vaginal yeast infection. She asks the nurse if there is an alternative to this medication, saying, "I don't want to do this for 2 weeks!" Which is a possibility in this situation?
A) A single dose of a vaginal antifungal cream.
B) A one-time infusion of amphotericin B.
C) A single dose of a fluconazole (Diflucan) oral tablet.
D) There is no better alternative to the suppositories.
Q2) A patient is taking nystatin (Mycostatin) oral lozenges to treat an oral candidiasis infection resulting from inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Chew the lozenges until they are completely dissolved."
B) "Let the lozenge dissolve slowly and completely in your mouth without chewing it."
C) "Rinse your mouth with water before taking the inhaler."
D) "Rinse your mouth with mouthwash after taking the inhaler."
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Chapter
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infestation with flukes (trematodes). The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?
A) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
B) Pyrantel (Pin-X)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
Q2) A patient is experiencing the exoerythrocytic phase of malaria. The nurse expects which drug to be used for this patient?
A) Quinine
B) Chloroquine (Aralen)
C) Mefloquine (Lariam)
D) Primaquine
Q3) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
A) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
B) Atovaquone (Mepron)
C) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
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Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the history of a patient who has a new order for a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) to treat tendonitis. Which conditions are contraindications to the use of NSAIDs?
A) Vitamin K deficiency
B) Arthralgia
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Documented aspirin allergy
E) Pericarditis
Q2) A patient is taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug indomethacin (Indocin) as treatment for pericarditis. The nurse will teach the patient to watch for which adverse effect?
A) Tachycardia
B) Nervousness
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Dizziness
Q3) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026
Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment of a patient who has brain cancer, the nurse hears the oncologist mention that the patient has reached the "nadir." The nurse knows that this term means which of these?
A) The lowest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
B) The highest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
C) The point at which the adverse effects of chemotherapy will stop.
D) The point at which the cytotoxic action against cancer cells is the highest.
Q2) Methotrexate is ordered for a patient with a malignant tumor, and the nurse is providing education about self-care after the chemotherapy is given. Which statements by the nurse are appropriate for the patient receiving methotrexate?
A) Report unusual bleeding or bruising.
B) Hair loss is not expected with this drug.
C) Prepare for hair loss.
D) Avoid areas with large crowds or gatherings.
E) Avoid foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture.
F) Restrict fluid intake to reduce nausea and vomiting.
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027
Sample Questions
Q1) Just before the second course of chemotherapy, the laboratory calls to report that the patient's neutrophil count is 450 cells/mm³. The nurse expects that the oncologist will follow which course of treatment?
A) Chemotherapy will continue as scheduled.
B) Chemotherapy will resume with a lowered dosage.
C) Chemotherapy will resume after a transfusion of neutrophils.
D) Chemotherapy will be withheld until the neutrophil count returns toward normal levels.
Q2) A patient is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) as part of treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of these is a possible adverse effect of doxorubicin?
A) Cardiotoxicity
B) Pulmonary toxicity
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Hyperuricemia
Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen) 5 mcg/kg/day. The patient weighs 198 pounds. Identify how many micrograms of medication this patient will receive each day.
Q2) During therapy with hematopoietic drugs, the nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effects?
A) Hypotension
B) Edema
C) Diarrhea
D) Black, tarry stools
E) Nausea and vomiting
F) Headache
Q3) Abatacept (Orencia) is prescribed for a patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication would need to be used cautiously if which condition is present?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hypertension
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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be on a tacrolimus (Prograf) infusion after receiving a liver transplant. The order reads, "Give 0.03 mg/kg/day as a continuous IV infusion." The patient weighs 159 pounds, and the medication injection solution is available in a 5-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this infusion. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
Q2) A patient who has had a recent organ transplant is taking sirolimus as part of the immunosuppressant therapy. Today, the patient realized that a dose was missed, and it is now time for the next dose. Which action is appropriate?
A) Just take the dose that is now due, not both doses.
B) Take the missed dose of sirolimus along with the next dose that is due.
C) Take half of the missed dose along with the current dose that is due.
D) Contact the transplant physician for instructions.
Q3) When administering cyclosporine, the nurse notes that allopurinol is also ordered for the patient. What is a potential result of this drug interaction?
A) Reduced adverse effects of the cyclosporine
B) Increased levels of cyclosporine and toxicity
C) Reduced uric acid levels
D) Reduced nephrotoxic effects of cyclosporine
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old man has received a series of immunizing drugs in preparation for a trip to a developing country. Within hours, his wife brings him to the emergency department because he has developed edema of the face, tongue, and throat and is having trouble breathing. The nurse suspects that, based on the patient's history and symptoms, he is experiencing which condition?
A) Serum sickness
B) Cross-sensitivity
C) Thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Adenopathy
Q2) A 12-month-old infant has received an MMR II (measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine), and her mother calls the clinic that afternoon to ask about helping her fussy infant to "feel better." What will the nurse suggest?
A) Apply an ice pack to the injection site.
B) Apply warm compresses to the injection site.
C) Observe the site for further swelling and redness.
D) Bring the infant in to the emergency department for an immediate examination.
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has excessive and painful gas. The nurse checks the patient's medication orders and prepares to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Famotidine (Pepcid)
B) Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta)
C) Calcium carbonate (Tums)
D) Simethicone (Mylicon)
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who will be taking a proton pump inhibitor as long-term therapy about potential adverse effects. Which statement is correct?
A) Proton pump inhibitors can cause diarrhea.
