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Nursing Physiology explores the fundamental principles of human body function as they relate to nursing practice. This course covers the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis, the physiological processes of major body systems including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, endocrine, and musculoskeletal systems and how these systems interact under normal and pathological conditions. Emphasis is placed on applying physiological concepts to clinical scenarios, enabling future nurses to understand patient symptoms, interpret laboratory data, anticipate complications, and make informed decisions about care. Understanding these physiological processes forms the foundation for effective, evidence-based nursing interventions and patient education.
Recommended Textbook
Vanders Human Physiology 15th Edition by Eric P. Widmaier Dr
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Q1) During breastfeeding,as the baby suckles,nerve signals are relayed from the mother's nipple to the mother's brain.The brain initiates the mother's pituitary gland to produce more prolactin (a hormone),which causes more milk to be ejected.This process of breastfeeding is an example of
A)negative feedback.
B)positive feedback.
C)feedforward regulation.
D)adaptation.
E)acclimatization.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the term for the developmental process that leads to specialized cell types?
A)Genomics
B)Differentiation
C)Homeostasis
D)Positive feedback
E)Acclimatization
Answer: B
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Q1) Which statement is FALSE with regard to proteins?
A)Their roles in the body include acting as enzymes,providing structural support,and signaling between cells.
B)They make up a greater percentage of body mass than carbohydrates do.
C)They are composed of nucleic acids.
D)They are macromolecules with subunits linked by polypeptide bonds.
E)They are polymers made up of amino acids.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the physiologically important atoms of the body readily form ions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Dehydration reactions among glucose monomers will produce polysaccharides such as glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The nucleotide triplet in tRNA that base-pairs with a complementary triplet in mRNA is called the codon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The term "metabolism"
A)is synonymous with the term "catabolism."
B)is synonymous with the term "anabolism."
C)refers to any chemical reaction that involves the production of energy.
D)is defined as the covalent modification and activation of a protein with binding sites for organic molecules.
E)refers to the synthesis and breakdown of organic molecules involved in cell structure and function.
Answer: E
Q3) All proteins exist in the cell for the same length of time before being destroyed. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The permeability of the plasma membrane to mineral ions
A)is not influenced by channels formed by proteins.
B)is the same in all cell types.
C)is affected by differences in electrical charge on the two sides of the membrane.
D)is zero in all living cells.
E)is only possible because of the hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer.
Q2) The higher the osmolarity of a solution,the higher the concentration of water in it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pinocytosis is a method by which molecules can leave cells whose membranes are impermeable to the molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most cells can perform pinocytosis,but only a few kinds can perform phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is a role of calcium ions in the second-messenger cascade involving phospholipase C,diacylglycerol,and inositol trisphosphate?
A)It splits and activates G-protein subunits.
B)It binds to the endoplasmic reticulum and causes the release of inositol trisphosphate.
C)It phosphorylates cell proteins.
D)It is the first messenger that binds to the integral membrane protein receptor.
E)Along with diacylglycerol,it activates protein kinase C.
Q2) Two cell types having the same type of receptor for a chemical messenger will always respond to that messenger in the same way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cyclic AMP activates allosteric proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorylation is a necessary component of any enzyme activation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is FALSE about interneurons?
A)They receive synaptic input from other neurons in the CNS.
B)They sum excitatory and inhibitory synaptic inputs.
C)They deliver synaptic input on other neurons.
D)They make synapses on effector organs in the PNS.
E)They can transmit information between afferent neurons and efferent neurons.
Q2) The heart is linked to the brain by neurons that belong to the
A)afferent division of the nervous system.
B)sympathetic nervous system.
C)parasympathetic nervous system.
D)somatic motor nervous system.
E)autonomic nervous system.
Q3) During which of the following phases is K permeability greater than at rest?
A)During the after-hyperpolarization phase of an AP
B)During vesicular release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron
C)During the repolarizing phase of an AP
D)During the depolarizating phase of an AP
E)None of these,K permeability is greatest at rest
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Q1) The precision of locating a somatosensory stimulus is greater in areas of the body that have small,overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large,non-overlapping fields.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements related to the "ON pathway" of the visual system is correct?