B) These drugs can cause nausea and anorexia.
C) Proton pump inhibitors cause drowsiness.
D) Long-term use of these drugs may contribute to osteoporosis.
Q3) A patient is receiving an aluminum-containing antacid. The nurse will inform the patient to watch for which possible adverse effect?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Nausea
D) Abdominal cramping
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient wants to prevent problems with constipation and asks the nurse for advice about which type of laxative is safe to use for this purpose. Which class of laxative is considered safe to use on a long-term basis?
A) Emollient laxatives
B) Bulk-forming laxatives
C) Hyperosmotic laxatives
D) Stimulant laxatives
Q2) The nurse is giving oral mineral oil as an ordered laxative dose. The nurse will take measures to prevent which potential problem that may occur with mineral oil?
A) Fecal impaction
B) Electrolyte imbalances
C) Lipid pneumonia
D) Esophageal blockage
Q3) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing severe morning sickness. She asks, "I've heard that ginger tablets may be a natural way to ease the nausea and vomiting. Is it okay to try them?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "They are a safe and natural remedy for nausea when you are pregnant."
B) "Go ahead and try them, but stop taking them once the nausea is relieved."
C) "Some health care providers do not recommend ginger during pregnancy. Let's check with your provider."
D) "You will need to wait until after the first trimester to try them."
Q2) A patient who has severe nausea and vomiting following a case of food poisoning comes to the urgent care center. When reviewing his medication history, the nurse notes that he has an allergy to procaine. The nurse would question an order for which antiemetic drug if ordered for this patient?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Promethazine (Phenergan)
C) Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol)
D) Palonosetron (Aloxi)
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Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving monthly injections of cyanocobalamin (Nascobal). The dose is 100 mcg/month IM. The medication is available in a strength of 1000 mcg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up into the syringe. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
Q2) The nurse will prepare to give which preparation to a newborn upon arrival in the nursery after delivery?
A) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
B) Vitamin D (calciferol)
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)
Q3) A patient accidentally took an overdose of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin), and the nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K as an antidote. Which statement about vitamin K is accurate?
A) The vitamin K dose will be given intramuscularly.
B) The patient will take oral doses of vitamin K after the initial injection.
C) The vitamin K cannot be given if the patient has renal disease.
D) The patient will be unresponsive to warfarin therapy for 1 week after the vitamin K is given.
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55
Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will teach a patient who is receiving oral iron supplements to watch for which expected adverse effects?
A) Palpitations
B) Drowsiness and dizziness
C) Black, tarry stools
D) Orange-red discoloration of the urine
Q2) A nurse is giving instructions to a patient who will be receiving oral iron supplements. Which instructions will be included in the teaching plan?
A) Take the iron tablets with milk or antacids.
B) Crush the pills as needed to help with swallowing.
C) Take the iron tablets with meals if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
D) If black tarry stools occur, report it to the doctor immediately.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient with iron-deficiency anemia about foods to increase iron intake. Which food may enhance the absorption of oral iron forms?
A) Milk
B) Yogurt
C) Antacids
D) Orange juice
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48036
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes will be receiving a nasogastric tube feeding for a few days. The nurse expects which type of formula to be used?
A) Jevity
B) Ensure Plus
C) Glucerna
D) Polycose
Q2) A patient with a partial bowel obstruction will be given a 1-week course of enteral tube feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which formulation is appropriate for this patient?
A) Vivonex Plus, an elemental formulation
B) Osmolite, a polymeric formulation
C) Glucerna, a formulation for impaired glucose tolerance
D) Polycose, a modular formulation that contains carbohydrates
Q3) When monitoring a patient who has been receiving peripheral parenteral nutrition for more than 3 weeks, the nurse will watch for which potential complication?
A) Diarrhea
B) Phlebitis
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypoglycemia
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48037
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has been taking isotretinoin (Amnesteem) for 3 months. During a follow-up appointment, which statement by the patient would be of highest concern to the nurse?
A) "I am using two forms of contraception while on this drug."
B) "I have been feeling rather down and lonely lately."
C) "I wish I didn't have to be on this medication."
D) "It's scary to know that this drug can cause birth defects."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient and notes that the patient has positive results for nasal colonization by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse anticipates an order for which medication?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Mupirocin (Bactroban)
C) Clindamycin (Cleocin T)
D) Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a new prescription for an antiglaucoma eyedrop. The next day, she calls the clinic and states, "The package insert says this medication might make my blue eyes turn brown! Is this true?" The nurse realizes that the patient has a prescription for which eye medication?
A) Latanoprost (Xalatan), a prostaglandin agonist
B) Dorzolamide (Trusopt), an ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C) Betaxolol (Betoptic), a direct-acting beta blocker
D) Pilocarpine (Pilocar), a direct-acting cholinergic
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient and notes an order for ophthalmic dexamethasone (Decadron) solution. The nurse knows that indications for ophthalmic dexamethasone include which conditions?
A) Uveitis
B) Allergic conditions
C) Removal of foreign bodies
D) Ocular infections
E) Glaucoma
F) Conjunctival inflammation
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a child with otitis media. Which statement about otitis media is correct?
A) It is treated with over-the-counter medications.
B) In children, it commonly follows a lower respiratory tract infection.
C) Common symptoms include pain, fever, malaise, and a sensation of fullness in the ears.
D) Hearing deficits are associated only with inner ear infections, not with otitis media.
Q2) When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose?
A) To reduce inflammation
B) To reduce production of cerumen
C) To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
D) To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal
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