A)Bipolar cells fire action potentials only when bright light strikes the photoreceptors linked to them.
B)Bipolar cells spontaneously depolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells.
C)Bipolar cells hyperpolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells.
D)Glutamate receptors on bipolar cells are excitatory.
E)Only cones are associated with bipolar cells of the "ON pathway," rods are not.
Q3) Which of the following are classified as "mechanoreceptors"?
A)Cone cells in the eye
B)Taste buds on the tongue
C)Hair cells in the olfactory mucosa
D)Hair cells in the cochlea
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Q1) Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memory for all events that happened before a serious brain trauma such as a blow to the head.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most nearly correct sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command is
A)primary auditory cortex;Wernicke's area;Broca's area;supplementary motor cortex;primary motor cortex.
B)primary auditory cortex;Broca's area;supplementary motor cortex;Wernicke's area;primary motor cortex.
C)primary auditory cortex;Broca's area;Wernicke's area;supplementary motor cortex;primary motor cortex.
D)primary auditory cortex;Broca's area;Wernicke's area;primary motor cortex;supplementary motor cortex.
E)primary auditory cortex;Wernicke's area;Broca's area;primary motor cortex;supplementary motor cortex.
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Q1) When a muscle has been repeatedly contracting at a moderate intensity for an extended period of time (more than a few minutes),what is the primary source of ATP?
A)Transfer of energy and phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP
B)Glycolysis
C)Oxidative phosphorylation
D)Breakdown of myosin
E)Uptake of ATP from the blood plasma
Q2) Unlike humans,cows eat all day.They spend hours and hours chewing with very little rest from the task in a 24-hour period.The food they eat (grass)is difficult to break down,requiring a lot of chewing.Understanding the endurance required for these chewing muscles,what fiber type would you expect to be predominant in their chewing muscles?
A)Type 1
B)Type 2A
C)Type 2X
D)Type 3
E)There is not enough information to predict a dominant muscle fiber type
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Q1) Which of the following would occur if you touched a hot object with your right hand?
A)A stretch reflex would be triggered that would cause contraction of extensor muscles in the right arm.
B)A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by nociceptors that would stimulate contraction of flexor muscles in the right arm.
C)Reflex mechanisms would stimulate contraction of the extensor muscles of the right arm.
D)A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by stretch receptors that would inhibit contraction of extensor muscles of the right arm.
E)Nociceptors send pain information to the cerebral cortex,and descending activation of alpha motor neurons to extensor muscles would make you withdraw your right hand from the object.
Q2) Motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle fibers are subject to the summative effects of interneurons that release excitatory neurotransmitters and interneurons that release inhibitory neurotransmitters.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which does NOT apply to hormones?
A)They are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another via the bloodstream.
B)In some cases,the same chemical substances can also function as local regulators and/or neurotransmitters.
C)All hormones are derived from cholesterol.
D)They are secreted into the blood by ductless glands.
E)They are sometimes secreted by neural tissue.
Q2) Thyroid hormones exert a permissive effect on the actions of epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals.Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress?
A)Testing plasma levels of growth hormone
B)Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone
C)Testing plasma levels of dopamine
D)Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone
E)Testing plasma levels of cortisol
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Q1) What is described by the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart?
A)The relationship between end-diastolic volume and heart rate
B)The relationship between end-systolic volume and stroke volume
C)The relationship between length and tension in cardiac muscle cells
D)The relationship between sympathetic stimulation and stroke volume
E)The relationship between arterial blood pressure and stroke volume
Q2) You have a patient who is showing signs of edema (tissue swelling)all over his body.In addition to visible swelling in his hands,feet,and face,you can also see evidence of swelling around his organs when viewing his CAT scan images.Thinking about what you know about the factors that regulate fluid flow from the blood vessels.Which of the following causes of edema seem most likely?
A)Low red and white blood cell counts due to cancer in the bone marrow
B)Low plasma protein concentration due to liver failure
C)High blood solute concentration due to kidney failure
D)Low blood pressure due to severe dehydration
Q3) A blood clot is essentially an intricate network of interlacing strands of thrombin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If lung disease results in an arterial PO of 80 mmHg,the total amount of oxygen carried by the blood is 20% below normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is most responsible for detecting increases in H concentration?
A)The medulla of the brainstem
B)The peripheral chemoreceptors
C)The central chemoreceptors
D)The diaphragm
E)The dorsal respiratory group
Q3) You walk into your dorm room and find your roommate in the midst of anxiety-induced hyperventilation.You're unable to calm her down,so you call an ambulance.When she arrives at the ER,which of the following is her likely diagnosis?
A)Respiratory alkalosis
B)Respiratory acidosis
C)Increased blood PCO
D)Metabolic acidosis
E)Metabolic alkalosis
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Q1) The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is ________ plus the amount that is ________ minus the amount that is ________.
A)filtered;reabsorbed;secreted
B)reabsorbed;filtered;secreted
C)secreted;reabsorbed;filtered
D)filtered;secreted;reabsorbed
E)reabsorbed;secreted;filtered
Q2) A consequence of lack of vasopressin is excretion of sugar in the urine,which occurs in the condition diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parathyroid hormone influences Ca² and PO by stimulating their resorption from bone and stimulating their reabsorption in the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The filtered load of water in an average person is approximately 180 L/day.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which is TRUE regarding the secretion of HCl in the stomach?
A)H is actively transported into the gastric lumen by ATPase pumps in the mucosal membrane.
B)H is actively cotransported into the lumen by secondary active transporters coupled to K .
C)The pH of the blood leaving the area of the parietal cells is lower than the normal ECF value of 7.4.
D)H diffuses passively from mucosal epithelial cells into the lumen of the stomach,following Cl .
E)Cl and HCO are exchanged across the luminal membrane of epithelial cells via a passive transport protein.
Q2) Barry's children seem to be struggling often with constipation.To help prevent it,their pediatrician recommends
A)avoiding foods that can lead to accumulation of toxins in feces.
B)making the children sit on the toilet until they defecate at least once a day.
C)feeding the children foods with a high proportion of cellulose and other indigestible carbohydrates.
D)feeding the children foods with more lipid content.
E)avoiding milk,the children may be lactose intolerant.
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Q1) The metabolic events characteristic of the absorptive state can be attributed to the presence of large amounts of insulin in the blood,whereas the events of the postabsorptive state can be attributed largely to decreased insulin levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which accurately describes the metabolic actions of cortisol during fasting?
A)It decreases blood glucose by increasing the sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
B)It stimulates protein synthesis in muscle cells,and is permissive of triglyceride synthesis by adipocytes.
C)It increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose to insulin,and inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver.
D)It directly stimulates gluconeogenesis and lipolysis,and increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
E)It is permissive of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis,and reduces sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
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Q1) Luteinizing hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells of the testes.
A)True B)False
Q2) The gene on the Y chromosome that determines whether gonads will be testes or ovaries codes for a protein called Müllerian-inhibiting substance.
A)True B)False
Q3) A drug company produces a drug that prevents atresia.Which of the following might be a side-effect of this drug?
A)Increased rate of successful fertilization and increased incidence of multiple births (twins,etc. )
B)Lower circulating progesterone levels in the follicular phase
C)Lower circulating progesterone levels in the luteal phase
D)Higher circulating estrogen levels in the luteal phase
E)Increased production of sperm
Q4) Most of the primordial follicles a woman is born with eventually are ovulated.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following are types of lymphocytes?
A)T cells
B)Macrophages
C)Monocytes
D)Erythrocytes
E)Natural killer cells
Q2) In a patient receiving a bone marrow transplant which of the following cell types will be genetically dissimilar than the patient's own cells?
A)Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Monocytes
D)Endothelial cells
E)Thymus tissue cells
Q3) An infant fed with formula will have less passive immunity than a breast-fed infant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Helper T cells are important only for cell-mediated immune responses.
A)True
B)False
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